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# SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper 2018 Shift-2 (Mechanical Engineering)

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SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper – 2018 “held on 22 January 2018” Evening Shift (Mechanical Engineering)

Q 1: What kind of contact can be established for a higher pair ?
Options:
1) Point contact
2) Surface contact
3) No contact
4) None of these

Q 2: How many degrees of freedom exist in a free body in space ?
Options:
1) 3
2) 4
3) 5
4) 6

Q 3: A mechanism can be classified into a structure when the degree of freedom is_______
Options:
1) 0
2) 1
3) 2
4) 3

Q 4: Which of the following is used for controlling  fluctuations in an engine ?
Options:
1) Control valve
2) Flywheel
3) Governor
4) Flywheel and Governor both
Answer: Flywheel and Governor both

Q 5: Which term defines the fluctuations of speed of a flywheel in terms of angular speeds ?
Options:
1) 2(ω1 – ω2) / (ω1 + ω2)
2) 2(ω1 + ω2) / (ω1 – ω2)
3) 1 + ω2) / 2(ω1 – ω2)
4)1 – ω2) / 2(ω1 + ω2)
Answer: 2(ω1 – ω2) / (ω1 + ω2)

Q 6: What is the velocity ratio for a slip in the belt drive system ?
Options:
1) 2) 3) 4) Answer: Q 7: Which of the following is NOT classified as types of link ?
Options:
4) None of these
Answer: None of these

Q 8: Which of the following can be said to be equivalent with the frictional torque transmitted by a disc or plate clutch ?
Options:
1) Flat pivot bearing
2) Flat collar bearing
3) Conical pivot bearing
4) Trapezoidal pivot bearing
Answer: Flat collar bearing

Q 9: What should be the incremental factor for the number of shoes, if the engagement speed for the centrifugal clutch needs to be doubled ?
Options:
1) 0.5
2) 1
3) 2
4) 4

Q 10: Two gears are said to have a conjugate motion if________
Options:
1) They have a very small fluctuating angular velocity
2) They have variable angular velocity
3) They have constant angular velocity
4) They have very high fluctuating angular velocity
Answer: They have constant angular velocity

Q 11: Which of the following is CORRECT for the speed ratio of gear train ?
Options:
1) Speed of driver/speed of driven
2) Speed of driven/speed of driver
3) Number of teeth on driver/number of teeth on driven
4) None of these
Answer: Speed of driver / Speed of driver

Q 12: When the relation FC = a.r+b is satisfied for a spring controlled governor as the relation between controlling force (FC) and radius of rotation (r) This type of governor is known as______.
Options:
1) Stable
2) Unstable
3) Isochronous
4) Hunt

Q 13: Which of the following equation holds TRUE for height (In decameter) of the watt governor ?
Options:
1) 8.95/N2
2) 89.5/N2
3) 895/N2
4) 8950/N2

Q 14: Which ratio defines the height of a porter governor to that of the watt governor for equal arm and llnk lengths, where m is the mass of the ball and M is the mass of the sleeve ?
Options:
1) m / (M + m)
2) M / (M + m)
3) (M + m) / m
4) (M + m) / M
Answer: (M + m) / m

Q 15: What offset is provided for a cam follower mechanism ?
Options:
1) To avoid jerk
2) To accelerate
3) To decelerate
4) To minimize side thrust
Answer: To minimize side thrust

Q 16: Which of the following is NOT considered as a basic type of strain ?
Options:
1) Compressive strain
2) Shear strain
3) Area strain
4) Volume strain

Q 17: Which type of support has a reaction and a bending moment components ?
Options:
1) Hinge support
2) Roller support
3) Fixed support
4) None of these

Q 18: A rod with a length of 100 cm and diameter of 4 cm undergoes an axial pull of 50 KN. What is the stress (in N/mm2) ?
Options:
1) 0.04
2) 0.4
3) 4
4) 40

Q 19: Which of the following is TRUE for factor of safety ?
Options:
1) Tensile stress/Permissible stress
2) Compressive stress/ Ultimate stress
3) Ultimate stress/Permissible stress
4) Ultimate stress/Shear stress
Answer: Ultimate stress/Permissible stress

Q 20: If one end of the hinged column is made fixed and the other is free, then by how much the critical load is compared to the original value ?
Options:
1) 0.25
2) 0.5
3) 2
4) 4

Q 21: For which type of column the buckling load will be maximum ?
Options:
1) One end clamped and other free.
2) Both ends clamped
3) Both ends hinged
4) One end hinged other is free
Answer: Both ends clamped

Q 22: What will be the effect on Euler’s crippling load for a column with both ends hinged, If the legth of the column is halved ?
Options:
1) 0.25
2) 0.5
3) 2
4) 4

Q 23: Which is the CORRECT reason for the 5%, 10% of error in Euler’s crippling load, when estimated theoretically ?
Options:
1) Effect of direct stress is neglected.
2) Presence of friction in pin joints.
3) The assumptions made are not met in real life conditions.
4) Material does not behave as an ideal elastically.
Answer: The assumptions made are not met in real life conditions.

Q 24: If a load of 40 KN is applied in a compressive manner on a rod whose cross section is 10 mm x 20 mm. Then what will be the compressive stress (in MPa) on the rod ?
Options:
1) 0.2
2) 2
3) 20
4) 200

Q 25: What will be the thermal stress developed in a rod having a diameter of 4 cm and length of 2 m. It experiences heating from temperature 50oC to 200oC. The coefficient of thermal expansion is α=10×10-5 / oC and young’s modulus is 250 GPa ?
Options:
1) 300
2) 325
3) 350
4) 375
[sociallocker] Q 26: Which of the following is a dimensionless quantity ?
Options:
1) Shear stress
2) Poisson’s ratio
3) Torque
4) None of these

Q 27: Which of the curve is best suited for linear elastic-hardening plastic material ? Q 28: Which formula CORRECTLY depicts the elongation in a composite body ? Q 29: What is the formula for elongation of a conical bar (with length L and self weight W) due to its self weight ?
Options:
1) WL / 2AminE
2) WL2 / 2 Amin­­E
3) WL / 2AmaxE
4) WL / 2AmaxE
Answer: WL / 2AmaxE

Q 30: What will be the value of poisson’s ratio, If the elasticity and rigidity of the material is 200 GPa and 66.67 GPa ?
Options:
1) 0
2) 0.25
3) 0.5
4) 1

Q 31: What will be the dryness fraction for liquid (m1) and vapour (m2) mixture ?
Options:
1) x = (m1+m2) / m1
2) x = (m1+m2) / m2
3) x = m1 / (m1+m2)
4) x = m2 / (m1+m2)
Answer: x = m2 / (m1+m2)

Q 32: What is the amount of maximum work that can be extracted from a Carnot engine working between temperature 1000 K and 100 K ?
Options:
1) 0.1
2) 0.5
3) 0.9
4) 0.99

Q 33: When the degree of randomness increases, what is the change in entropy ?
Options:
1) Decreases
2) Increases
3) Unpredictable
4) Remains constant

Q 34: For a heat pump, the second law of efficiency can be written in the form_____.
Options:
1) (First law of efficiency) x (1 – Ta / To)
2) (First law of efficiency) x (1 + To / Ta)
3) (First law of efficiency) x (1 – To / Ta)
4) (First law of efficiency) x (1 + Ta / To)
Answer: (First law of efficiency) x (1 – Ta / To)

Q 35: Which entropy value best defines the state of water at triple point ?
Options:
1) Zero
2) More than zero
3) Less than zero
4) None of these

Q 36: Which of the following cycle is used in compression ignition (SI) engine ?
Options:
1) Carnot cycle
2) Diesel cycle
3) Dual cycle
4) Otto cycle

Q 37: The self ignition temperature of diesel is _______ as compared to that of petrol.
Options:
1) Is higher
2) Is lower
3) Is same
4) Cannot be determined

Q 38: What happens when supercharging is done for spark Ignition engines ?
Options:
1) Increase knocking
2) Decrease knocking
3) No effect
4) May increase or decrease.

Q 39: Which of the following factors does NOT contribute detonation in an engine ?
Options:
1) Engine overheating
2) High compression ratio
3) Stoichiometric fuel mixture
4) Wrong spark plug
Answer: Stoichiometric fuel mixture

Q 40: Which of the substance cannot be classified as pure substance ?
Options:
1) Chemical compounds
2) Humid air
3) Stainless steel
4) Water

Q 41: Which of the following statement is TRUE for work output of an ideal Otto cycle ?
Options:
1) Increases with an increase in adiabatic index
2) Increases with an increase in compression ratio.
3) Increases with an increase in pressure ratio.
4) All option are correct
Answer: All option are correct

Q 42: Which below stated statement is TRUE about a reservoir of heat ?
Options:
1) It has a variable temperature
2) The heat exchange is reversible
3) It has a finite heat capacity.
4) There exist no real heat reservoirs.
Answer: The heat exchange is reversible

Q 43: If a heat engine produces work without the consumption of energy then what kind of machine is this ?
Options:
1) Perpetual motion machine of first kind (PMM1)
2) Perpetual motion machine of second kind (PMM2)
3) Perpetual motion machine of third kind (PMM3)
Answer: Perpetual motion machine of first kind (PMM1)

Q 44: In a P-T phase diagram of a pure substance, which of the following lines separates solid and liquid region ?
Options:
1) Sublimation lines
2) Vaporization line
3) Melting or fusion line
4) Triple point
Answer: Melting or fusion line

Q 45: What is the dryness fraction (x) of a saturated liquid-vapour mixture ?
Options:
1) 0
2) 0
3) 1
4) Cannot be determined

Q 46: A gas is compressed frictionless from an initial state of 0.4 m3 and 0.1 Mpa to final state of 0.2 m3 and 0.1 MPa. There is a transfer of 35 KJ of heat from the gas. What is the change in Internal energy (in KJ) ?
Options:
1) –55
2) –15
3) 15
4) 55

Q 47: What is the velocity of steam (in m/sec) at exit across a steam whistle which is perfectly Insulated and does not perform any work and undergoes a drop of 0.2 KJ/KG in enthalpy from entry to exit ?
Options:
1) 10
2) 20
3) 30
4) 40

Q 48: A heat engine performs a work of 100 KJ per cycle. The efficiency of the engine is 50%. What will be the amount of heat rejected (In KJ) per cycle ?
Options:
1) 0
2) 50
3) 100
4) 200

Q 49: What the region (2) in the p-V diagram given below is called ?
Options:
1) Compressed liquid region
2) Saturated liquid vapour region
3) Solid-liquid region
4) Unsaturated solid region
Answer: Saturated liquid vapour region

Q 50: What happens during a throttling process ?
Options:
1) Steam temperature remains constant.
2) Steam pressure remains constant.
3) Steam entropy remains constant.
4) Steam enthalpy remains constant
Answer: Steam pressure remains constant.

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Q 51: Steel can be hardened quickly by ______ process
Options:
1) Carburizing
2) Cyaniding
3) Induction hardening
4) None of these

Q 52: _______ has excellent resistance to acids.
Options:
1) Permalloy
2) Constantan
3) Hastelloy
4) Monel metal

Q 53: which of the following properties pertain to cast iron ?
Options:
1) Resistance
2) Ductility
3) Wear resistance
4) Toughness

Q 54: Ball bearing races are
Options:
1) Turned
2) Ground
3) Nickel plated
4) Lapped

Q 55: A very soft whisper may have noise level of
Options:
1) About 10 db
2) About 30 db
3) About 40 db
4) About 100 db

Q 56: During the machining operation
Options:
1) The chips experience stresses
2) The chips experience strains
3) The values of stresses and strains are always calculated for the conditions at the normal plane
4) The chips experience stresses and strains
Answer: The chips experience stresses and strains

Q 57: The grinding wheel is considered better, If the grinding ratio is
Options:
1) Maximum
2) Very low
3) Average
4) Minimum

Q 58: Jig bushes are
Options:
1) The parts of a drill jig through which the cutting tools are operated and located.
2) The locating devices used in Jigs along with the fixture
3) The operating bushes in a Jig
4) The locating and clamping parts of a jig and fixture arrangement
Answer: The parts of a drill jig through which the cutting tools are operated and located.

Q 59: The following type of gauge has gauging sections combined on one end.
Options:
1) Progressive gauge
2) Fixed gauge
3) Limit gauge
4) Combination gauge

Q 60: Single point thread cutting tool should ideally have.
Options:
1) Positive rake
2) Zero rake
3) Normal rake
4) Negative rake

Q 61: The maximum heat content at 100oC in cal/m3 is possessed by the following gas.
Options:
1) CH4
2) SO2
3) O2
4) CO2

Q 62: The ratio of the specific heat at constant pressure to specific heat at constant volume for sir is equal to
Options:
1) 1.4
2) 0.14
3) 14
4) 140

Q 63: Heat pump is a device which
Options:
1) Convert mechanical energy into heat energy
2) Convert heat energy into mechanical energy
3) Delivers the heat flow low temperature to a high temperature in a cyclic process
4) Delivers the heat from high temperature to a low temperature in a cyclic process
Answer: Delivers the heat flow low temperature to a high temperature in a cyclic process

Q 64: Total heat supplied at constant volume is
Options:
1) Q = m x CP x (T2 – T1)
2) Q = m x R x (T2 – T1)
3) Q = mCV x (T2 + T1)
4) Q = mCV x (T2 – T1)
Answer: Q = mCV x (T2 – T1)

Q 65: The efficiency of the diesel cycle increases
Options:
1) With increase in cut-off ratio
2) With decrease in cut-off ratio
3) Remains unaffected
4) Unpredictable
Answer: With decrease in cut-off ratio

Q 66: In a polytropic process Options:
1) Only (a)
2) Only (b)
3) Only (c)
4) Only (d)

Q 67: The volumetric analysis of dry products of combustion
Options:
1) Bomb calorimeter
2) Viscosity meter
3) Orsat apparatus
4) Calorimeter

Q 68: A carrot engine rejects 30% of absorbed heat at a sink at 30oC. The temperature of the heat source is
Options:
1) 100oC
2) 433oC
3) 737oC
4) 1010oc

Q 69: Which one of the following phenomena occurs when gas in a piston-in-cylinder assembly expands reversibly at constant pressure ?
Options:
1) Heat is added to the gas
2) Heat is removed from the gas
3) Gas does work from its own stored energy
4) Gas undergoes adiabatic expansion
Answer: Heat is added to the gas

Q 70: A carrot heat pump works between temperature limits of 277oC and 27oC. Its COP is
Options:
1) 1.108
2) 1.2
3) 2.2
4) 9.26

Q 71: For an open channel at critical depth the flow becomes
Options:
1) Constant
2) Zero
3) Half
4) Maximum

Q 72: In case of pump the specific speed is given by:
Options:

1. A) N√Q / H1/2
2. B) N√N / H3/4
3. C) N√P / H2/3
4. D) N√Q / H3/4

Q 73: The unit of kinematic viscosity are
Options:
1) m2 / s
2) kg-s/m2
3) N-s / m2
4) N-s2 / m
Answer: m2 / s

Q 74: The hydraulic mean depth for a pipe water is equal to: Where d is the diameter of the pipe
Options:
1) d / 2
2) d / 4
3) 2d
4) 2πd
Answer: d / 4

Q 75: Vertical distribution of velocity in an open channel for laminar flow can be assumed as
Options:
1) Logarithmic
2) Parabolic
3) Straight line
4) Hyperbolic

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Q 76: Which of the following is an example of phenomenon surface tension ?
Options:
1) Rain drops
2) Rise of sap in a tree
3) Break up of liquid jets
4) All option are correct
Answer: All option are correct

Q 77: The height of the free surface above any point is known as
Options:
2) Intensity of pressure
3) Both static head and intensity of pressure
4) None of these
Answer: Both static head and intensity of pressure

Q 78: The metacentric height of battle ships is
Options:
1) 0.3 m to 0.8 m
2) 1.0 m to 1.5 m
3) 2.5 m to 3.5 m
4) 5.0 m to 6.0 m
Answer: 1.0 m to 1.5 m

Q 79: The loss of head due to sudden contraction is equal to
Options:
1) 0.75v2 / 2g
2) 0.75v2 / 4g
3) 1.5v2 / 2g
4) 0.25v2 / 2g
Answer: 0.75v2 / 2g

Q 80: The value of critical velocity is governed by the
Options:
1) Inertia force
2) Viscous force
3) Ratio of Inertia force and viscous force
4) None of these
Answer: Ratio of Inertia force and viscous force

Q 81: If a thin plate is held parallel to a fluid stream the pressure drag on it is:
Options:
1) Maximum
2) Minimum
3) Zero
4) None of these

Q 82: The weir with thick crest is known as
Options:
1) Drowned weir
2) Broad crested weir
3) Suppressed weir
4) Cippoletti weir

Q 83: In case of depressed nappe the pressure of air below the nappe is
Options:
1) Less than atmosphere
2) More than atmospheric
3) Equal to atmospheric
4) None of these
Answer: Less than atmosphere

Q 84: The type of turbine recommended for a head of 10 m is
Options:
1) Francis turbine
2) Kaplan
3) Pelton wheel
4) None of these

Q 85: The head of water required for pelton wheel is
Options:
1) Low
2) Medium
3) High
4) None of these

Q 86: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer

 List – 1 (Loss) List – II (Parameter responsible) A Leakage loss 1 Zero at design point B Friction loss 2 Proportional to head C Entrance loss 3 Proportional to half

Options:
1) A-1, B-2, C-3
2) A-2, B-3, C-1
3) A-1, B-3, C-2
4) A-2, B-1, C-3
Answer: A-1, B-2, C-3

Q 87: Consider the following equations:
A) A1V1 = A2V2
B) (∂u / ∂x) + (∂v / ∂y) = 0
C) D) Options:
1) Only A
2) A and B
3) B and C
4) C and D
Answer: A and B

Q 88: Two pumps can operate independently at heads H1.H2 and discharges Q1,Q2, respectively. If the pumps are connected In parallel, then what are the resulting discharge (Q) and head (H) ?
Options:
1) Q = Q1 + Q2
H = H1 + H2
2) Q = Q1 – Q2
H = H1 – H2
3) Q = Q1 = Q2
H = H1 = H2
4) Q = Q1 + Q2
H = H1 = H2
Answer:  Q = Q1 + Q2
H = H1 = H2

Q 89: Match List I with List II and Select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.

 List – 1 List – 2 A Dynamic viscosity 1 [ML2T3] B Moment of momentum 2 [ML-1T-2] C Power 3 [ML-1T-1] D Volume modules of elasticity 4 [ML2T-2] 5 [ML2T-1]

Options:
1) A-1; B-4; C-2; D-3
2) A-3; B-5; C-1; D-2
3) A-1; B-5; C-2; D-3
4) A-3; B-4; C-1; D-2
Answer: A-3; B-5; C-1; D-2

Q 90: What are the dimensions of kinematic viscosity of a fluid ?
Options:
1) LT-2
2) L2T-1
3) ML-1T-1
4) ML-2T2

Q 91: When can a piezometer not be used for pressure measurement in pipes ?
Options:
1) The pressure difference is low
2) The velocity is high
3) The fluid in the pipe is a gas
4) The fluid in the pipe is highly viscous
Answer: The fluid in the pipe is a gas

Q 92: Match List I (Measuring devices) with List II (Measured parameter) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list.

 List – 1 List – 2 A Pitot-tube 1 Flow static pressure B Micro-manometer 2 Rate of flow (indirect) C Pipe bend meter 3 Differential pressure D Wall pressure tap 4 Flow stagnation pressure

Options:
1) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
2) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
3) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
4) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
Answer: A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

Q 93: During the opening of a valve in a pipe line, the flow is
Options:
3) Uniform
4) Laminar

Q 94: Flow occurring in a pipeline when a value is being opened is
Options:
3) Laminar
4) Vortex

Q 95: The pressure in Pascals at a depth of 1 m below the free surface of water will be equal to
Options:
1) 1 Pa
2) 98.1 Pa
3) 981 Pa
4) 9810 Pa

Q 96: The efficiency of a centrifugal pump is maximum when its blades are
Options:
1) Straight
2) Bent forward
3) Bent backward
4) Bent forward first, and then backward

Q 97: Indicator diagram of a reciprocating pump is a graph between
Options:
1) Flow vs swept volume
2) Pressure in cylinder vs swept volume
3) Flow vs speed
4) Pressure vs speed
Answer: Pressure in cylinder vs swept volume

Q 98: The figure given below shows the relationship between power (P) and discharge (Q) for different vane exit angles of centrifugal pump. In the figure given below, curve C holds good for. Options:
1) Vane exit angle of 90o
2) Vane exit angle of less than 90o
3) Vane exit angle of more than 90o
4) Any vane exit angle
Answer: Vane exit angle of more than 90o

Q 99: An Impulse turbine
Options:
1) Operates submerged
2) Requires draft tube
3) Is most suited for low head applications
4) Operates by initial complete conversion to kinetic energy
Answer: Operates by initial complete conversion to kinetic energy

Q 100: If α is the angle subtended by two adjacent buckets in a Pelton wheel then then the number of buckets is equal to
Options:
1) 40 / α
2) 180 / α
3) 270 / α
4) 360 / α
Answer: 360 / α
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