SSC Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Paper – 2018 “held on 29 January 2018” Evening Shift (Civil Engineering)
Q1:- Which of the following is calcareous raw material used in the cement production?
Options:
1) Cement rock
2) Lime stone
3) Marine shells
4) All option are correct
Answer: Marine shells
Q2:- If the size of specimen used to test the compressive strength of concrete is decreased, then the compressive strength of concrete will______.
Options:
1) decrease
2) do not affected
3) first decrease then increase rapidly
4) increase
Answer: increase
Q3 – What is the bottom diameter (mm) of the standard mould used in slump test of the concrete?
Options:
1) 50
2) 100
3) 150
4) 200
Answer: 200
Q4:- The showing up of white fluffy layers on the surfaces of concrete is termed as______.
Options:
1) consistency
2) efflorescence
3) segregation
4) workability
Answer: efflorescence
Q5:- Tempering is the process used in the manufacturing of______.
Options:
1) bricks
2) bitumen
3) cement
4) paints
Answer: bricks
Q6:- Which of the following is burnt in the Hoffman’s kiln during the process of manufacturing?
Options:
1) Bitumen
2) Bricks
3) Clinker
4) Varnishes
Answer: Bricks
Q7:- In which of the following case Bethel process is used?
Options:
1) Brick manufacturing
2) Cement manufacturing
3) Manufacturing of bituminous material
4) Treatment of timber
Answer: Treatment of timber
Q8:- For proper workability of concrete, the water-cement ratio varies from_______.
Options:
1) 0.1 to 0.2
2) 0.2 to 0.4
3) 0.4 to 0.6
4) 0.6 to 0.8
Answer: 0.4 to 0.6
Q9:- The viscous liquid obtained from the destructive distillation of organic material is known as______.
Options:
1) paint
2) slag
3) tar
4) None of these
Answer: tar
Q10:- What is the approximate bitumen content (expressed in percentage) in the refined asphalt?
Options:
1) 5
2) 20
3) 36
4) 52
Answer: 52
Q11:- Which of the following is correct statement for the cubical content methods?
Options:
1) Cost of building is estimated by multiplying the total area with areal rate
2) It is based on the total area of the building.
3) It is less accurate as compared to plinth area estimate.
4) It is best suitable for the estimate of multi storey building.
Answer: It is best suitable for the estimate of multi storey building.
Q12:- How many bags of cement are required for 14 cubic meter of cement concrete work (1 : 2 : 4)?
Options:
1) 58
2) 70
3) 88
4) 116
Answer: 88
Q13:- The approximate quantity (kg) of bending and binding the reinforcement of mild steel per mason per day is______.
Options:
1) 200
2) 375
3) 450
4) 575
Answer: 375
Q14:- The knowledge of which items is necessary for the analysis of rates?
Options:
1) Contractor’s profit
2) Tool and plant expenditure
3) Task of a labour in one day
4) All option are correct
Answer: All option are correct
Q15:- What is the unit of measurement of pointing?
Options:
1) Meter
2) Cubic meter
3) Kilograms
4) Square meter
Answer: Square meter
Q16:- What is the nominal size (cm) of the standard brick as per Indian Standards?
Options:
1) 19 x 9 x 9
2) 20 x 9 x 9
3) 20 x 10 x 10
4) 22.9 x 11.4 x 7.6
Answer: 20 x 10 x 10
Q17:- The objective of creating the sinking fund is to accumulate the sufficient money to_____.
Options:
1) meet cost of construction and replacement after its useful life.
2) pay taxes
3) recover the cost of construction
4) save money for future
Answer: meet cost of construction and replacement after its useful life.
Q18:- Calculate the total weight (kg) of the steel bar required for a slab of 3 m x 2 m, if the slab is reinforced with 16 mm diameter bars @ 250 mm c/c in longitudinal and transverse direction.
Options:
1) 38
2) 75.85
3) 82.17
4) 113.78
Answer: 75.85
Q19:- Which of the following person functions as an arbitrator in public work department?
Options:
1) Chief engineers
2) Junior engineer
3) Superintending engineer
4) Supervisor
Answer: Superintending engineer
Q20:- Calculate the volume (cubic metre) of earth work in an embankment of length 15 m. The top width of the embankment is 5 m and depth is 3 m. The side slope is 1.5 : 1.
Options:
1) 225
2) 326.25
3) 367
4) 427.5
Answer: 427.5
Q21:- In geodetic surveying, sum of all the internal angles (degree) of a spherical triangle should be____.
Options:
1) equal to 180
2) equal to 360
3) greater than 180
4) less than 180
Answer: greater than 180
Q22:- A line of 5 m on the original map is shrunk to 4.6 m. Calculate the shrunk scale if the original scale of the map was 1 cm = 80 m.
Options:
1) 1 cm = 73.6 m
2) 1 cm = 79.6 m
3) 1 cm = 86.95 m
4) 1 cm = 92.4 m
Answer: 1 cm = 86.95 m
Q23:- Which of the following instrument is used for setting out right angles?
Options:
1) Clinometers
2) Offset rod
3) Prism square
4) Plumb bob
Answer: Prism square
Q24:- Determine the normal pull (kg) for a tape of 20 m long standardized at a pull of 30 kg. The cross section area of the tape is 0.5 square centimetres, weight of the tape per metre is 20 gm. Take modulus of the elasticity for tape material as 21,00,000 kg per square centimetre.
Options:
1) 28
2) 36.8
3) 64
4) 78
Answer: 64
Q25:- Which of the following expression is used for calculation of R.L of a point?
Options:
1) Height of instrument minus back sight
2) Height of instrument plus fore sight
3) Reduced level of previous point minus fore sight
4) Reduced level of previous point minus fall
Answer: Reduced level of previous point minus fall
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Q26:- Calculate the reduced bearing of a line if its whole circle bearing is 130 degree.
Options:
1) 50o
2) N 130o E
3) S 50o E
4) S 50o W
Answer: S 50o E
Q27:- Fore bearing and back bearing of the lines of a traverse are as follows:
| Line | AB | BC | CD | DE |
| Fore bearing (degree) | 125 | 172 | 264 | 315 |
| Back bearing (degree) | 304 | 351 | 83 | 136 |
Options:
1) A and D
2) A and C
3) C and D
4) Only D
Answer: Only D
Q28:- Which of the following features is shown by the parallel contour lines?
Options:
1) Flat plains
2) Hills
3) Steep slope
4) Uniform slope
Answer: Uniform slope
Q29:- Calculate the distance between the instrument and the staff if the staff readings are 1.56 m, 2.05 m and 2.56 m. The multiplying constant is 100 and additive constant is 10.
Options:
1) 61
2) 110
3) 112
4) 215.67
Answer: 110
Q30:- Calculate the length (m) of the longer chord of 250 m radius curve having deflection angle of 90 degree.
Options:
1) 250
2) 353.6
3) 392.7
4) 500
Answer: 353.6
Q31:- 10 m thick confined aquifer gives the steady state discharge of 0.03m3/s through the well of 50 cm radius. Due to pumping, the height of water in the well is dropped from 15 m to 10 m and the radius of influence is obtained as 500 m. What is the coefficient of permeability (mm/s)?
Options:
1) 0.66
2) 0.99
3) 1.25
4) 6.89
Answer: 0.66
Q32:- Which of the following represents the range of plasticity index for silt?
Options:
1) 10 to 15
2) 15 to 25
3) 25 to 35
4) 35 to 45
Answer: 10 to 15
Q33:- The grain size (mm) of medium grained sand lies between_____.
Options:
1) 0.425 to 0.075
2) 2.0 to 0.425
3) 4.75 to 2.0
4) 20 to 4.75
Answer: 2.0 to 0.425
Q34:- During the flow over length of 30 m, the head loss of 5 m is occurred during the seepage. What is the value of hydraulic gradient?
Options:
1) 0.005
2) 0.045
3) 0.167
4) 0.192
Answer: 0.167
Q35:- Which of the following is measured with the help of barometer?
Options:
1) Velocity
2) Discharge intensity
3) Pressure
4) Surface tension
Answer: Pressure
Q36:- If the gauge pressure and atmospheric pressure at a point are observed as 70 mm of mercury and 750 mm of mercury respectively. What is the value of the absolute pressure (mm of mercury) at that point?
Options:
1) 500
2) 680
3) 750
4) 820
Answer: 820
Q37:- The rise of mercury in barometer is indicated as 80 mm. What is the atmospheric pressure (kN/m2) at that point?
Options:
1) 80
2) 500
3) 10696
4) 15434
Answer: 10696
Q38:- Water is transported on a level road in the cylindrical container of diameter 0.5 m and height 0.8 m. The maximum acceleration of vehicle is 5m/s2. What is the initial allowable height of water (cm) in the tank, if there is no spill?
Options:
1) 50.5
2) 67.3
3) 92.7
4) 100
Answer: 67.3
Q39:- For a flow, the velocity field and variation in density is given as, 
and ρ= ρoe-3t respectively. What is the value of λ, if the mass is conserved?
Options:
1) -11
2) -10
3) 10
4) 11
Answer: -11
Q40:- A circular pipe of diametre 0.5 m carries the discharge of 50 litres/s. The head loss due to friction in pipe is 0.15 m and friction factor for the pipe is given as 0.01. What is the length (m) of pipe?
Options:
1) 50.5
2) 85.71
3) 98.95
4) 110.01
Answer: 85.71
Q41:- A siphon is used at point A to draw the water from large reservoir and discharge it to the point B at an atmospheric pressure. If the elevation difference of points A and B is 10 m, what is the velocity (m/s) at point B?
Options:
1) 10
2) 14
3) 24
4) 34
Answer: 14
Q42:- If the two exactly same pumps are running at the same speed and lift the water at the head of 20 m and 30 m respectively. What is the diameter of impeller of second pump if the diameter (mm) of impeller of first pump is 500 mm?
Options:
1) 430.2
2) 500.5
3) 612.5
4) 714.3
Answer: 612.5
Q43:- The Bulk modulus of a fluid is given by 25 GPa. What is the compressibility (Pa-1) of that fluid?
Options:
1) 4×10-9
2) 4×10-11
3) 25×10-9
4) 25×10-11
Answer: 4×10-11
Q44:- Which of the following parameter is measured with the help of elbow meter?
Options:
1) Acceleration
2) Velocity
3) Viscosity
4) Discharge
Answer: Discharge
Q45:- Which one of the followings is not a cause of water-logging?
Options:
1) Excess tapping of the ground water
2) Excess rainfall
3) Frequent irrigation
4) High water table
Answer: Excess tapping of the ground water
Q46:- Calculate the velocity of flow through a channel if the mean diameter of the soil particles is 0.5 mm and discharge is 60 cumces.
Options:
1) 0.75
2) 0.86
3) 0.93
4) 0.98
Answer: 0.93
Q47:- What is the value of the slope require for coning of the wheel?
Options:
1) 1 in 5
2) 1 in 10
3) 1 in 20
4) 1 in 25
Answer: 1 in 20
Q48:- Calculate the ratio of radius of the relative stiffness for concrete pavements if the ratio of their thickness is 1.5.
Options:
1) 1.106
2) 1.355
3) 1.837
4) 3.375
Answer: 1.355
Q49:- Which of the following represents the value of hourly variation factor?
Options:
1) 1.2
2) 1.5
3) 1.7
4) 2.5
Answer: 1.5
Q50:- What is the rainfall intensity (mm/hr) according to the formula given by British Ministry of Health, if the time of concentration is 540 seconds?
Options:
1) 20
2) 30
3) 40
4) 50
Answer: 40
SSC Junior Engineer (JE) All Previous Papers (NewtonDesk.com)
Q51:- Efficiency of a riveted joint us defined as the ratio of
Options:
1) least strength of a riveted joint to the strength of solid plate
2) greatest strength of a riveted joint to the strength of solid plate
3) least strength of a riveted plate to the greatest strength of the riveted joint
4) All option are correct
Answer: All option are correct
Q52:- The critical load for a column of length l hinged at both ends and having flexural rigidity EI, is given by
Options:
1) Pc = πEI/(L2)
2) Pc = π2EI/(L2)
3) Pc = πEI2/(L2)
4) None of these
Answer: Pc = π2EI/(L2)
Q53:- For determination of allowable stress in axial compression, Indian Standard Institution has adopted
Options:
1) Euler’s formula
2) Rankine formula
3) Engesser formula
4) Secant formula
Answer: Secant formula
Q54:- When a large value of radius of gyration is not required
Options:
1) channels are placed back to back
2) channel flanges are kept inward
3) channel flanges are kept outward
4) None of these
Answer: channel flanges are kept inward
Q55:- Perforated cover plates are particularly suitable for built up sections consisting of
Options:
1) channels placed back to back
2) channels placed toe to toe
3) four angle box section
4) All option are correct
Answer: four angle box section
Q56:- In a grillage footing, the maximum shear force occurs at the
Options:
1) edge of grillage beam
2) center of base plate
3) center of grillage beam
4) None of these
Answer: center of base plate
Q57:- Lug angle is
Options:
1) used with single angle member
2) not used with double angle member
3) used with channel member
4) All option are correct
Answer: All option are correct
Q58:- With usual notations of the letters, the shear stress fs at any point of the cross-section is given by
Options:
1) fs=FQ/lt
2) fs= Ft/IQ
3) fs= It/FQ
Answer: fs=FQ/lt
Q59:- A simply supported beam carrying a central load, will be safe in deflection if the ratio of its span to depth is
Options:
1) less than 19
2) less than 24
3) greater than 19
4) greater than 24
Answer: less than 24
Q60:- Rise of a Jack arch is kept about
Options:
1) 1/2 to 1/3 of the span
2) 1/3 to 1/4 of the span
3) 1/4 to 1/8 of the span
4) 1/8 to 1/12 of the span
Answer: 1/8 to 1/12 of the span
Q61:- Separation of coarse aggregates from mortar during transportation is known
Options:
1) bleeding
2) creeping
3) segregation
4) shrinkage
Answer: segregation
Q62:- Pick up the correct statement from the following:
Options:
1) High percentage of (C3 S) and low percentage of (C2 S) cause rapid hardening
2) High percentage of (C3 S) and low percentage of (C2 S) make the cement less resistive to chemical attack
3) Low percentage of (C3 S) and high percentage of (C2 S) contribute to slow hardening
4) All option are correct
Answer: All option are correct
Q63:- Water cement ratio is
Options:
1) volume of water to that of cement
2) weight of water to that of cement
3) Both ‘volume of water to that of cement ‘ and ‘weight of water to that of cement ‘.
4) weight of concrete to that of water
Answer: Both ‘volume of water to that of cement ‘ and ‘weight of water to that of cement ‘.
Q64:- Higher workability of a concrete is required if the structure is
Options:
1) made with cement concrete
2) thick and reinforced
3) thin and heavily reinforced
4) thick and heavily reinforced
Answer: thick and heavily reinforced
Q65:- Workability of concrete mix with low water cement ratio is determined by
Options:
1) tensile strength test
2) slump test
3) compaction factor test
4) flexural strength test
Answer: compaction factor test
Q66:- For preparing a test specimen it is necessary
Options:
1) to mix cement and fine aggregate by dry hand
2) to mix coarse aggregates
3) to mix water to the cement, fine aggregates and coarse aggregates
4) All option are correct
Answer: All option are correct
Q67:- The maximum thickness of concrete floor of a cement warehouse is
Options:
1) 10 cm
2) 15 cm
3) 20 cm
4) 25 cm
Answer: 25 cm
Q68:- The compaction of concrete improves
Options:
1) density
2) strength
3) durability
4) All option are correct
Answer: All option are correct
Q69:- Horizontal construction joints in concrete walls are generally provided at
Options:
1) window sill level
2) soffit level
3) floor level
4) All option are correct
Answer: All option are correct
Q70:- Workability of concrete for a given water content is good if the aggregates are
Options:
1) rounded aggregate
2) irregular aggregate
3) angular aggregate
4) flaky aggregate
Answer: rounded aggregate
Q71:- If a grading curve is horizontal between the portions of 20 mm I.S. Sieve and 4.75 mm I.S. sieve, the graded aggregates do not contain
Options:
1) 20 mm particles
2) 10 mm particles
3) 4.75 mm particles
4) All option are correct
Answer: All option are correct
Q72:- Saw dust can be rendered chemically inert by boiling it in water containing
Options:
1) ferrous sulphate
2) potassium chloride
3) ammonia
4) None of these
Answer: ferrous sulphate
Q73:- Pick up the correct statement from the following
Options:
1) Continuous grading is not necessary for obtaining a minimum of air voids
2) The omission of a certain size of aggregate is shown by a straight horizontal line on the grading curve
3) The omission of a certain size of aggregate in concrete increases the workability but also increases the liability
4) All option are correct
Answer: All option are correct
Q74:- For construction of structures in sea water, the cement generally preferred to is
Options:
1) Portland –pozzolana cement
2) quick setting cement
3) low heat Portland cement
4) None of these
Answer: Portland –pozzolana cement
Q75:- The strength of concrete made with angular aggregate and rounded aggregate is practically same at the water/cement ratio is
Options:
1) 0.4
2) 0.48
3) 55
4) 0.65
Answer: 0.65
SSC Junior Engineer (JE) All Previous Papers (NewtonDesk.com)
Q76:- Pick up the correct statement from the following: Drying shrinkage is affected by
Options:
1) The relative humidity of the atmosphere when the concrete is placed
2) The length of time
3) The water/cement ratio of the concrete
4) All option are correct
Answer: All option are correct
Q77:- The compound constituent of cement abbreviated by C3A represents:
Options:
1) tricalcium alumino ferrite
2) tricalcium aluminate
3) tricalcium silicate
4) dicalcium silicate
Answer: tricalcium aluminate
Q78:- Deleterious substances in aggregate are undesirable because they may:
Options:
1) affect the strength, workability, and long term performance of concrete
2) have intrinsic weakness, softness and fineness
3) interfere with the chemical reaction of hydration
4) All option are correct
Answer: All option are correct
Q79:- If the modular ratio is m, steel ratio is r and overall depth of a beam is d, the depth of the critical neutral axis of the beam is
Options:
1) {m/(m – r)}* d
2) {m/(m + r)}* d
3) {(m+r)/m}* d
4) None of these
Answer: {m/(m + r)}* d
Q80:- According to the steel beam theory of doubly reinforced beams
Options:
1) tension is resisted by tension steel
2) compression is resisted by compression steel
3) stress in tension steel equals the stress in compression steel
4) All option are correct
Answer: All option are correct
Q81:- If Sb is the average bond stress on a bar of diameter d subjected to maximum stress t, the length of the embedment l is given by
Options:
1) l = dt/Sb
2) l = dt/(2Sb)
3) l = dt/(3Sb)
4) l = dt/(4Sb)
Answer: l = dt/(4Sb)
Q82:- The stresses developed in concrete and steel in reinforced concrete beam 25 cm width and 70 cm effective depth are 62.5 kg/cm2and 250 kg/cm2respectively. If m= 15, the depth of its neutral axis is
Options:
1) 20 cm
2) 25 cm
3) 30 cm
4) 35 cm
Answer: 30 cm
Q83:- A T-beam behaves as a rectangular beam of a width equal to its flange if its neutral axis
Options:
1) remains within the flange
2) remains below the slab
3) coincides the geometrical center of the beam
4) None of these
Answer: remains within the flange
Q84:- If the maximum bending moment of a simply supported slab is M Kg.cm the effective depth of the slab is: (It is given that Q is M.R. factor)
Options:
1) M/(100 Q)
2) M/(10√Q)
3) M/√Q
4) None of these
Answer: None of these
Q85:- The percentage of minimum reinforcement should of the gross sectional area in slabs is
Options:
1) 0.001
2) 0.0012
3) 0.0015
4) 0.0018
Answer: 0.0015
Q86:- In a combined footing if shear stress does not exceed 5 kg⁄cm2, the nominal stirrups provided are
Options:
1) 6 legged
2) 8 legged
3) 10 legged
4) 12 legged
Answer: 8 legged
Q87:- On piles, the drop must be at least
Options:
1) 80 cm
2) 100 cm
3) 120 cm
4) 140 cm
Answer: 120 cm
Q88:- Total pressure on the vertical face of a retaining wall of height h acts parallel to free surface and from the base at a distance of h
Options:
1) h/4
2) h/3
3) h/2
4) 2h/3
Answer: h/3
Q89:- The ratio of the length and depth of a simply supported rectangular beam which experiences maximum bending stress equal to tensile stress due to same load at its mid span is
Options:
1) 1/2
2) 2/3
3) 1/4
4) 1/3
Answer: 2/3
Q90:- The maximum deflection of a simply supported beam of span L carrying an isolated load at the center of the span, flexural rigidity being EI is
Options:
1) WL3/3EI
2) WL3/8EI
3) WL3/24EI
4) WL3/48EI
Answer: WL3/48EI
Q91:- A steel plate d x b is sandwiched rigidly between two timber joists each D x B/2 in section. The moment of resistance of the beam for the same maximum permissible stress σ in timber and steel will be:
Where Young’s modulus of steel is m times that of the timber
Options:
1) σ(BD2+ mbd2)/6D
2) σ(BD3+ mbd3)/6D
3) σ(BD3+ mbd3)/4D
4) σ(BD2+ mbd2)/4D
Answer: σ(BD3+ mbd3)/6D
Q92:- The radius of gyration of a section of area A and least moment of inertia I about the centroidal axis is
Options:
1) A/I
2) I/A
3) √(I/A)
4) √(A/I)
Answer: √(I/A)
Q93:- In the truss shown below, the force in member BD is
Options:
1) 100 t compressive
2) 100 t tensile
3) zero
4) indeterminate
Answer: 100 t compressive
Q94:- The Force in AD of the truss shown in figure below is
Options:
1) 4.0 t compression
2) 3.0 t compression
3) 0.5 t compression
4) 0.5 t tension
Answer: 0.5 t compression
Q95:- If D and d are external and internal diameters of a circular shaft respectively, its polar moment of inertia is
Options:
1) π(D4 – d4)/2
2) π(D4 – d4 )/4
3) π(D4 – d4)/64
4) π(D4 – d4)/32
Answer: π(D4 – d4)/32
Q96:- Pick up the correct statement from the following
Options:
1) A wire wound in spiral form is called helical spring
2) The pitch of a close coil spring is very small
3) The angle made by the coil with horizontal, is called the angle of helix
4) All option are correct
Answer: All option are correct
Q97:- If Q is load factor, S is shape factor and F is factor of safety in elastic design, the following:
Options:
1) Q=S + F
2) Q=S – F
3) Q=F – S
4) Q=S x F
Answer: Q=S x F
Q98:- A two hinged parabolic arch of span l and rise h carries a load varying from zero at the left end to w per unit run at the right end. The horizontal thrust is
Options:
1) (wl2)/4h
2) (wl2)/8h
3) (wl2)/12h
4) (wl2)/16h
Answer: (wl2)/16h
Q99:- The maximum Bending Moment due to an isolated load in a three-hinged parabolic arch (span l, rise h) having one of its hinges at the crown, occurs on either side of the crown at a distance
Options:
1) l/4
2) h/4
3) l/(2√3)
4) l/(3√2)
Answer: l/(2√3)
Q100:- The equivalent length of a column of length L having both the ends hinged is
Options:
1) 2L
2) L
3) L/2
4) L/√2
Answer: L
