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Home / Civil / SSC JE Previous Question Paper 2018 Shift 11 (Civil Engineering)

SSC JE Previous Question Paper 2018 Shift 11 (Civil Engineering)

SSC Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Question Paper 2018 “held on 29 January 2018” Morning Shift (Civil Engineering)

ssc je previous year question papers 2018 shift 11 civil engineering

Q1:- Which one of the following treatment is used to make the timber fire resistance?
Options:
1) Abel’s process
2) Empty cell process
3) Envelope treatment
4) Tarring
Answer: Abel’s process

Q2:- The dynamic modulus of elasticity of sample of concrete is compared in______.
Options:
1)  compression test
2) split test
3) tension test
4) ultrasonic pulse velocity test
Answer: ultrasonic pulse velocity test

Q3:- Efflorescence in bricks causes due to_______.
Options:
1) excessive burning of bricks
2) high content of silt in brick clay
3) high porosity of the bricks
4) present of soluble salt in parent clay
Answer: present of soluble salt in parent clay

Q4:- Which of the following compounds of Portland cement reacts immediately with the water and set early?
Options:
1) Dicalcium silicate
2) Tetracalcium aluminoferrite
3) Tricalcium aluminate
4) Tricalcium silicate
Answer: Tricalcium aluminate

Q5:- In the concrete mix with proportions of its ingredient 1:3:6, the actual quantity of sand per unit volume of cement, if bulking of the sand is 15% is______.
Options:
1) 3
2) 3.45
3) 6
4) 4.5
Answer: 3.45

Q6:- Which of the following is TRUE regarding stress-strain curve of concrete?
Options:
1) A straight line up to the failure.
2) Hyperbolic up to 0.002% strain value and then a straight line up to failure.
3) Parabolic up to 0.002% strain value and then a straight line up to failure.
4) Straight line up to 0.002% strain value and then parabolic up to failure.
Answer: Parabolic up to 0.002% strain value and then a straight line up to failure.

Q7:- Which one of the following is used as a carrier in paint?
Options:
1) Almond oil
2) Linseed oil
3) Mustard oil
4) Olive oil
Answer: Linseed oil

Q8:- Which of the following tests are used for testing of tiles?
1. breaking strength test
2. impact test
3. transverse strength test
4. water absorption test
Options:
1) 1 and 3 only
2) 1, 2 and 3 only
3) 1, 2 and 4 only
4) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q9:- How many bricks are required for 1 cubic meter of brick masonry work?
Options:
1) 300
2) 500
3) 1000
4) 1500
Answer: 500

Q10:- Which of the following mineral is responsible for the red colour in bricks?
Options:
1) Iron oxide
2) Lime
3) Magnesia
4) Silica
Answer: Iron oxide

Q11:- What is the unit of measurement for steel reinforcement?
Options:
1) Number
2) Kilograms
3) Running meter
4) Quintal
Answer: Quintal

Q12:- What is the weight (in kg) per meter length for 12 mm diameter steel bar?
Options:
1) 0.8
2) 0.89
3) 1.1
4) 1.4
Answer: 0.89

Q13:- What percentage of the total cost is added in the cost of construction for contingencies?
Options:
1) 2%
2) 5%
3) 1%
4) 15%
Answer: 5%

Q14:- What percentage of total cost is added to the schedule of rates of the public work department for over-head cost?
Options:
1) 10%
2) 15%
3) 18%
4) 21.5%
Answer: 21.5%

Q15:- For estimation of painting area of corrugated sheets, percentage increase in area above the plain area is______.
Options:
1) 10%
2) 14%
3) 20%
4) 25%
Answer: 14%

Q16:- Central line method for estimation is suitable for________.
Options:
1) building having large numbers of cross wall
2) building having large numbers of junctions
3) walls having different widths
4) walls having same widths
Answer: walls having same widths

Q17:- Deduction at the L-junction of wall for total length of the central line is______.
Options:
1) half the thickness of wall
2) no reduction
3) thickness of wall
4) twice the thickness of wall
Answer: No reduction

Q18:- Calculate the quantity of the cement required in cubic meter for 10 square meters of cement plaster 12 mm thick using cement mortar of 1:6.
Options:
1) 0.015
2) 0.0175
3) 0.0205
4) 0.0325
Answer: 0.0205

Q19:- Calculate the quantity of the earthworks in cubic meter for a canal embankment of 100 m long having heights of 3 m and 5 m at the two extreme edges. Top widths of the embankment are 2 m and 4 m at the two extreme edges and side slope is 2: 1. Use trapezoidal method.
Options:
1) 3500
2) 4000
3) 4200
4) 4700
Answer: 4700

Q20:- Calculate the primary estimate including contractor’s profit in rupees for the building having a plinth area of 1,500 square meters and a rate of Rs. 2,000 per square meter.
Options:
1) 30,00,000
2) 31,50,000
3) 33,00,000
4) 35,00,000
Answer: 33,00,000

Q21:- 10 divisions of vernier scale are equal to 11 divisions of a main scale of each 0.1 mm. What is the least count of the vernier scale?
Options:
1) 0.009
2) 0.01
3) 0.1
4) 1.1
Answer: 0.01

Q22:- Which one of the following statements includes the principle of surveying?
Options:
1) Working from higher to lower level.
2) Working from lower to higher level.
3) Working from part to whole
4) Working from whole to part
Answer: Working from whole to part

Q23:- Number of links in 20 m metric chain is______.
Options:
1) 80
2) 100
3) 120
4) 150
Answer: 100

Q24:- The hypotenuse allowance (in m) for 30 m long chain, if the slope is 1:10 is______.
Options:
1) 0.1
2) 0.12
3) 0.15
4) 0.22
Answer: 0.15

Q25:- What is the declination if magnetic meridian is towards the western side of the true meridian?
Options:
1) Either negative or positive
2) Negative
3) Positive
4) Zero
Answer: Negative

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Q26:- Correction of length due to reduction to mean sea level is_______.
Options:
1) directly proportional to measured length.
2) directly proportional to radius of the earth.
3) inversely proportional to measured length
4) inversely proportional to height above mean sea level
Answer: directly proportional to measured length.

Q27:- How much refraction correction (in m) is required for a distance of 500 m?
Options:
1) 0.0028
2) 0.0056
3) 5.61
4) 2850
Answer: 0.0028

Q28:- What is the purpose of conducting the resection method in the plan table surveying?
Options:
1) To determine the location of the instrument
2) To plot the details
3) To survey hilly region
4) To survey plain region
Answer: To determine the location of the instrument

Q29:- What is the degree of the curve (in degree) for a radius of 573 m using chain of 20 m length?
Options:
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 5
Answer: 2

Q30:- Which method of contouring is most suitable for hilly terrains?
Options:
1) Cross section method
2) Direct method
3) Square method
4) Tachometric method
Answer: Cross section method

Q31:- The pore water pressure in the soil sample of consolidometer test is______.
Options:
1) maximum at bottom
2) maximum at center
3) maximum at top
4) minimum at center
Answer: maximum at center

Q32:- The clay deposit of thickness 10 cm and void ratio 0.5 undergoes settlement and now it’s final void ratio is 0.2. The thickness (cm) of the settlement layer is______.
Options:
1) 1
2) 1.5
3) 2
4) 2.5
Answer: 2

Q33:- Which of the following represent the percentage limit of porosity of the compacted sand?
Options:
1) 5% to 15%
2) 15% to 30%
3) 30% to 40%
4) 40% to 50%
Answer: 30% to 40%

Q34:- In the falling head permeability test, in the duration of 3 hours the initial head of 1000 mm is dropped to 350 mm. The diameter of the stand pipe is 0.5 cm. The length and diameter of the soil specimen are 20 cm and 10 cm respectively. What is the coefficient of permeability (mm/s) of the soil?
Options:
1) 86 x 10-8
2) 86 x 10-5
3) 86 x 10-3
4) 86 x 10-5
Answer: 86 x 10-5

Q35:- Which of the following is CORRECT to maximize the efficiency of all reaction turbines?
Options:
1) Angle of absolute velocity vector at outlet is 90 degrees
2) Blade angle is 90 degrees at inlet
3) Blade angle is 90 degrees at outlet
4) Guide vane angle is 90 degrees
Answer: Angle of absolute velocity vector at outlet is 90 degrees

Q36:- A 1.2 m wide rectangular channel of bed slop 0.0004 and manning’s coefficient 0.01, carrying the discharge of 0.5m3/s. The normal depth of the channel is _______.
Options:
1) 0.13
2) 0.32
3) 0.43
4) 0.5
Answer: 0.5

Q37:- Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
Options:
1) Pumps connected in parallel are used to boost the head, whereas pump operating in series boosts the discharge.
2) Pump operating in series, boosts the head, whereas pump operating in parallel, boosts the discharge.
3) Pump either in parallel or series always boost only discharge.
4) Pump either in parallel or series always boost only head.
Answer: Pump operating in series, boosts the head, whereas pump operating in parallel, boosts the discharge.

Q38:- Draft tube at the exit of a reaction turbine used for hydroelectric project is_____.
Options:
1) above or below the water surface, depends on unit speed of the turbine
2) always above the water surface
3) always immersed in water
4) may either be below or above the water surface
Answer: always immersed in water

Q39:- What is the depth of the center of pressure for the rectangular lamina which is vertically inside the water of height h?
Options:
1) h/3
2) h/4
3) 2h/3
4) 3h/2
Answer: 2h/3

Q40:- In the hydel system, a forebay is used at the junction of______.
Options:
1) penstoke and turbine
2) power channel and penstock
3) power channel and tail race channel
4) tail race channel and penstock
Answer: power channel and penstock

Q41:- The motion of outgoing water from the hole made at midpoint of completely filled open cylindrical tank with water is______.
Options:
1) forced vortex
2) irrotational
3) rotational
4) turbulen
Answer: forced vortex

Q42:- Which one is CORRECT about streamlined body?
Options:
1) Corners are rounded off.
2) Separation occurs in the farthest downstream part of the body.
3) Skin friction is zero.
4) Thickness of body is equal to 1/100 of its length.
Answer: Separation occurs in the farthest downstream part of the body.

Q43:- What is the specific speed of a centrifugal pump, which has a rated capacity of 44 cumec and a head of 36 m when operated at the speed of 725 rpm?
Options:
1) 45
2) 255
3) 327
4) 350
Answer: 327

Q44:- On which of the following principle Bernoulli’s equation is based?
Options:
1) Conservation of momentum
2) Conservation of energy
3) Conservation of mass
4) Archimedes principle
Answer: Conservation of energy

Q45:- In an irrigated field, the net irrigation requirement is 15 cm, the application efficiency is 80% and water conveyance efficiency is 60%. What is the gross irrigation requirement (in cm)?
Options:
1) 11.25
2) 18.75
3) 25
4) 31.25
Answer: 31.25

Q46:- Available moisture is the difference in water content of soil between field capacity and________.
Options:
1) gravitational water
2) permanent wilting point
3) saturation capacity
4) ultimate wilting point
Answer: permanent wilting point

Q47:- Right of way is the summation of the width of_______.
Options:
1) carriage way and shoulder
2) carriage way, shoulder and road margins
3) carriage way and road margins
4) road margins and shoulder
Answer: carriage way, shoulder and road margins

Q48:- Gradient on a highway is 1 in 20. Radius of the curve is 200 m. After grade compensation the grade to be provided should not be less than 4%. Calculate the grade compensation.
Options:
1) 0.38%
2) 1.15%
3) 4.63%
4) 5%
Answer: 0.38%

Q49:- Which one of the following is most important parameter for the removal of discrete particles in design of continuous flow rectangular sedimentation tank?
Options:
1) Depth of tank
2) Length of tank
3) Surface overflow rate
4) Temperature of water to be treated
Answer: Surface overflow rate

Q50:- The most efficient method to conserve energy in the form of oil and gases is_______.
Options:
1) combusting
2) fluidized-bed incineration
3) incineration with heat recovery
4) pyrolysis
Answer: pyrolysis

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Q51:- Dead load comprises of:-
Options:
1) Permanently attached loads
2) Temporarily attached loads
3) Permanent as well as temporary loads
4) Snow load
Answer: Permanently attached loads

Q52:- Which of the following statements is true?
1. Impact loads are equal to the sum of the magnitude of the loads actually caused and the magnitude of the loads had they been dead loads.
2. Impact loads are equal to the difference between the above mentioned entities.
Options:
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Both A and B
4) Neither A nor B
Answer: Only B

Q53:- What will be the value of reduction factor R1 if value of At is given to be 500ft2?
Options:
1) 0.5
2) 0.6
3) 0.7
4) 0.8
Answer: 0.7

Q54:- If we use a link support in a structural system, then how many unknowns would we have?
Options:
1) 0
2) 1
3) 2
4) None of these
Answer: 1

Q55:- Which of the following statements is true?
1. For instability, at least one joint of the structure should be able to displace without causing change in length of all the members.
2.
For instability, at least one joint of the structure should be able to displace without causing change in length of at least one of the members.
Options:
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Both A and B
4) None of these
Answer: Only B

Q56:- If all the reactions acting on a planar system are concurrent in nature, then the system is:-
Options:
1) Can’t say
2) Essentially stable
3) Essentially unstable
4) None of these
Answer: Essentially unstable

Q57:- In the following questions, j represent no. of joints and r represents no. of external forces. If a structure has 2j – r no. of members, then it will be:-
Options:
1) Stable
2) Unstable
3) Depends upon structure
4) depends upon magnitude of load
Answer: Depends upon structure

Q58:- What is the function of portal in bridge trusses?
Options:
1) To resist lateral forces
2) To resist horizontal forces
3) To provide additional stability
4) To allow thermal expansion
Answer: To provide additional stability

Q59:- Which of the following statements is true?
1. Simple trusses consist entirely of triangle.
2. It can consists of any other shaped intermediate parts, as long as it is stable.
Options:
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Both A and B
4) Neither A nor B
Answer: Both A and B

Q60:- Given that J is no. of joints. B and R are no. of members and no. of reactions. If B = 5, R = 3 and J = 4, then the truss is:-
Options:
1) Statically determinate
2) Statically indeterminate
3) Stable
4) Unstable
Answer: Statically determinate

Q61:- Which of the following is most common alternative to cement in concrete?
Options:
1) Slag
2) Fly ash
3) Asphalt
4) Lime
Answer: Asphalt

Q62:- is added to make white concrete.
Options:
1) Fly ash
2) Metakaolin
3) Rise husk
4) Pigments
Answer: Metakaolin

Q63:- Which process comes after batching in manufacture process of concrete?
Options:
1) Transportation
2) Placing
3) Mixing
4) Compacting
Answer: Mixing

Q64:- In small works, concrete is transported using:
Options:
1) Conveyer belts
2) Pumps
3) Pans
4) Buckets
Answer: Pans

Q65:- Steam curing of concrete is adopted for:
Options:
1) Precast structures
2) Columns
3) Beams
4) Walls
Answer: Precast structures

Q66:- How does the strength of concrete differ with age of concrete?
Options:
1) Increases
2) Decreases
3) No effect
4) Increases, then decreases
Answer: Increases

Q67:- Bleeding is good to an extent if it occurs when concrete is:
Options:
1) Transported
2) Mixed
3) Plastic
4) Plastic
Answer: Placed

Q68:- The figure given below represents a:

collapse slump of concrete

Options:
1) Low slump of concrete
2) Normal slump of concrete
3) Shear slump of concrete
4) Collapse slump of concrete
Answer: Collapse slump of concrete

Q69:- The size of commonly used specimen for compression test of concrete is:
Options:
1) 50 × 30 mm
2) 150 x 150 x 150 mm
3) 150 x 50 x 50 mm
4) 150 × 150 mm
Answer: 150 x 150 x 150 mm

Q70:-   is used to ensure that the thickness of plastering is uniform.
Options:
1) Bull point
2) Pivot point
3) Bull mark
4) Bench mark
Answer: Bull mark

Q71:-  are used to press mortar and spread it uniformly.
Options:
1) Trowel
2) Aluminium rod
3) Floats
4) Brush
Answer: Floats

Q72:- The ratio of the allowable bond stress in deformed bars to that of plain bars is about:-
Options:
1) 1.2
2) 1.3
3) 1.8
4) None of these
Answer: None of these

Q73:- For which of the following grades ordinary concrete is not used?
Options:
1) M100
2) M400
3) M200
4) M250
Answer: M400

Q74:- The ratio of various ingredients (cement, sand, aggregates) in concrete of grade M 200 is: A. 1:2:4
1. 1:3:6
2. 1: 1.5: 3
3.
1:1:2
Options:
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Both A and B
4) None of these
Answer: None of these

Q75:- What do we need to do while designing an air entrained concrete?
Options:
1) water cement ratio is to be reduced
2) proportion of aggregates is to be reduced
3) an allowance for the entrained air is made
4) All option are correct
Answer: All option are correct

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Q76:- If the effective plan area of a warehouse is 54 sq. m, and maximum height of piles permitted is 270 cm, then what is the number of cement bags that can be stored?
Options:
1) 200
2) 2000
3) 24000
4) 2700
Answer: 2700

Q77:- Which of the following is the results of proper batching of concrete?
A. Economy
B. Durability
C. Workability
D. Strength
Options:
1) A and B Only
2) A, B, and C Only
3) A and D only
4) A, B, C and D
Answer: A, B, C and D

Q78:- The process of mixing, transporting, placing and compacting concrete using Ordinary Portland cement should not take more than how much time?
Options:
1) 30 minutes
2) 40 minutes
3) 75 minutes
4) None of these
Answer: 30 minutes

Q79:- PSC stands for:
Options:
1) Post-Stressed Concrete
2) Post-Strained Concrete
3) Pre-Stressed Concrete
4) Pre-strained Concrete
Answer: Pre-Stressed Concrete

Q80:- Which of the below structure doesn’t require Pre Stressed Concrete?
Options:
1) Bridge
2) Arch
3) Dam
4) Silos
Answer: Arch

Q81:- Which of the following is the minimum thickness of a flat slab that is taken into consideration?
Options:
1) 13 cm
2) L/32 for end panels without drops
3) L/36 for end panels without drops
4) All option are correct
Answer: All option are correct

Q82:- If W is the load on a circular slab of radius R, the maximum circumferential moment at the center of the slab is
A) WR2 / 16
B) 2WR2 / 16
C) 3WR2 / 16
Options:
1) A Only
2) B Only
3) C Only
4) Zero
Answer: C Only

Q83:- The ratio of the breadth to effective depth of a beam is kept
Options:
1) 0.25
2) 0.5
3) 0.7
4) 0.75
Answer: 0.5

Q84:- A ribbed slab is provided for which of the following?
Options:
1) a plain ceiling
2) thermal insulation
3) acoustic insulation
4) All option are correct
Answer: All option are correct

Q85:- The thickness of the flange of a Tee beam of a ribbed slab is assumed as
Options:
1) width of the rib
2) depth of the rib
3) thickness of the concrete topping
4) half the thickness of the rib
Answer: thickness of the concrete topping

Q86:- Which of the following statements is true?
Options:
1) A pile is a slender member which transfers the load through its lower end on a strong strata
2) A pile is a slender member which transfers its load to the surrounding soil
3) A pile is a slender member which transfers its load by friction
4) A pile is a cylindrical body of concrete which transfers the load at a depth greater than its width
Answer: A pile is a slender member which transfers its load to the surrounding soil

Q87:- According to I.S. 456-1978, the thickness of reinforced concrete footing on piles at its edges is kept less than
Options:
1) 5 cm
2) 10 cm
3) 15 cm
4) 20 cm
Answer: 15 cm

Q88:- If q is the punching shear resistance per unit area a, is the side of a square footing for a column of side b, carrying a weight W including the weight of the footing, the depth (D) of the footing from punching shear consideration is
A) D = W(a-b) / 4a2bq
B) D = W(a2-b2) / 4a2bq
C) D = W(a2-b2) / 8a2bq
D) D = W(a2-b2) / 4abq
Options:
1) A Only
2) B Only
3) C Only
4) D Only
Answer: B Only

Q89:- The tangential component of stress on an plane inclined θo to the direction of the force, may be obtained by multiplying the normal stress by______.
A) Sin θ
B) Cos θ
C) tan θ
D) Sin2θ
Options:
1) A Only
2) B Only
3) C Only
4) D Only
Answer: D Only

Q90:- Shear strain energy theory for the failure of a material at elastic limit is due to
Options:
1) Rankine
2) Guest or Trecas
3) St.Venant
4) Von Mises
Answer: Von Mises

Q91:- Pick up the indeterminate structure from those shown in the figure given below.

indeterminate structure

Options:
1) Figure (i)
2) Figure (ii)
3) Figure (iii)
4) Figure (iv)
Answer: Figure (iii)

Q92:- Beams composed of more than one material, rigidly connected together so as to behave as one piece, are known as
Options:
1) Compound beams
2) Indeterminate beams
3) Determinate beams
4) Composite beams
Answer: Composite beams

Q93:- Poisson’s ratio is μ defined as the ratio of
Options:
1) axial strain to transverse strain
2) axial strain to shear strain
3) shear strain to axial strain
4) None of these
Answer: None of these

Q94:- Among the following identify the dimensionless quantity.
Options:
1) Shear force
2) Stress
3) Strain
4) Modulus of elasticity
Answer: Strain

Q95:- Identify the correct statement.
Options:
1) Hooke’s law is valid up to Elastic limit
2) Hooke’s law is valid up to Yield point
3) Hooke’s law is valid up to Limit of proportionality
4) Hooke’s law is valid up to Limit of proportionality
Answer: Hooke’s law is valid up to Limit of proportionality

Q96:- For an isotropic, homogeneous and elastic material obeying Hook’s law, number of independent elastic constants is
Options:
1) 3
2) 1
3) 9
4) None of these
Answer: None of these

Q97:- The angle between the principle plane and the plane of maximum shear is
Options:
1) 90 degree
2) 135 degree
3) 60 degree
4) None of these
Answer: None of these

Q98:- The state of pure shear stress is produced by
Options:
1) tension in one direction and equal compression in perpendicular direction
2) equal tension in two directions at right angles
3) equal compression in two directions at right angles
4) None of these
Answer: tension in one direction and equal compression in perpendicular direction

Q99:- When the length of a tension member is too long
Options:
1) a wire rope is used
2) a rod is used
3) a bar is used
4) a single angle is used
Answer: a bar is used

Q100:- The allowable stress in axial tension is generally kept less if thickness of the member is more than
Options:
1) 10 mm
2) 12 mm
3) 15 mm
4) 20 mm
Answer: 20 mm

SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers

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