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# SSC JE Previous Question Paper 2018 Shift 5 (Civil Engineering)

SSC Junior Engineer (JE) Exam Paper – 2018 “held on 24 January 2018” Morning Shift (Civil Engineering)

Q 1: What is the amount of water used to conduct the initial setting time test of cement which has a standard consistency of P.
Options:
1) 0.55 P
2) 0.85 P
3) 0.60 P
4) 0.95 P

Q 2: What is the water-cement ratio (w/c) required to complete the reactions in hydration of cement?
Options:
1) 0.15 to 2.0
2) 0.20 to 0.30
3) 0.35 to 0.45
4) 0.50 to 0.65

Q 3: What is the temperature range in the cement kiln?
Options
1) 800 to 1050 oC
2) 1050 to 1300 oC
3) 1300 to 1500 oC
4) 1800 to 2100 oC

Q 4: Which of the following is used to test the ﬁneness of a cement?
Options:
1) Air-content method
2) Air-permeability method
3) Le-Chatelier apparatus
4) Vicat’s apparatus

Q 5: What is the ratio (approximate) of 7 days and 28 days strength of cement concrete?
Options:
1) 0.45
2) 0.65
3) 0.95
4) 1.15

Q 6: Compaction factor is deﬁned as the ratio of
Options:
1) Mass of fully compacted concrete to mass of partially compacted concrete
2) Mass of partially compacted concrete to mass of fully compacted concrete
3) Mass of partially compacted concrete to the total mass of concrete
4) None of these
Answer: Mass of partially compacted concrete to mass of fully compacted concrete

Q 7: Which of the following is CORRECT for the workability of the concrete having the compaction factor of 0.92?
Options:
1) High
2) Low
3) Medium
4) None of these

Q 8: Which of the following shows the CORRECT expression for target mean (fcm) of concrete, if the characteristic strength and standard deviation is given by fck and σ respectively?
Options:
1) fcm = fck + 1.65 σ
2) fcm = fck – 1.65 σ
3) fcm = fck – (σ / 1.05)
4) fcm = fck + 1.5 σ
Answer: fcm = fck + 1.65 σ

Q 9: Which of the following constituents is present in the blast furnace slag?
Options:
1) 50% alumina and 20% calcium oxide
2) 45% calcium oxide and 35% silica
3) 25% calcium oxide and 15% silica
4) 25% magnesia and 15% silica
Answer: 45% calcium oxide and 35% silica

Q 10: Which of the timber is used to make the goods that are used in the sports industry?
Options:
1) Alder
2) Asanfona
3) Mulberry
4) Balsa

Q 11: Which of the following estimate is carried out if the sectioned estimate exceeds 5% due to the change in the
Options:
1) Detailed estimate
2) Plinth area estimate
3) Preliminary estimate
4) Revised estimate

Q 12: For estimation of the masonry work and excavation work, accuracy requirement in the measurement of the length as compared to thickness or width is
Options:
1) Less
2) More
3) Equal
4) Independent

Q 13: A wall of width 300 mm contains two T junctions. The height of the wall is 3 m and total length of the central line is 150 m. Calculate the quantity of the brick work (in cubic meter) using central line method.
Options:
1) 134.46
2) 134.73
3) 134.86
4) 135

Q 14: Which of the following is measured in cubic meter?
Options:
1) Brick work
2) Concrete work
3) Excavation work
4) Plinth

Q 15: For estimation of the brick masonry, no deduction is made for the end of the rafter up to the area (square inch) of
Options:
1) 50
2) 72
3) 108
4) 44

Q 16: Calculate the quantity (cubic meter) of the concrete used in a pier of 1.2 m diameter and 6 m length. The pier is reinforced with 8 bars of 25 mm diameter.
Options:
1) 6.5
2) 6.78
3) 8.64
4) 9.3

Q 17: In long wall and short wall method, the length of the short wall is the equal to the center to center length of wall minus
Options:
1) Half of the width of wall
2) One fourth of width of wall
3) Twice of the width of wall
4) Width of wall

Q 18: Calculate the quantity (cubic meter) of the earthwork for a canal of 50 m long. Depths of canal at two extreme sections are 3 m and 5 m. The bottom width and top width of the canal are 2 m and 4 m. Use midsection method.
Options:
1) 450
2) 600
3) 750
4) 900

Q 19: Calculate the value of a pump after 5 years, if the annual depreciation value is Rs. 200. The original cost of the pump is Rs. 3000 and the useful life of the pump is 10 years.
Options:
1) 200
2) 1000
3) 1300
4) 2000

Q 20: Which of the following is NOT included in the ﬂoor area?
1) Clear coverage area
2) Area of the walls
3) Sills of the doors
4) Sills of the windows
Options:
1) 1 and 3
2) 2 and 3
3) 2, 3 and 4
4) 2 and 4

Q 21: The scale in which three successive dimensions can be measured at a time is called
Options:
1) Chord scale
2) Diagonal scale
3) Plain scale
4) Vernier scale

Q 22: Which one is the CORRECT option for the cumulative errors?
1. It decreases with an increase in measurement.
2.
It is directly proportional to the length of the line.
3.
It may be positive or negative.
4. It is inversely proportional to the length of the line.
Options:
1) 1, 3 and 4
2) 1 and 3
3) 2 and 3
4) Only 2

Q 23: The fore bearing of a line is 30 degree, Calculate the back bearing of a line (in degree)
Options:
1) 60
2) 120
3) 210
4) 330

Q 24: In which of the following plane, the telescope of the theodolite is turned in order to swing?
Options:
1) Horizontal axis
2) Horizontal plane
3) Inclined plane
4) Vertical plane

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Q 25: Relative error of the closer is the ratio of
Options:
1) Closing error to sum of departure
2) Closing error to sum of latitude
3) Closing error to perimeter of traverse.
4) Latitude to departure
Answer: closing error to perimeter of traverse.

Q 26: Determine the number of divisions required on the vernier scale, if it is combined with the main scale of least count 0.5 mm. The least count of the combination required is 0.05 mm for the direct vernier.
Options:
1) 0.025
2) 0.1
3) 1
4) 10

Q 27: The height of any point with respect to mean sea level is called
Options:
1) Bench mark
2) Datum
3) Level surface
4) Reduced level

Q 28: Calculate the reduced level (m) of a point A, if the staff readings at the point A and benchmark are 2.8 m and 2.5 m respectively. The reduced level of the benchmark is 100m.
Options:
1) 97.22
2) 99.7
3) 100.3
4) 105.3

Q 29: Calculate the horizontal distance between the staff and instrument, if the staff readings are 1.4 m and 2.9 m, which corresponds to lower and the upper horizontal lines of cross hair. The lens of the telescope of the tachometer is of anallactic lens.
Options:
1) 100
2) 140
3) 150
4) 200

Q 30: The volume of an embankment having a total length of L and cross section areas of four sections at an interval of H are A1, A2, A3, A4 using the trapezoidal method is______.
Option:
1) H [(A1 + A4) / 2 + A2 + A3] 2) H [(A1 + A4) / 4 + A2 + A3] 3) L [(A1 + A4) / 2 + A2 + A3] 4) L/3 [(A1 + A4) / 2 (A2 + A3)] Answer: H [(A1 + A4) / 2 + A2 + A3]

Q 31: If the damping ratio is given by 0.10 and damping coefﬁcient is 225 kN-s/m. What is the value of critical damping ratio (kN-s/m)?
Options:
1) 22.5
2) 225
3) 2250
4) 2500

Q 32: What is the value of active earth pressure coefﬁcient for the soil having an internal angle of friction of 30 degree.
Options:
1) 1/3
2) 1/2.5
3) 1
4) 3

Q 33: If the voids of a soil are completely ﬁlled with air, then it is called
Options:
1) Dry soil
2) Partially saturated soil
3) Submerged soil
4) Saturated soil

Q 34: Which one of the following represents the measure of particle size range?
Options:
1) Slope of gradation curve of soil
2) Coefﬁcient of uniformity
3) Fineness of the soil
4) Relative index

Q 35: Calculate the kinematic viscosity (stoke) of the ﬂuid, if the dynamic viscosity of ﬂuid is 0.5 poise and speciﬁc gravity is 0.4?
Options:
1) 0.95
2) 1
3) 1.25
4) 1.5

Q 36: Which of the following causes the major loss in the long pipes?
Options:
1) Friction
2) Gradual contraction and enlargement both
3) Sudden contraction
4) Sudden enlargement

Q 37: Which of the following instrument is used for measuring the discharge?
Options:
1) Current meter
2) Manometer
3) Vane anemometer
4) Venturimeter

Q 38: Calculate the diameter of a pipe of 32000 m long, if it is equivalent to another pipe of 0.2 m diameter and 1000 m long.
Options:
1) 0.2 m
2) 0.3 m
3) 0.4 m
4) 0.5 m

Q 39: Which of the following represents the critical velocity for the discharge per unit width of q m3/s/m from the wide rectangular channel?
Options:
1) (q/g)1/3
2) (qg)1/3
3) (qg)1/2
4) None of the these

Q 40: Which of the following is equivalent to one kilo-Pascal?
Options:
1) 1000 N/m2
2) 1000 N/mm2
3) 1000 N/cm2
4) 100 N/m2

Q 41: What is the theoretical value of the coefﬁcient of contraction for the sharp edge oriﬁce?
Options:
1) 0.401
2) 0.611
3) 0.982
4) 1

Q 42: Hydraulic radius of the channel is deﬁned as the ratio of
Options:
1) Area to depth of channel
2) Area to wetted perimeter of the channel
3) Area to width of channel
4) Perimeter to area of the channel
Answer: Area to wetted perimeter of the channel

Q 43: In which type of the following ﬂow, loses are more?
Options:
1) Critical ﬂow
2) Laminar ﬂow
3) Transitional ﬂow
4) Turbulent ﬂow

Q 44: If the diameter of the pipe is given as D, what is the maximum thickness of the boundary layer?
Options:
1) 0
2) D/2
3) D
4) 2D

Q 45: Calculate the critical velocity (m/sec) of a channel using Kennedy’s theory, if the depth of ﬂow is 3 m.
Options:
1) 0.84
2) 1.11
3) 2.7
4) 6

Q 46: Which one of the followings is NOT a cause of water logging?
Options:
1) Excess tapping of the ground water.
2) Frequent irrigation.
3) High water table.
4) Seepage from unlined canals.
Answer: Excess tapping of the ground water.

Q 47: Which instrument is used for the measurement of the longitudinal coefﬁcient of friction?
Options:
1) Bump integrator
2) Both bump integrator and roughometer.
3) Roughometer
4) Speedometer
Answer: Both bump integrator and roughometer.

Q 48: Calculate the capacity (vehicle per hour) of the road when reaction time of the driver is 2 seconds. The design speed is 80 kmph and average length of the vehicle is 6 m. Take coefﬁcient of friction as 0.35.
Options:
1) 600
2) 653
3) 687
4) 724

Q 49: Which of the following is the result of disinfection of water?
Options:
1) Complete grits
2) Killing of bacteria
3) Reducing turbidity up to zero
4) Improve pH values

Q 50: Which of the following process includes chlorination of water above the break point?
Options:
1) Plain chlorination
2) Dechlorination
3) Excess chlorination
4) Super chlorination

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Q 51: Building codes require the partition load to be considered even without partition if live load is less than:-
Options:
1) 60 psf
2) 70 psf
3) 80 psf
4) 90 psf

Q 52: If R1 = 1.1 and Rz = 1.2, then what is value of Lr (in psf) ?
Options:
1) 26.1
2) 26.2
3) 26.3
4) 26.4

Q 53: How many constraints are there in a ﬁxed support in a planar system?
Options:
1) 2
2) 3
3) 6
4) None of these

Q 54: Why are steel reinforcing rods used in concrete beams:-
Options:
1) To make it carry compression
2) To make it carry tension
3) To make it carry compression as well as tension
4) None of these
Answer: To make it carry tension

Q 55: In planar system, X parts/members are there with Y no. of forces. If Y > 3X, the system is:-
Options:
1) Statically indeterminate
2) Statically determinate
3) Can’t say
4) Depends on other conditions

Q 56: How many cases out of the following are improperly constrained?
1.
Parallel forces
2.
Concurrent forces
3. Perpendicular forces
4. Only moment
Options:
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

Q 57: The space between adjacent bents in a roof truss is called:-
Options:
1) Purlins
2) Bay
3) Knee
4) Braces

Q 58: There is no bending stresses in truss due to:-
Options:
2) Design
3) Materials used
4) None of these

Q 59: A truss formed by joining two or more simple trusses is called:-
Options:
1) Simple
2) Compound
3) Complex
4) None of these

Q 60: If a truss is internally unstable, then we should use it when it is:-
Options:
1) Statically determinate
2) Statically indeterminate
3) Statically determinate or statically indeterminate
4) We must never use it
Answer: We must never use it

Q 61: How many types of chemical admixture are there?
Options:
1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) 5

Q 62: Which component of concrete gives it desired compressive strength?
Options:
1) Water
2) Cement
3) Aggregates

Q 63: What is the maximum height through which concrete can be poured?
Options:
1) 0.1 to 0.6 m
2) 0.8 to 1 m
3) 0.5 m
4) 2 m

Q 64: Which is the best method for curing of concrete ﬂat surfaces?
Options:
1) Spraying water
2) Placing wet gunny bags
3) Stagnating water
4) None of these

Q 65: The accumulation of water on outer surface of concrete is:
Options:
1) Transpiration
2) Bleeding
3) Guttation
4) Ponding

Q 66: Which admixture is used to improve work ability of concrete?
Options:
1) Plasticizers
2) Metakaolin
3) Reducers
4) Accelerators

Q 67: Higher the cement content,
Options:
1) Higher aggregates
2) Lower workability
3) Higher strength
4) Lower strength

Q 68: Compaction factor for heavily reinforced section with vibration is:
Options:
1) <0.75
2) 0.75-0.85
3) 0.85-0.92
4) >0.92

Q 69: If cylinder specimen is used to test compressive strength of concrete, equivalent cubes strength can be found using:
Options:
1) 3/4th strength of cylinder
2) 5/4th strength of cylinder
3) 5/6th strength of cylinder
4) 1/4th strength of cylinder

Q 70: Which of the below is not a plaster type based on material?
Options:
1) Cement
2) Gypsum
3) Pozzolana
4) Lime

Q 71: Which of the below is not a plaster ﬁnish?
Options:
1) Rough-cast
2) Pebble dash
3) Sand faced
4) Wooden

Q 72: If the depth of moist sand in a cylinder is 15 cm and the depth of the sand when fully inundated with water is 12 cm, then what is the bulking of the moist sand?
Options:
1) 0.1
2) 0.2
3) 0.15
4) 0.25

Q 73: If P, Y and Z are weights of cement, fine aggregates and coarse appregates respectively and W/C is the water cement ratio, the minimum quantity of water to be added to first batch is obtained by the equation.
A) 1P + 0.3Y + 0.1Z = (w/c) x P
B) 3P + 0.1Y + 0.01Z = (w/c) x P
C) 4P + 0.2Y + 0.01Z = (w/c) x P
D) 5P + 0.3Y + 0.01Z = (w/c) x P
Options:
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) Only D

Q 74: How do we reduce the shrinkage in concrete?
Options:
1) By low water cement ratio
2) By less cement in concrete
3) By proper concrete mix
4) All of these

Q 75: Which of the following are the speciﬁcations of a cement bag for storage?
A) Weight 50 kg
B) Height 18 cm
C) Plan area 3000 sq.cm
D) Volume 35 liters
Options:
1) A and B Only
2) B and C only
3) A, B and C only
4) A, B, C and D
Answer: A, B, C and D

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Q 76: What should be done to ensure constant moisture content in aggregates?
Options:
1) Area of each aggregate pile should be large
2) Height of each aggregate pile should not exceed 1.50 m
3) Aggregate pile should be left for 24 hours before aggregates are used
4) All of these

Q 77: For batching 1:3:6 concrete mix by volume, which of the following are the ingredients required per bag of 50kg cement?
Options:
1) 70 liters of sand and 120 liters of aggregates
2) 70 kg of sand and 140 liters of aggregates
3) 105 liters of sand and 140 liters of aggregates
4) None of these

Q 78: Which of the following statements is/are true?
Options:
1) The diameter of the pipe line used for transportation of concrete by pumps does not exceed 30 cm
2) The slump of the concrete to be pumped, should not be less than 5 cm and more than 8 cm
3) The water cement ratio of concrete to be pumped is kept between 0.5 to 0.65
4) All of these

Q 79: In a R.C.C structure, the tension zone lies in the:
Options:
1) Top
2) Middle
3) Side
4) Bottom

Q 180: In a Pre Stressed Concrete, the tensioning system may be classiﬁed into:
Options:
1) 3
2) 2
3) 5
4) 4

Q 81: A circular slab subjected to external loading, deﬂects to form:
Options:
1) Semi-hemisphere
2) Ellipsoid
3) Parabolloid
4) None of these

Q 82: For normal cases, stiffness of a simply supported beam is satisﬁed if the ratio of its span to its overall depth does not exceed
Options:
1) 10
2) 15
3) 20
4) 25

Q 83: If the length of a wall on either side of a lintel opening is at least half of its effective span L, the load W carried by the lintel is equivalent to the weight of brick work contained in an equilateral triangle, producing a maximum bending moment
A) WL / 2
B) WL / 4
C) WL / 6
D) WL / 8
E) WL / 12
Options:
1) A Only
2) B Only
3) C Only
4) D Only

Q 84: The maximum diameter of a bar used in a ribbed slab is
Options:
1) 12 mm
2) 6 mm
3) 20 mm
4) 22 mm

Q 85: A foundation is called shallow if its depth is
Options:
1) One-fourth of its width
2) Half of its width
3) Three-fourth of its width
4) Equal to its width

Q 86: If P kg/m2 is the upward pressure on the slab of a plain concrete footing whose projection on either side of the wall is ? cm, the depth of foundation D is given by
A) D = 0.00775 ?√P
B) D = 0.0775 ?√P
C) D = 0.775 P√?
Options:
1) A Only
2) B Only
3) C Only
4) None of these

Q 87: Which of the following statements is true?
Options:
1) The self-weight of the footing is not considered for calculating the upward pressure on footing
2) The self-weight of the footing is also considered for calculating the upward pressure on footing
3) The self-weight of the footing is not considered for calculating the area of the footing
4) None of these
Answer: The self-weight of the footing is not considered for calculating the upward pressure on footing

Q 88: If the Length of a combined footing for two columns l meters apart is L and the projection on the left side of the exterior column, in order to have a uniformly distributed load is (Where x̅ is the distance of center of gravity of column loads)
A] y = L – (l – x̅)
B] y = (L/2) + (l – x̅)
C] y = (L/2) – (l + x̅)
D] y = (L/2) – (l – x̅)
Options:
1) A Only
2) B Only
3) C Only
4) D Only

Q 89: Maximum principal stress theory for the failure of a material at elastic limit is known as
Options:
1) Guest’s or Trecas’ theory
2) St.Venant’s theory
3) Rankine’s theory
4) Haig’s theory

Q 90: The general expression for the B.M. of a beam of length l is M = (wl/2)x – (wx2/2), the beam carries
Options:
1) A uniformly distributed load ‘w’ per unit length
2) A load varying linearly from zero at one end to w at the other end
3) An isolated load at mid span
4) None of these

Q 91: The moment of inertia of a rectangular section of width B and depth D about an axis passing through C.G. and parallel to its width is
A] BD2/6
B] BD3/6
C] BD3/12
D] B2D/6
Options:
1) A Only
2) B Only
3) C Only
4) D Only

Q 92: Pick up the correct statement from the following.
Options:
1) The bending stress in a section is zero at its neutral axis and maximum at the outer ﬁbers
2) The shear stress is zero at the outer ﬁbers and maximum at the neutral axis
3) The bending stress at the outer ﬁbers, is known as principal stress
4) All of these

Q 93: “Poisson’s ratio” is deﬁned as:
Options:
1) Ratio of lateral strain to linear strain
2) Ratio of linear strain to lateral strain
3) Ratio of lateral stress to linear stress
4) Ratio of linear stress to lateral stress
Answer: ratio of lateral strain to linear strain

Q 94: Which of the following statements is false?
Options:
1) Mild steel has 2 yield points
2) Mild steel shows strain hardening
3) Mild steel is a ductile material
4) None of these

Q 95: If the Young’s modulus of elasticity of a material is twice its modulus of rigidity, then the Poisson’s ratio of the material is
Options:
1) -1
2) -0.5
3) 0.5
4) None of these

Q 96: In case of biaxial stress, the maximum value of shear stress is given by
Options:
1) Difference of the normal stresses
2) Sum of the normal stresses
3) Half the sum of the normal stresses
4) None of these

Q 97: Which of the following statements is true?
Options:
1) The sum of normal stresses is constant
2) The sum of normal stresses is variable
3) The sum of normal stresses is depends on the plane
4) None of these
Answer: The sum of normal stresses is constant

Q 98: The slenderness ratio of a column is zero when its
Options:
1) Effective length is equal to actual length
2) Length is very large
3) Length is equal to its radius of gyration
4) None of these

Q 99: In a tension member if one or more than one rivet holes are off the line, the failure of the member depends upon
Options:
1) Pitch
2) Gauge
3) Diameter of the rivet holes
4) All of these