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# RRB Senior Section Engineer Exam 2015 Shift- 3

RRB SSE ( Senior section engineer)

Exam Duration:  120
Number of Questions:   150
Total Marks:   150
Correct: 1 mark
Wrong:  0.33 Negative marks

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Q 1: According to kinetic theory of heat
Options:
1) Temperature should rise during boiling
2) Temperature should fall during freezing
3) At low temperature all bodies are in solid state
4) At absolute zero there is absolutely no vibration of molecules.
Answer: At absolute zero there is absolutely no vibration of molecules.
Q 2: In a Carnot engine, When the working substance gives heat to the sink
Options:
1) The temperature of the sink increases.
2) The temperature of the sink remains the same
3) The temperature of the source decreases
4) The temperature of both the sink and the source decrease
Answer: The temperature of the sink remains the same

Q 3: Availability function is expressed as:
Options:
1) a=(u+pov-Tos)
2) a=(u+podv+Tos)
3) a=(du+podv-Tods)
4) a=(u+pov+Tos)

Q 4: The outer surface of a long cylinder is maintained at constant temperature. The cylinder does not have any heat source The temperature in the cylinder will
Options:

Q 5: What is the ratio of thermal conductivity to electrical conductivity equal to ?
Options:
1) Prandtl number
2) Schmidt number
3) Lorenz Number
4) Lewis number

Q 6: Which is the most efficient of the following insulating materials ?
Options:
1) Corkboard
2) Glass fibre sheet
3) Mineral fibre sheet
4) Foamed urethane sheet

Q 7: The compression ratio generally used in diesel engines is..
Options:
1) 7:1
2) 16:1
3) 30:1
4) 45:1

Q 8: For each crankshaft revolution, the cam shaft revolves
Options:
1) One-half turn
2) Two turns
3) Four turns
4) As many turns as the number of valves in the engine

Q 9: In a variable speed SI engine, the maximum torque occurs at the maximum
Options:
1) Volumetric efficiency
2) Brake power
3) Indicated power
4) Speed

Q 10: What is the material of connecting rod?
Options:
1) Mild steel
2) Forged steel
3) Tool steel
4) Cast iron

Q 11: One of the important advantages of metal patterns over wooden patterns is that
Options:
2) It is easy to make
3) It is useful in machine moulding
4) It is less costly
Answer: It is useful in machine moulding
Q 12: In milling operations
Options:
1) The work is fed against a reciprocating tool
2) The work is fed against a rotating multipoint cutter
3) The tool is fed against a rotating work
4) The tool is fed against a reciprocating work
Answer: The work is fed against a rotating multipoint cutter

Q 13: The cold chisels are made by
Options:
1) Drawing
2) Rolling
3) Piercing
4) Forging

Q 14: Weaving in arc welding refers to…………
Options:
1) Side to side motion of electrode at right angles to the direction of the welding
2) Side to side motion of the electrode along the direction of the welding
3) Spiral motion given to electrode
4) A technique of striking the arc
Answer: Side to side motion of electrode at right angles to the direction of the welding

Q 15: A certain appliance uses 350W. If it is allowed to run continuously for 24 days, how many kilowatt-hours of energy does it consume ?
Options:
1) 20.16 kWh
2) 201.6 kWh
3) 2.01 kWh
4) 8.4 kWh

Q 16: A given power supply is capable of providing 6A for 3.5h. Its ampere-hour rating is____
Options:
1) 0.58 Ah
2) 2.1 Ah
3) 21 Ah
4) 58 Ah

Q 17: If you used 400 W of power for 30 h, you have used_____
Options:
1) 1.3 kWh
2) 13.3 kWh
3) 1.2 kWh
4) 12 kWh

Q 18: Best protection is provided by HRC fuses in case of______
Options:
1) Open circuits
2) Short circuits
4) Parallel circuit

Q 19: A relay used for protection of motors against overload is
Options:
1) Impedance relay
2) Electromagnetic attraction type
3) Thermal relay
4) Buchholz’s relay

Q 20: The acting contacts for a circuit breakers are made of______
Options:
1) Stainless steel
2) Hard pressed carbon
3) Porcelain
4) Copper tungsten alloy

Q 21: Fuse wire, protection, system is usually not used beyond______
Options:
1) 10 A
2) 25 A
3) 50 A
4) 100 A

Q 22: A fuse wire should have_____
Options:
1) Low specific resistance and high melting point
2) Low specific resistance and low melting point
3) High specific resistance and high melting point
4) High specific resistance and low melting point
Answer: High specific resistance and low melting point

Q 23: Out of the following which one is not a unconventional source of energy ?
Options:
1) Tidal power
2) Geothermal energy
3) Nuclear energy
4) Wind power

Q 24: Which of the following 3-phase connection of a transformer causes interference with the neighboring communication lines:
Options:
1) Delta-star
2) Star-delta
3) Star-star
4) Delta-delta

Q 25: To increase the voltage output, several cells are connected in:
Options:
1) Parallel
2) Series-parallel
3) Resonance
4) Series
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Q 26: What does the fourth color band on a resistor mean ?
Options:
1) The value of the resistor in ohms
2) The power rating in watts
3) The resistance material
4) The resistance tolerance in percent
Answer: The resistance tolerance in percent

Q 27: A current of one quarter ampere may be written as:
Options:
1) 0.5 amperes
2) 0.25 milliampere
3) 250 microampere
4) 250 milliamperes

Q 28: Why do resistors sometimes get hot when in use ?
Options:
1) Their reactance makes them heat up
2) Hotter circuit components near by heat them up
3) Some electrical energy passing through them is lost as heat
4) They absorb magnetic energy which makes them hot
Answer: Some electrical energy passing through them is lost as heat

Q 29: The reciprocal of resistance is:
Options:
1) Conductance
2) Reactance
3) Reluctance
4) Permeability

Q 30: What term means the number of times per Second that an alternating current flows back and forth?
Options:
1) Speed
2) Pulse rate
3) Frequency
4) Inductance

Q 31: A signal is composed of a fundamental frequency of 2 kHz and another of 4 kHz. This 4kHz signal is referred to as:
Options:
1) A fundamental of the 2 kHz signal
2) The DC component of the main signal
3) A dielectric signal of the main signal
4) A harmonic of the 2 kHz signal
Answer: A harmonic of the 2 kHz signal

Q 32: In measuring volts and amperes, the connections should be made with:
Options:
1) The voltmeter in series and ammeter in parallel
2) The voltmeter in parallel and ammeter in series
3) Both voltmeter and ammeter in series
4) Both voltmeter and ammeter in parallel
Answer: The voltmeter in parallel and ammeter in series

Q 33: A resistor in a circuit becomes very hot and starts to burn. This is because the resistor is dissipating too much:
Options:
1) voltage
2) Resistance
3) Current
4) Power

Q 34: In a parallel circuit with a voltage source and several branch resistors, how is the total current related to the current in the branch resistors ?
Options:
1) It equals the sum of the branch current through each resistor
2) It equals the average of the branch current through each resistor
3) It decreases as more parallel resistors are added to the circuit
4) It is the sum of each resistor’s voltage drop multiplied by the total number of resistors
Answer: It equals the sum of the branch current through each resistor

Q 35: Regarding the idealization of support to a structural system, which of the following is false
Options:
1) Roller supports are free to rotate and translate along the surface upon which the roller rests.
2) A pinned support can resist both vertical and horizontal force but not a moment
3) Fixed supports can resist vertical and horizontal forces as well as a moment.
4) Rigid supports can resist translation, but not the moments
Answer: Rigid supports can resist translation, but not the moments

Q 36: A condition of timber during seasoning in which the different layers of wood are under stress by being under compression across the grain (usually due to rapid surface drying in the kiln).
Options:
1) Case hardening
2) Air seasoning
3) Air drying
4) Strain softening

Q 37: The load at which an element, a member or a structure as a whole, either collapses in service or buckles in a load test and develops excessive lateral (out of plane) deformation or instability is called as______
Options:

Q 38: According to IS 456, the modulus of elasticity of steel can be assumed as____
Options:
1) 200 kN/mm2
2) 225 kN/mm2
3) 250 kN/mm2
4) 300 kN/mm2

Q 39: The recommended slump for pumped concrete is______
Options:
1) 1-2 inches
2) 2-4 inches
3) 3-4 inches
4) 4-6 inches

Q 40: The point at which both foresight and sight are taken during the course of leveling is called as______
Options:
1) Intermediate
2) Benchmark
3) Station
4) Change point

Q 41: Which of the following is not true for the direct and indirect methods of contouring ?
Options:
1) Direct method is most accurate but is slow
2) Indirect method is less accurate but is faster
3) Direct method is expensive
4) Indirect method is relatively more expensive
Answer: Indirect method is relatively more expensive

Q 42: According to IS 1200, the metal sheet roofing shall be described in terms of_____
Options:
1) Meter
2) Cubic meter
3) Square meter
4) Thickness

Q 43: The property of a soil which allows it to be deformed rapidly, without rupture, without elastic rebound and without volume changes is called as____
Options:
1) Yielding
2) Strain softening
3) Strain hardening
4) Plasticity

Q 44: If the water table is likely to permanently remain at or below a depth of sum of the depth and width of the foundation beneath the ground level supporting the footing, then the water table correction used in the Bearing capacity equation is______
Options:
1) 1
2) 0
3) 0.5
4) 0.75

Q 45: If a substance resists shear stress by elastic deformation, then the substance is____
Options:
1) Fluid
2) Liquid
3) Solid
4) Gas

Q 46: The piezometric head in a stationary and static liquid
Options:
1) Remains constant only on the horizontal plane
2) Increases non-linearly with depth below the surface
3) Increases linearly with depth below the surface
4) Remains constant at all the points in the fluid
Answer: Remains constant at all the points in the fluid

Q 47: Most common form of A.C. meters met with in every day domestic and industrial Installations are
Options:
1) Mercury motor meters
2) Commutator motor meters
3) Induction type single phase energy meters
4) Either mercury motor meters or commutator motor meters
Answer: Induction type single phase energy meters

Q 48: Which of the following meters are not used on D.C. circuit Mercury motor meters
Options:
1) Commutator motor meters
2) Mercury motor meters
3) Induction meters
4) Integrating and recording meters

Q 49: The pointer of an indicating instrument should be
Options:
1) Very light
2) Very weighty
3) light
4) Weighty

Q 50: In a portable instrument, the controlling torque is provided by
Options:
1) Spring
2) Gravity
3) Eddy currents
4) Damping friction

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Q 51: The multiplier and the meter coil in a voltmeter are in
Options:
1) Series
2) Parallel
3) Series-parallel
4) Bi-junction mode

Q 52: In troposphere gaseous mixture containing oxygen, nitrogen and carbon dioxide cycle in nature through
Options:
1) Biogeochemical cycle
2) Physico-chemical cycle
3) Bio-decomposition
4) Biological cycle

Q 53: The major portion of the alkalinity in natural water is caused by
Options:
1) Hydroxyl, carbonate and sulphate ions
2) Hydroxyl, carbonate and bicarbonate ions
3) Hydroxyl, carbonate and ammonium ions
4) Hydroxyl, carbonate and phosphate ions
Answer: Hydroxyl, carbonate and bicarbonate ions

Q 54:  The total coliform bacteria are reported as most probable number (MPN) per
Options:
1) 10 ml of water
2) 1000 ml of water
3) 100 ml of water
4) 1 ml of water

Q 55: The anthropogenic sources of air pollution in well planned city is
Options:
1) Construction activities, road traffic, rail traffic, fugitive emissions
2) Construction activities, road traffic, domestic burning
3) Construction activities, road traffic, bursting of crackers, dust storms
4) Construction activities, road traffic, domestic burning, industrial emissions

Q 56: When the measured and standard reference pressure level becomes equal, the sound pressure level (SPL) is equivalent to
Options:
1) 1 dBA
2) 10 dBA
3) 0 dBA
4) 1.012 dBA

Q 57: The major green house gases contributing in global warming are
Options:
1) Carbon dioxide, Nitrous oxide, methane and water vapours
2) Carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide, water vapours and chlorofluorocarbons
3) Carbon monoxide, nitrous oxide, methane and hydro-chlorofluorocarbons
4) Carbon dioxide, nitrogen dioxide, water vapours, methane and ozone
Answer: Carbon dioxide, Nitrous oxide, methane and water vapours

Q 58: Program counter (PC) register stores he
Options:
1) Address of the first memory block
2) Address of the last memory block
3) Address of the next instruction to be executed
4) Size of the primary memory

Q 59: Number of bits needed to code 64 operations is
Options:
1) 4
2) 6
3) 8
4) 16

Q 60: BIOS, which is a part of operating systems of PCs, is stored in
Options:
1) RAM
2) Hard Disk
3) Cache memory
4) ROM

Q 61: For a memory of size 64k words with each word storing 8 bits, the size of memory Data Register (MDR) is
Options:
1) 8 bits
2) 16 bits
3) 32 bits
4) 64 bits

Q 62: Which of the following doesn’t support WYSIWYG (what you see is what you get) display facility for documents ?
Options:
1) Ms-word
2) Latex Editor

Q 63: Logic programming language is also known as
Options:
1) Procedural language
2) Low-level language
3) Imperative language
4) Non-procedural language

Q 64: Unicode uses_________bits to code a large number of characters, including various special characters.
Options:
1) 8
2) 16
3) 24
4) 32

Q 65: In Boolean Algebra, AB+ AB’ is equivalent to
Options:
1) 0
2) 1
3) A
4) B

Q 66: In decimal-dotted notation of an IP address, the maximum value of each component can be
Options:
1) 255
2) 256
3) 512
4) 1024

Q 67: Uniform Resource Locator (URL) is a(an)___________sheme, which WWW browsers use to locate sites on the internet.
Options:
2) Paging
3) Data management
4) Ranking

Q 68: One end of a lline rest on Vp and the other on Hp. It is inclined to VP and HP at 30o 60o respectively. Its “true length” will be visible in:
Options:
1) Plan
2) Profile
3) Elevation
4) Its true length will not be visible in any of the orthographic views.

Q 69: The joint shown below represents a:

Options:
1) Spigot joint
2) Cotter joint
3) Knuckle joint
4) keyed coupling

Q 70: The most commonly used term “R.F.” of a scale is:
Options:
1) Reprographic factor
2) Refractive factor
3) Representative fraction
4) Reducing fraction

Q 71: The asymptote of a hyperbola is the one:
Options:
1) Which passes through its focus and is normal to its axis,
2) It joins focus to its vertex
3) It joins focus to its centre
4) Will be tangent to it at infinity
Answer: Will be tangent to it at infinity

Q 72: When drawing “isometric view” of an object its horizontal edges are drawn along iso-axes which are inclined to horizontal at:
Options:
1) 30o
2) 90o
3) 15o
4) 75o

Q 73: P and Q are two points at same distance from the centre of a short electric dipole on axial line and equatorial line respectively. V1 and V2 are the resultant electric potential due to the dipole at P and Q. The only correct condition for V1 and V2 for this situation is
Options:
1) V1 = 2V2
2) V2 = 2V1
3) V1 = 0; V2 ≠ 0
4) V2 = 0; V1 ≠ 0
Answer: V2 = 0; V1 ≠ 0

Q 74: Kirchhoff’s junction rule and loop rule for an electrical network are respectively based on
Options:
1) Conservation of energy, Conservation of charge
2) Conservation of charge, Conservation of momentum
3) Conservation of energy, Conservation of momentum
4) Conservation of charge, Conservation of energy
Answer: Conservation of charge, Conservation of energy

Q 75: Which one of the following is the correct statement for a photon of blue and red light of electromagnetic spectrum ?
Options:
1) Blue light and red light have equal energy and equal momentum.
2) Blue light has higher momentum than red light
3) Red light has higher momentum than blue light
4) Red light has higher energy than blue light
Answer: Blue light has higher momentum than red light

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Q 76: A double convex lens of focal length f is cut into exactly similar parts in two different ways, once along the vertical line and second time along the horizontal line. The focal length of each part cutting in two cases respectively will be
Options:
1) f/2 ; f/2
2) f/2 ; f
3) 2f ; f/2
4) 2f ; f

Q 77: Ns and Np represent the number of turns, Es and Ep represent e.m.f and Is and Ip represent current for the secondary coil and primary coil of an ideal transformer respectively. The completely correct relation between these quantities is
Options:
1) Ns/Np = Es/Ep = Is/Ip
2) Ns/Np = Ep/Es = Ip/Is
3) Ns/Np = Es/Ep = Ip/Is
4) Ns/Np = Ep/Es = Is/Ip
Answer: Ns/Np = Es/Ep = Ip/Is

Q 78: While conducting an experiment on photo – electric effect, the incident radiations of yellow light are replaced with radiations of violet light, keeping the same intensity. This will result in
Options:
1) Increase in photo electric current without any change in the kinetic energy of emitted electrons
2) Decrease in kenetic energy of the emitted electrons without any change in the photo electric current.
3) Increase in kinetic energy of the emitted electrons without any change in photoelectric current
4) Decrease in photo electric current and increase in kinetic energy of the emitted electrons
Answer: Increase in kinetic energy of the emitted electrons without any change in photoelectric current

Q 79: The molecules of elements and compounds exist in different structures. The molecule which is linear, is
Options:
1) NO2
2) SO2
3) CO2
4) CIO2

Q 80: The correct order of first ionization enthalphy of the elements of oxygen family in the periodic table is
Options:
1) O > S > Se
2) S > O > Se
3) S > Se > O
4) Se > O > S
Answer: O > S > Se

Q 81: In a volumetric analysis, KMnO4 reacts with oxalic acid according to the following equation,
2MnO4 + 5C2O42- + 16 H+ → 2Mn2+ + 10CO2 + 8H2O
According to the above equation, 20mL of 0.1M KMnO4 will be equivalent to
Options:
1) 120 mL of 0.25M H2C2O4
2) 150 mL of 0.10M H2C2O4
3) 50 mL of 0.10 M H2C2O4
4) 50 mL of 0.2 M H2C2O4
Answer: 50 mL of 0.10 M H2C2O4

Q 82: Correct formula of the conjugate acid for each of the following Bronsted bases,
HO2, SO42-, NH2 and NH3 will be respectively,
Options:
1) H3+O, H2SO4 , NH and NH3
2) H2O2 , HSO4 , NH3 and NH4+
3) H2O, HSO3 , NH4+ and NH22-
4) H3O+, SO32- , NH3 and NH22-
Answer: H2O2 , HSO4 , NH3 and NH4+

Q 83: Cr2O3 can be converted into Cr by reduction with
Options:
1) CO
2) Carbon
3) Hydrogen
4) Aluminum
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Q 84: Consider the following compounds:
CH3CH2 ≡ CCH3     CH3CH2CH2CH3      CH3CH=CH2      CH3C ≡ CH
I                                      II                              III                IV
Which reagent will you use to distinguish compound IV from the rest of compounds ?
Options:
1) Be2/CCL4
2) Ammonia Cal AgNO3
3) Cold Alkaline KMnO4
4) Br2/Acetic acid

Q 85: The largest gland in the body, the liver, is not responsible for one function mentioned below. The liver_____
Options:
2) Removes certain wastes from the body
3) Stores glycogen
4) Produces bile

Q 86: In plants, which hormones can promote growth of plant parts ?
Options:
1) Cytokinin
2) Only Auxin
3) Only gibberellins
4) Both auxin and gibberellins

Q 87: Which of the following are commonly called warm blooded ?
Options:
1) Invertebrates and Fish
2) Amphibian and Reptiles
3) Reptiles and Birds
4) Birds and mammals

Q 88: Global warming does not lead to
Options:
1) Melting of ice caps
2) Ozone hole
3) Climate change
4) Rising of levels of the sea

Q 89: What is not true about the diaphragm ?
Options:
1) It is a muscular partition between the thorax and abdomen
2) Diaphragm contracts and relaxes to make breathing possible
3) It is dome shaped when relaxed
4) It is heavily supplied with nerves and blood vessels
Answer: It is heavily supplied with nerves and blood vessels

Q 90: AIDS is caused by
Options:
1) Bacteria
2) HIV virus
3) Zoster virus
4) Eating junk food

Q 91: Let x be the least number which upon being divided by 2,3,4,5,6 leaves in each case a remainder 1, but leaves no remainder when divided by 7, The sum of digits of x is
Options:
1) 3
2) 4
3) 5
4) 7

Q 92: Let a = 25 x 36 x 77 , b = 25 x 36 x 78,
C= 25 x 37 x 79 and d = 24 x 37 x 710
HCF of a, b, c and d is
Options:
1) 96 x (21)6
2) 96 x (21)7
3) 112 x (21)6
4) 112 x (21)7

Q 93: If the price of an article is increased by 12% and the sale is decrease by 10%, then what will be the effect on the revenue ?
Options:
1) 0.8% increase
2) 0.8% decrease
3) 8% increase
4) 8% decrease

Q 94: If 3a = 4b, 5b = 6c, 7c = 8d, then a:d is
Options:
1) 35:32
2) 32:35
3) 35:64
4) 64:35

Q 95: A company reduces the number of its employees in the ratio 9:8 and increase their wages in the ratio 14:15. The bill of total wages of the employees
Options:
1) Increases by 5%
2) Increase by %
3) Decrease by %
4) Decrease by 5%

Q 96: A vessel X contains a solution of two liquids A and B in the ratio 5:2 and another vessel Y contains the solution of the liquids A and B in the ratio 8:5. In what ratio should quantities be taken from X and Y so as to form s solution of A and B in the ratio 9:4 ?
Options:
1) 2:7
2) 7:2
3) 3:7
4) 7:3

Q 97: 1.5kg of sugar solution has 40% sugar in it. How much sugar (in kg) should be added to make it 50% in the solution ?
Options:
1) 0.5
2) 0.45
3) 0.3
4) 0.25

Q 98: A man buys a car at a cash down payment of Rs.1 lakh and another three equal annual installments of Rs. 109760 each. If the rate of Interest is 12% per annum compounded annually, then the present value (in Rs.) Of the car is
Options:
1) 363625
2) 340183
3) 333625
4) 320183

Q 99: A  person borrowed a certain sum of money at 4% simple interest and in 8 years if the interest amounted to Rs. 23120 less than the sum borrowed, than the sum(in Rs.) was
Options:
1) 36000
2) 35500
3) 34000
4) 34500

Q 100: A dealer bought an article at 40% discount on it original price. If he sold it at a 20% gain on the original price, then his percentage profit is
Options:
1) 60
2) 80
3) 100
4) 120

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Q 101: A person buys a table listed at certain price and gets successive discounts of 10% and 20%. He spends 10% of the cost price on its transportation. If he finally sells it at Rs. 9108 and gets a profit of 15% then the listed price of the article (in Rs) is
Options:
1) 11800
2) 11500
3) 11000
4) 10000

Q 102: A motor boat goes 10 km upstream and back again to the starting point in 55 minutes. If the stream is running at the speed of 2 km/hour, the speed in km/hour of the motor boat in still water is
Options:
1) 18
2) 20
3) 22
4) 24

Q 103: A person travels for 3 hours at the speed of 42 km/hour and for hours at the speed of 60 km/hour. Now he finds that she has covered 11/20 of the total distance. At what average speed (km/hour) should she travel to cover the remaining distance in hours ?
Options:
1) 62
2) 72
3) 78
4) 82

Q 104: Two pipes P and Q can fill up a tank with water in 24 hours and 40 hours respectively. Both the pipes are open simultaneously. If the tank is filled up in 16 hours, then the pipe Q must be turned off after
Options:
1) 13 hours 20 minutes
2) 12 hours 10 minutes
3) 13 hours 30 minutes
4) 12 hours 20 minutes

Q 105: Four women and five men can finish a piece of work in 5 days whereas 12 men and 11 women can finish the same work in 2 days. The time (in days) taken by 2 men and one women to finish the same work is
Options:
1) 10
2) 12
3) 14
4) 15

Q 106: The average of 100 numbers is 100. If the first number is increase by 1, second by 2, third by 3 and so on, then average of the numbers so obtained exceeds the original average, by
Options:
1) 25.5
2) 50
3) 50.5
4) 60

Q 107: A class has 75 students and their average marks in an examination is 40. If the average marks of passed students is 60 and that of failed students is 35, then the percentage of students who passed the examination is
Options:
1) 15
2) 20
3) 25
4) 30

Q 108: The roots of the equation px2 – 2 (p+2)x+3p=0, p≠0, differ by 2. Then values of p are
Options:
1) 2, -2/3
2) -2, 2/3
3) -3, -1
4) 1,3

Q 109: If x2-11x+k=0 and x2-14x+2k=0. Where k≠0, have a common root, then the value of k is
Options:
1) 10
2) 12
3) 20
4) 24

Q 110: One of the factors of (p+q) (q+r) (r+p) + pqr is
Options:
1) p+q-r
2) q+r-p
3) p-q+r
4) pq+qr+rp

Q 111: Factorization of (x+1)(x+2(x+3)(x+4)-120 is
Options:
1) (x-1)(x+6)(x2+5x+16)
2) (x+1) (x2+5x+16)
3) (x-1)(x-6)(x2+5x+16)
4) (x-1)(x+6)(x2-5x+16)

Q 112: If the sum of first n terms of an arithmetic progression is 3n2+2n, then its 100th term is
Options:
1) 499
2) 599
3) 600
4) 601

Q 113: The sum of an infinite geometric series with first term 28 and fourth term 4/49 is
Options:
1)
2)
3)
4)

Q 114: If cosθ – sinθ = I and tanθ = m sec2θ, then the value of (l2+2m)/2 is
Options:
1) 1/2
2) 1/4
3) 2/4
4) 1

Q 115: A person is standing on the ground and flying a kite with a string of length 140 m at an angle of 30o. Another person is standing on the roof of a building 20 m high and is flying a kite at an angle of 45o. If both persons are on opposite sides of both the kites, the length (in m) of the string that the second person must have so that the two kites meets, is
Options:
1) 70
2) 60√2
3) 50√2
4) 50

Q 116: To which period would rock engravings with geometrical designs like triangle, circle, square sun and flower belong ?
Options:
1) Megalithic at the end of Neolithic
2) Paleolithic period to Chalcolithic
3) End of Iron Age and beginning of Bronze age
4) End of Neolithic beginning of Iron Age
Answer: End of Neolithic beginning of Iron Age

Q 117: Which Gupta ruler does the historian Vincent Smith call ‘The Napoleon of India’ ?
Options:
1) Samudragupta
2) Chandragupta I
3) Chandragupta II
4) Skanda Gupta

Q 118: In which Movement was the slogan ‘Do or Die’ given and there were mass arrests
Options:
1) Home rule
2) Non Cooperation
3) Quit India Movement
4) Khilafat

Q 119: Which one of the given process increases the length of the river ?
Options:
1) Deepening of the gorge and excess water flows in.
2) Headward erosion in a waterfall when the cap rock falls off.
3) Hard rocks fall into the channel and the river course changes
4) River water gets diverted by another river near the source
Answer: Headward erosion in a waterfall when the cap rock falls off.

Q 120: When the cyclones develop into storms they take away the energy of the monsoon depression. What is the effect of this on the India ?
Options:
1) Weak monsoon over west coast
2) Sea Surges in the Narmada
3) Stormy weather in the Arabian Sea
4) Upwelling of sea water and high tide.
Answer: Weak monsoon over west coast

Q 121: Which of the following is not a positive effect of foreign Direct Investment on the Indian Market ?
Options:
1) Stimulates economic activity
2) Increase in prices
3) Cheaper goods for consumers
4) Increased employment

Q 122: Why has the government excluded some wealthy groups from availing benefits related their status as backward classes ?
Options:
1) Increase opportunity to be employed
2) Bring more backward groups for benefits
3) To ensure that there is equality
4) Increase the right of the poorest.
Answer: To ensure that there is equality

Q 123: Where in the constitution has it been stated that the Judiciary must be separated from the Executive ?
Options:
1) Directive principles of state policy
2) Fundamental Rights
3) Preamble of the Constitution
4) Schedules
Answer: Directive principles of state policy

Q 124: What will be the special e-commerce facility offered by the Indian Postal Services ?
Options:
1) Rural artisans can sell goods online
2) Farmers can buy seeds and fertilizers easily
3) Health services in rural areas can be provided promptly
4) Same day delivery of letters to villages.
Answer: Rural artisans can sell goods online

Q 125: Why have the solar panels been located over water canals in Gujarat ?
Options:
1) Increase the temperature of the canal water
2) To reduce evaporation and generate electricity
3) Reduce the heating of the panels by cool water
4) Keeping the panels clean and dry
Answer: To reduce evaporation and generate electricity

RRB Senior Section Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)

Q 126: What are the components of the natural components of development ?
Options:
1) Institutions, Political structure, rights
3) Savings, Insurance, Salaries.
4) Resources, environment, food, health

Q 127: What is special about the way the Commonwealth Games are inaugurated ?
Options:
1) The Queen of England sends a baton which travels.
2) A fire is lit in London and then in the city of the Games.
3) All athletes carry the flags of their country and the British flag.
4) The mascot for each game is decided by the Queen of England
Answer: The Queen of England sends a baton which travels.

Q 128: Who is the caption of the women’s hockey team of India ?
Options:
1) Mamta Kharab
2) Suraj Lata Devi
3) Ritu Rani
4) Chanchana Devi

Q 129: Which type of collaboration is India getting from Singapore in building smart cities ?
Options:
1) Expansion of tourism, building fast metros and railways and water purification
2) Information Technology management of cities, and efficient sewerage treatment.
3) Cleaning the rivers, converting sea water to potable water and expanding facilities of ports.
4) Building the broad roads, and increasing the living areas for the urban poor.
Answer: Information Technology management of cities, and efficient sewerage treatment.

Q 130: Which award was given to ISRO for the Lunar Probe Mission in 2008 ?
Options:
1) Sir Arthur Clarke Award
2) NASA award
3) Space Pioneer Award
4) IAF World Space Award

Q 131: Which island will now on be the centre for immigration check of luxury cruises to India ?
Options:
1) Kerala
2) Andaman Islands
3) Minicoy

Q 132: In which one of the following scales of temperature are both freezing and boiling points of water higher than the others ?
Options:
1) Reaumur scale
2) Kelvin scale
3) Fahrenheit scale

Q 133: The unit of heat is calorie. 1 calorie yields the amount of heat required for raising the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 degree centigrade from
Options:

Q 134: Which one of the following types of lenses is used for correcting the defect of focus in th eye called astigmatism ?
Options:
1) Prismatic Lens
2) Concave Lens
3) Convex Lens
4) Cylindrical lens

Q 135: Presence of which salts cause the Temporary hardness of water ?
Options:
1) Hydrogen Chloride and Sulphides
2) Carbonates Calcium and Magnesium
3) Sulphur and Silicates of Iron
4) Silicates Calcium and Magnesium

Q 136: Salts of which of the following elements are used for providing colour to fireworks ?
Options:
1) Strontium and Barium
2) Chromium and Nickel
3) Potassium and Mercury
4) Zinc and Sulphur

Q 137: On the basis of which of the following compounds in the sweat from Human feet do the trained dogs track people ?
Options:
1) Sulphuric Acid
2) Nitric Acid
3) Carboxylic Acid
4) Uric Acid

Q 138: What is the result of having more vitamins and minerals than the body needs ?
Options:
1) Increased weight gain
2) Memory loss
3) Excessive sweating and lack of appetite
4) Liver and Kidney failure

Q 139: What are genes ?
Options:
1) Blood group
2) D.N.A code
3) Cells in bone characteristic
4) Types of human characteristic

Q 140: Which part of the cell is called the ‘power house’ of the Cell ?
Options:
1) Mitochondria
2) Plasma membrane
3) Ribosome
4) Cytoplasm

Q 141: Pointing to a photograph, a boy said, ‘The man in the blue shirt is my father’s  brother’s  wife’s  father’s  son’s  sister’s husband.’ Said a girl. He is her____
Options:
1) Father
2) Grandfather
3) Uncle
4) Cousin

Q 142: ROMAN : MANORRAMON :: CIDER : ?
The letters of the word ROMAN : MANORRAMON are related in certain way. The same relationship holds for the second pair of terms on the right side of the :: sign of which one is missing. Find the missing one from the alternatives.
Options:
1) RIDESSIRED
2) DERCICEDIR
3) DERICECDIR
4) DERICCEDIR

Q 143: What should be the missing term in the following number series ?
61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83,…….97.
Options:
1) 89
2) 87
3) 85
4) 91

Q 144: Which is the next term in the following sequence of letter clusters ?
PLaN, OJbP, NHcR, MFdT, LDeV
Options:
1) KBgX
2) KBfX
3) JCfX
4) JBfX

Q 145: Which is the odd number-pair ?
Options:
1) 14-392
2) 13-338
3) 15-480
4) 16-512

Q 146: In a code, LIBRARIANS is coded as ILRBRAAISN. In that code, what will be the code for PHOSPHATIC ?
Options:
1) BMBKXSOBBK
2) EMEKXSOBEK
3) HPSOHPTACI
4) BMBKXSOBEK

Q 147: If, in a certain code language, FIN is written as 138, SAG as 246, ERR as 077 and RIG as 147, in that code language, GINGER will be written as:
Options:
1) 314704
2) 413407
3) 314307
4) 013447

Q 148: I asked my aunt how old she was. Instead of giving reply, she said ‘When I am n years old, the year will be the square of n x n. ‘What was her age in 2010 ?
Options:
1) 30
2) 31
3) 29
4) 28

Q 149: A shepherd taking rest in the shade of a ree woke up to find that one of his sheep was missing. He set out west looking for the sheep. After walking a short distance, he turned to the left and reached the bank of a river. Turning right there, he walked along the river bank and he noticed that he was walking against the flow of the river. In which direction does the river flow ?
Options:
1) North to South
2) South to North
3) East to West
4) West to East

Q 150: Choose the number missing in the third cross:

Options:
1) 0
2) 1
3) 4
4) 3