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Home / Newton Desk / RRB Senior Section Engineer Exam 2015 Shift-1

RRB Senior Section Engineer Exam 2015 Shift-1

RRB Senior section engineer (SSE)

Exam Duration:  120
Number of Questions:   150
Total Marks:   150
Correct: 1 mark
Wrong:  0.33 Negative marks

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Q 1: Zeroth law of thermodynamics is the basis of______
Options:
1) Pressure Measurement
2) Temperature Measurement
3) Density Measurement
4) Viscosity Measurement
Answer: Temperature Measurement
 
Q 2: A Process in which no heat crosses the boundary of the system is called______
Options:
1) Adiabatic Process
2) Ideal process
3) Isobaric Process
4) Isothermal process
Answer: Adiabatic Process
 
Q 3: Which of the following fluid flow Conditions has high heat transfer coefficient
Options:
1) Forced Convection in air
2) Free convection in water
3) Condensation of steam
4) Free convection in air
Answer: Condensation of steam  
 
Q 4: The Value Solar Constant is______
Option:
1) 1353 KW/m­­2
2) 1353 W/m­­2
3) 135  KJ/m2
4) 1353 J/m2
Answer: 1352 W/m2
 
Q 5: Indicated mean effective pressure may be defined as______
Options:
1) (Area of indicator diagram) / (Length of indicator diagram)
2) (Length of indicator diagram) / (Area of indicator diagram)
3) (Area of indicator diagram) / (Length of indicator diagram)
4) (Length of indicator diagram)2
Answer: (Area of indicator diagram) / (Length of indicator diagram)
 
Q 6: Equivalence ratio may be defined as______
Options:
1) (Stoichiometric fuel-air ratio) / (Actual Fuel-air ratio)
2) (Mass flow ratio of fuel) / (Mass flow ratio of air)
3) (Actual fuel-air ratio) / (Stoichiometric fuel-air ratio)
4) (Mass flow ratio of air) / (Mass flow ratio of fuel)
Answer: (Actual fuel-air ratio) / (Stoichiometric fuel-air ratio)
 
Q 7: Petrol and diesel engines of automobile are______
Options:
1) External combustion engine
2) Reciprocating engine
3) Rotary engine
4) Carnot heat engine
Answer: Reciprocating engine
 
Q 8: Hot working is done______
Option:
1) Below the recrystallization temperature of metal
2) Above the recrystallization temperature of metal
3) Above the melting point temperature of metal
4) Below 0oC
Answer: Above the recrystallization temperature of metal
 
Q 9: The allowance that is provided to compensate for the contraction of metal during its solidification is known as______
Options:
1) Taper allowance
2) Shrinkage allowance
3) Camber allowance
4) Machining allowance
Answer: Shrinkage allowance
 
Q 10: Bed of lathe machine is made up of cast iron because it has_____
Options:
1) Good shock absorbing property
2) Good Surface finish
3) Good electrical property
4) Very low density
Answer: Good shock absorbing property
 
Q 11: The machine on which the job reciprocates and the tool remains stationary is known as______
Options:
1) Planer
2) Shaper
3) Milling
4) Drilling
Answer: Planer
 
Q 12: The operation in which the tool is rotating in the opposite direction to the direction feed is known as_______
Options:
1) Boring
2) Drilling
3) Up-milling
4) Down milling
Answer: Up-milling
 
Q 13: The joint which is used to join to member aligned in the same plane is known as______
Options:
1) Edge joint
2) Lap joint
3) Butt joint
4) T-joint
Answer: Butt joint
 
Q 14: Spot welding falls under the category of______
Options:
1) Soldering
2) Fusion welding
3) Brazing
4) Resistance welding
Answer: Resistance welding
 
Q 15: The “Superposition theorem” is essential based on the concept of______
Options:
1) Duality
2) Linearity
3) Non linearity
4) Reciprocity
Answer: Linearity
 
Q 16: Which of the following generating stations has the minimum running cost ?
Options:
1) Hydro-electric station
2) Thermal power plant
3) Nuclear power plant
4) Diesel power plant
Answer: Hydro-electric station
 
Q 17: Which of the following motors has a high starting torque?
Options:
1) AC series motor
2) DC series motor
3) Synchronous motor
4) Induction motor
Answer: DC series motor
 
Q 18: A step-up transformer increases______
Options:
1) Voltage
2) Current
3) Power
4) Frequency
Answer: Voltage
 
Q 19: The magnetic field inside the solenoid
Options:
1) Zero
2) Uniform
3) Decreases with distance from axis
4) Increases with distance from axis
Answer: Uniform
 
Q 20: Cells are connected in parallel in order to______
Options:
1) Reduce cost of wiring
2) Increase the voltage available
3) Increase the Current available
4) Reduce the time required to fully charge them after use.
Answer: Increase the Current available
 
Q 21: The power factor of a purely resistive circuit is_____
Options:
1) Lagging
2) Zero
3) Unity
4) Leading
Answer: Unity
 
Q 22: superposition theorem can be applicable only to circuits having______elements
Options:
1) Non-linear
2) Resistive
3) Passive
4) Linear bilateral
Answer: Linear bilateral
 
Q 23: The efficiency of a transformer is maximum when______
Options:
1) It runs at full load
2) It runs at half full load
3) Its Cu loss equals iron loss
4) It runs overload
Answer: Its Cu loss equals iron loss
 
Q 24: The armature of D.C. generator is laminated to
Options:
1) Insulate the core
2) Provide the bulk
3) Reduce the bulk
4) Reduce eddy current loss
Answer: Reduce eddy current loss
 
Q 25: What is 1’s complement number of a signed decimal number? The range of signed decimal numbers that can be represented by 5-bits ?
Options:
1) -16 to +15
2) -15 to +15
3) -31 to +31
4) -32 to +31
Answer: -15 to +15
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Q 26: The maximum efficiency of a full wave rectifier is______
Options:
1) 91.1%
2) 100%
3) 81.2%
4) 80%
Answer: 81.2%
 
Q 27: An N-type semiconductor as a whole is_____
Options:
1) Positively or negatively charged depending on doping
2) Positively charged
3) Negatively charged
4) Electrically neutral
Answer: Electrically neutral
 
Q 28: Which of the following will serve as a donor impurity in silicon ?
Options:
1) Germanium
2) Boron
3) Indium
4) Antimony
Answer: Antimony
 
Q 29: Assume that D1 and D2  in figure are ideal diodes. The value of current-I is____
diodes
Options:
1) 0.5 mA
2) 0.58mA
3) 0 mA
4) 0.633 mA
Answer: 0 mA
 
Q 30: The JFET is a­­­_____
Option:
1) Current controlled voltage source
2) Current controlled current source
3) Voltage controlled current source
4) Voltage controlled voltage source
Answer: Voltage controlled current source
 
Q 31: _____Configuration has the highest voltage gain.
Option:
1) Common emitter
2) Common base
3) Common collector
4) Both b and c
Answer: Common emitter
 
Q 32: Signal to noise ratio is highest in____
Options:
1) PAM
2) PPM
3) PWM
4) PPM and PWM
Answer: PPM
 
Q 33: The series element of a band stop filter is
Options:
1) Inductive
2) Capacitive
3) Series combination of inductance and capacitance
4) Parallel combination of inductance and capacitance
Answer: Parallel combination of inductance and capacitance
 
Q 34: A 400 W carrier is amplitude modulated and has a side-band power of 50 W. The depth of modulation is
Options:
1) 1
2) 0.55
3) 0.50
4) 0.45
Answer: 0.50
 
Q 35: Which of the following oxide is in the LOWEST % in ordinary Portland cement?
Option:
1) Magnesium oxide
2) Iron oxide
3) Soda + Potash
4) Aluminium oxide
Answer: Soda + Potash
 
Q 36: According to IS 456, the approximate estimated flexural strength (MPa) of concrete of grade M50 (fck = 50 MPa) would be
Options:
1) 4.9
2) 2.5
3) 5.5
4) 6.5
Answer: 4.9
 
Q 37: A contour line joins all the points having
Options:
1) Equal elevation
2) Equal vertical angles
3) Similar reference points
4) Zero elevation
Answer: Equal elevation
 
Q 38: A column is a structural member designed primarily to take which of the following type of load
Options:
1) Tensile
2) Torsional
3) Compressive
4) Shear
Answer: Compressive
 
Q 39: The minimum yield stress for a Fe415 is
Option:
1) 415 MPa
2) 500 MPa
3) 395 MPa
4) 550 MPa
Answer: 415 MPa
 
Q 40: The minimum time before striking the form for columns as per IS 456 is_____
Options:
1) 3-day
2) 7-day
3) 14-day
4) 16-24 h
Answer: 16-24 h
 
Q 41: For a soil, the water content where further loss of moisture will not result in any more volume reduction is called as_____
Options:
1) Natural moisture content
2) Shrinkage limit
3) Plastic limit
4) Liquid limit
Answer: Shrinkage limit
 
Q 42:  The degree of compaction for sand is usually defined in terms of
1) Relative density
2) Modified proctor test
3) Nuclear density meter
4) Standard proctor test
Answer: Relative density
 
Q 43: Normally, when ordinary Portland cement hydrates,
Options:
1) Heat evolves
2) Heat is absorbed
3) Heat neither evolves nor is absorbed
4) Cement paste cools down below atmospheric temperature
Answer: Heat evolves
 
Q 44: A fluid flow in which the density of the fluid changes significantly during flowing is called as
Options:
1) Uniform
2) Incompressible
3) Compressible
4) Non-linear
Answer: Compressible
 
Q 45: A clay has unconfined compressive strength of 240 kN/sq.m in undisturbed state. The clay was then remolded and the unconfined compressive strength was found to be 60 kN/sq.m. The sensitivity of this clay is_____
Options:
1) 0.33
2) 3.00
3) 0.25
4) 4.00
Answer: 4.00
 
Q 46: The property, which characterizes the resistance which a fluid offers to applied shear force is called as_____
Options:
1) Fluidity
2) Relative density
3) Elasticity
4) Viscosity
Answer: Viscosity
 
Q 47: A first order instrument is characterized by
Options:
1) Static sensitivity only
2) Static sensitivity and time constant
3) Time constant only
4) Damping coefficient and static sensitivity
Answer: Static sensitivity and time constant
 
Q 48: Decibel scale is useful while measuring voltage covering
Options:
1) Wide Frequency ratio
2) Wide voltage ratio
3) Narrow voltage range
4) Narrow frequency range
Answer: Wide Frequency ratio
 
Q 49: Pair of active transducer is
Options:
1) Solar cell and LVDT
2) Thermocouple and thermistor
3) Thermocouple and solar cell
4) Thermistor and solar cell
Answer: Thermocouple and solar cell
 
Q 50: Which one of the following materials used in fabrication of swapping resistance of PMMC instruments ?
Options:
1) Aluminium
2) Copper
3) Manganin
4) Tungsten
Answer: Manganin

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Q 51: Integrating principle in the digital measurement is the conversion of_____
Options:
1) Voltage to current
2) Voltage to frequency
3) Voltage to time
4) Current to voltage
Answer: Voltage to frequency
 
Q 52: The chemoautotrophs uses heat energy in the absence of sun light to convert dissolved hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide into____
Options:
1) Organic compounds
2) Inorganic compounds
3) Inorganic & organic compounds
4) toxic compounds
Answer: Organic compounds
 
Q 53: The organisms infecting or transmitting the diseases to human beings are called____
Options:
1) Common bacteria
2) Pathogens
3) Microorganism
4) Epidemic viruses
Answer: Pathogens
 
Q 54: The working principle of turbidimeter is based on____
Options:
1) Refraction of light
2) Reflection of light
3) Scattering of light
4) Absorption of light
Answer: Scattering of light
 
Q 55: The major source of carcinogenic hydrocarbon, benzo (α) pyrene present in urban atmosphere is____
Options:
1) Brusting of crackers
2) Road traffic
3) Construction activities
4) Domestic burning
Answer: Road traffic
 
Q 56: The prescribed permissible noise level, Leq for commercial area at day time is____
Options:
1) 75 dba
2) 55 dba
3) 50 dba
4) 65 dba
Answer: 65 dba
 
Q 57: The global warming is caused by green house gases, which are____
Options:
1) CO2, NO2, CH4 and H2O
2) CO, N2O, CH4 and CFC
3) CO2, N2O, CH4 and H2O
4) CO2, NO2, CH4 and CFC
Answer: CO2, N2O, CH4 and H2O
 
Q 58: Which of the following is an integral component of CPU ?
Options:
1) NIC
2) RAM
3) Hard Disk
4) Registers
Answer: Registers
 
Q 59: Which of the following is not an operating system ?
Options:
1) Android
2) Mac OSX
3) iOS
4) Hadoop
Answer: Hadoop
 
Q 60: Considering 2’s complement representation for negative numbers, -128 will be stored into an 8-bit memory space as____
Options:
1) 10000001
2) 10000000
3) 11111111
4) 11111110
Answer: 10000000
 
Q 61: Considering X and Y as binary variables, the equivalent Boolean expression for (X + Y)’ is____
Options:
1) X.Y’
2) X’.Y
3) X’.Y’
4) X’ + Y’
Answer: X’.Y’
 
Q 62: ‘Java’ is a_____
Options:
1) High-level Programming language
2) Low-level programming language
3) Assembly language
4) Machine language
Answer: High-level Programming language
 
Q 63: Which of the following statements about Machine language is correct ?
Option:
1) Machine language is machine dependent
2) Machine language is machine independent
3) Machine language programs require assembler
4) Machine language is easier than high-level language to write programs
Answer: Machine language is machine dependent
 
Q 64: HTTP stands for
Options:
1) Hyper Text Transfer Program
2) Hyper Text Transmission Protocol
3) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
4) Hyper Text Transmission Program
Answer: Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
 
Q 65: A Virus can not____
Options:
1) Steal CPU time
2) Steal hard disk space
3) Log keystrokes
4) Increase/decrease the word length of CPU
Answer: Increase/decrease the word length of CPU
 
Q 66: Which of the following is not a valid category of Read Only memory (ROM) ?
Options:
1) EPROM
2) PROM
3) EEPROM
4) EEEPROM
Answer: EEEPROM
 
Q 67: The 16’s compliment of the hexadecimal number (A10)16 is
Options:
1) (5F0)16
2) (5EF)16
3) (5E0)16
4) (6F0)16
Answer: (5F0)16
 
Q 68: A room of 2744 m3 volume is shown by a cube of 7 cm side. The R.F. of the scale is____
Options:
1) 1/3920
2) 1/20
3) 1/392
4) 1/200
Answer: 1/200
 
Q 69: The curve traced out by a point lying on the circumference of the circle which rolls on a straight line is known as____
Options:
1) Epicycloids
2) Circle
3) Hypocycloid
4) Cycloid
Answer: Cycloid
 
Q 70: If the true and apparent inclinations of a line with H.P.are equal, the line is____
Options:
1) Parallel to vertical plane
2) Parallel to profile plane
3) Parallel to horizontal plane
4) Inclined to both reference planes
Answer: Parallel to vertical plane
 
Q 71: If a thin 60o set square is kept perpendicular toboth the horizontal and vertical planes, its true shape is seen in____
Options:
1) Auxiliary inclined plane
2) Horizontal plane
3) Profile plane
4) Vertical plane
Answer: Profile plane
 
Q 72: A square in a regular multi-view projection appears in an isometric view as____
Options:
1) Box
2) Rhombus
3) Parallelogram
4) Square
Answer: Rhombus
 
Q 73: Mohan hits a cricket ball which hits the glass of a window of a nearby building. The ball does not break the glass. It reverses its direction and falls on the ground. Which of the following statements is correct?
Options:
1) The force exerted by the ball on the glass is more than the force exerted by the glass on the ball
2) The force exerted by the ball on the glass is less than the force exerted by the glass on the ball
3) The force exerted by the ball on the glass is equal to the force exerted by the glass on the ball
4) The force exerted by the ball on the glass may be less or more than the force exerted by the glass on the ball, depending upon the toughness of the glass.
Answer: The force exerted by the ball on the glass is equal to the force exerted by the glass on the ball
 
Q 74: Let g be the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of earth (radius R). Then the acceleration due to gravity g(h) at a height h above the surface of the earth is given by
Options:
1) g(h) = g (1 + h/R)
2) g(h) = g (1 – 2h/R)
3) g(h) = g (1 – h/R)
4) g(h) = g (1 + 2h/R)
Answer: g(h) = g (1 – 2h/R)
 
Q 75: The work done by a variable force of the form F = k x is equal to___
Options:
1) kx
2) kx2
3) 2k x2
4) Equal to the area under the F versus x curve.
Answer: Equal to the area under the F versus x curve.

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Q 76: An object in simple harmonic motion is at its maximum displacement. Which of the following quantities is at a maximum ?
Options:
1) Acceleration
2) Frequency
3) Velocity
4) Kinetic energy
Answer: Acceleration
 
Q 77: In case of total internal reflection occurring at a glass-air interface,
Options:
1) Light from air strikes the glass with an incident angle more than the critical angle
2) Light from air strikes the glass with an incident angle less than the critical angle
3) No light is reflected
4) No light is refracted.
Answer: No light is refracted
 
Q 78: The quantity, electromotive force (emf), is dimentionally equivalent to_____
Options:
1) Joule / coulomb
2) Coulomb / ohm
3) Joule x meter
4) Joule x coulomb.
Answer: Joule / coulomb
 
Q 79: The solubility product (ksp) of silver iodate in water at 20 oC is 4×10-8 mol2 L-2. What is the concentration of silver ions, Ag+ (aq) in a solution of silver iodate in water at 20 oC ?
Options:
1) 4×10-8 mol L-1
2) 2×10-8 mol L-1
3) 2×10-4 mol L-1
4) 16×10-16 mol L-1
Answer: 2×10-4 mol L-1
 
Q 80: Which of the following pair of compounds will react together under suitable conditions to form 1- ethoxypropane as the major product ?
Options:
1) C2H5COONa + C2H5OH
2) C2H5ONa + CH3CH(I) CH3
3) CH3COCI + CH3CH2CH2OH
4) C2H5ONa + CH3CH2CH2I
Answer: C2H5ONa + CH3CH2CH2I
 
Q 81: Which one of the following compounds includes a transition element with zero oxidation state ?
Options:
1) [ Fe (H2O)6]3
2) [ Ni (CO)4]
3) [ Fe (H2O)6] SO4
4) [ Cu (H2O)6]2+ SO42-
Answer: [ Ni (CO)4]
 
Q 82: If 0.005 moles each of the following substances are separately dissolved in 100 grams of water, the solution of which substance will have the highest boiling point ?
Options:
1) Sodium chloride
2) Aluminium chloride
3) Magnesium chloride
4) Glucose
Answer: Aluminium chloride
 
Q 83: Which of the following represents nucleophilic addition reaction ?
Options:
1) CH3CHO + NH2NH2  ——>  CH3CH = NNH2 + H2O
2) C6H5CHO + NaHSO3  —–>   C6H5CH(OH) Na
3) CH3CH = CH CH3   ——>   CH3CH2 – CH (Br) CH3
4) CH3CHO + 3I2     ——>   CHI3
Answer: CH3CHO + NH2NH2  ——>  CH3CH = NNH2 + H2O
 
Q 84: In which of the following, nitrogen has an oxidation number – 1 ?
Options:
1) NH2OH
2) HNO2
3) NO
4) HNO3
Answer: NH2OH
 
Q 85: A particular gas is present in air in a small quantity but if it accumulates in air, it causes global warming and climate change. What gas is it ?
Options:
1) Oxygen
2) Nitrogen
3) Carbon-di-oxide
4) Helium
Answer: Carbon-di-oxide
 
Q 86: A teacher was explaining the need for scientific names of all living beings. She mentioned four such names. Which one is for the humans ?
Options:
1) Musca domestica
2) Homo sapiens sapiens
3) Mangifera indica
4) Panthera tigris
Answer: Homo sapiens sapiens
 
Q 87: Excretion means removal of____
Options:
1) Urine from the body
2) Nitrogenous waste from the body
3) All kinds of waste from the body
4) Extra water from the body
Answer: Nitrogenous waste from the body
 
Q 88: When we say Pitcher plant is an ‘insectivorous plant’ we mean it derives nutrition from_____
Options:
1) Animals with 4 pairs of legs
2) Animals with 3 pairs of legs
3) Animals with few legs
4) Animals with no legs
Answer: Animals with 3 pairs of legs
 
Q 89: Who gave the theory of natural selection to explain organic evolution ?
Options:
1) Albert Einstein
2) Herbert Spencer
3) Charles Darwin
4) Jagadish Chandra Bose
Answer: Charles Darwin
 
Q 90: Soya bean and Peas have lots of Protein. The enzymes digesting them are called____
Options:
1) Lipases
2) Lactase
3) Amylases
4) Proteases
Answer: Proteases
 
Q 91: If a=2129 x 381 x 5128, b= 2127 x 381 x 5128
             c= 2126 x 382 x 5128 and d= 2125 x 382 x 5129
then HCF of a,b,c and d is
Options:
1) 2125 x 381 x 5128
2) 2125 x 381 x 5129
3) 2125 x 382 x 5128
4) 2129 x 382 x 5129
Answer: 2125 x 381 x 5128
 
Q 92: Let x be a least number which when divided by 21, 33, 35 and 55 leaves in each case a reminder 3, but is exactly divisible by 67. The sum of digits of x is_____
Options:
1) 12
2) 8
3) 10
4) 15
Answer: 15
 
Q 93: Entry fee to an exhibition was Rs. 80. Later, this was reduced by 25% which increased the sale by 20%. The percentage increased in the number of visitors is_____
Options:
1) 40
2) 30
3) 60
4) 80
Answer: 60
 
Q 94: If a:b = 8:15, b:c = 5:8, and c:d = 4:5, then b:d is_____
Options:
1) 1:2
2) 4:15
3) 1:3
4) 5:8
Answer: 1:2
 
Q 95: A person gave 1/5 part of his income to his son and 40% part of his income to his daughter. He lent out the remaining money in three trusts A, B and C in the ratio of 5:3:2. If the difference between the amount got by son and daughter is Rs. 50,000, how much amount did he invest in trust B?
Options:
1) Rs 30000
2) Rs 20000
3) Rs 40000
4) Rs 50000
Answer: Rs 30000
 
Q 96: Two alloys A and B contain zinc and copper in the ratio 5:6 and 7:8 respectively. If equal quantities of alloys are melted to form a third alloys C, then the ratio of copper and zinc in C will be.
Options:
1) 76:89
2) 89:76
3) 48:35
4) 35:48
Answer: 89:76
 
Q 97: A vessel is full of alcohol. From this 8 liters of alcohol was taken out and vessel was filled up with equal quantity of water. This process was repeated one more time. If now the solution in the vessel contains 64.8 liters of alcohol, then capacity (in liters) of the vessel is.
Options:
1) 120
2) 100
3) 90
4) 80
Answer: 80
 
Q 98: A man buys a TV by making cash down payment of Rs 4945 and agrees to pay two more yearly installments of equivalent amounts at the end of first year and second year. If the rate of interest is 7\frac{1}{2} % per annum, compounded annually, the cash value of the TV (in Rs) is nearest to_____
Options:
1) 13804
2) 12840
3) 13824
4) 14835
Answer: 13824
 
Q 99: A sum of Rs 5000 amounts to Rs 8640 at compound interest in a certain times, then the same sum amounts to what in one-third of the time ?
Options:
1) Rs 5886
2) Rs 6000
3) Rs 6214
4) Rs 7000
Answer: Rs 6000
 
Q 100: A man bought an article for Rs 240 and sold it at a loss of x%. Had he purchased it at 10% lesser cost price and sold it for Rs 42 more, then he would have had a gain of ¼ of the new cost price. The value of x is____
Options:
1) 4
2) 5
3) 8
4) 6
Answer: 5

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Q 101: Surbhi makes a profit of 25% by selling a pen at a certain price. If she charges Rs 1 more on each pen, she would gain 40%. The original cost price of one dozen pen is (in Rs)
Options:
1) 72
2) 60
3) 80
4) 84
Answer: 80
 
Q 102: A person travels a certain distance on a bicycle with a certain speed. Had he moved 3 km/hour faster, he would have taken 40 minutes less. Had he moved 2 km/hour slower, he would have taken 40 minutes more. Slower speed of the person, in km/hour, is_____
Options:
1) 8
2) 10
3) 12
4) 15
Answer: 10
 
Q 103: A and B can walk around a circular path in 4 minutes and 9 minutes respectively. If they start from the same point in the same direction, after how much time will they meet again for first time ?
Options:
1) 4 minute 30 seconds
2) 4 minute 12 seconds
3) 7 minute 12 seconds
4) 36 minutes
Answer: 7 minute 12 seconds
 
Q 104: A team of 100 workers is supposed to do a work in 40 days. After 35 days, 100 more workers were employed and the work was finished on Time. How many days would have it been delayed If additional workers were not employed ?
Options:
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 5
Answer: 5
 
Q 105: A, B and C can do a work in6, 12 and 24 days respectively. They all begin together. A continues to work till it is finished, C leaves off 2 days and B one day before completion. In what time (in days) is the work finished ?
Options:
1) 2
2) 4
3) 6
4) 8
Answer: 4
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Q 106: Three different positive integers are chosen such that when each of the numbers is added to the average of the other two, the number 65, 69 and 76 are pbtained. The average of the three original number is____
Options:
1) 70
2) 43
3) 38
4) 35
Answer: 35
 
Q 107: If average of 7 consecutive number is 203, then the average of the smallest and second number is_____
Options:
1) 201
2) 203
3) 202.5
4) 203.5
Answer: 202.5
 
Q 108: Let α and β be the roots of x2+kx+8=0, such that the value of k are_____
Options:
1) ±3
2) ±6
3) ±4
4) ±8
Answer: ±6
 
Q 109: If the equation x2-2x(1+3p)+7(3+2p)=0 has equal root, then the sum of the values of p is
Options:
1) -3\frac{1}{9}
2) -8/9
3) 8/9
4) 3\frac{1}{9}
Answer: 8/9
 
Q 110: One of the factors of a3(b-c)+b3(c-a)+c3(a-b) is
Option:
1) a+b
2) a+b-c
3) a-b+c
4) a+b+c
Answer: a+b+c
 
Q 111: Factorization of (a+b+c)3-a3-b3-c3 is_____
Options:
1) (a+b) (b+c) (c+a)
2) z(a+b) (b+c) (c+a)
3) 3(a+b) 9(b+c) (c+a)
4) 3(a-b) (b-c) (c-a)
Answer: 3(a+b) 9(b+c) (c+a)
 
Q 112: If the ratio of 7th terms to 3rd term of an arithmetic progression is 2.4, then the ratio of the 13th term to the 4th term is_____
Options:
1) 6:7
2) 10:3
3) 3:10
4) 7:6
Answer: 10:3
 
Q 113: The sum to n terms of the series
1+(1+2)+(1+2+3)+(1+2+3+4)+………..is
Options:
1) \frac{n(n+1)}{2}
2) \frac{n(n+2)}{4}
3) \frac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6}
4) \frac{n(n+1)(n+2)}{6}
Answer: \frac{n(n+1)(n+2)}{6}
 
Q 114: If sinθ+cosθ=√3, then the value of \frac{3}{4} (tanθ+cotθ) is
Options:
1) 1
2) 3/ 4
3) 3/2
4) 3
Answer: 3/4
 
Q 115: A ship is approaching a light home, 100m high above the sea-level. The angle of depression of the ship as observed from the top of the light home, changes from 30o to 45o. The distance, in m, travelled by the ship during the period of observation, in m, is_____
Options:
1) 100(√3+1)
2) 100(√3-1)
3) 100√3-1
4) 100√3+1
Answer: 100(√3-1)
 
Q 116: What are the most common themes in the drawing found in the stone age Bhimbetka caves ?
Options:
1) Cutting logs, making fire, cooking, farming
2) Hunting scenes, women and men, making fire
3) Celebrations, Hunting, Weaving, making fire
4) Making tools, farming, hunting, making iron
Answer: Hunting scenes, women and men, making fire
Q 117: Why is the Gupta period is considered the golden age of Ancient India ?
Options:
1) Increase of population, the expansion of textile and iron industry.
2) Growth of towns and more ports were constructed.
3) Growth of guilds, towns, trade routes and advanced agriculture.
4) More people travelled by road and ship.
Answer: Growth of guilds, towns, trade routes and advanced agriculture.
 
Q 118: Which movement did both the Indian National Army, the Royal Indian Navy support ?
Options:
1) Non Cooperation
2) Khilafat
3) Home Rule Movement
4) August Kranti
Answer: August Kranti
 
Q 119: Where in the course of the river are Gorges, plunge pools, rapids, interlocking spurs found ?
Options:
1) Upper course
2) Middle course
3) Lower Middle Course
4) Lower course
Answer: Upper course
 
Q 120: ‘Usually before the onset of monsoons though the frequency of cyclones is low their Intensity is high ? For which one of the following is this statement true.
Options:
1) Arabian sea
2) Bay of Bengal
3) Indian Ocean
4) South China Sea
Answer: Bay of Bengal
 
Q 121: What new feature has been focused on in the National Horticulture Mission 2005-2006 ?
Options:
1) Insurance for crops like coconut and cashew plantations in Kerala and Northeast for additional income to farmers.
2)  Production of vegetable, cultivation seed, integrated Nutrient management, integrated pest management and organic farming.
3) Provision drip irrigation, cold chains and allocating seed production incentives for farmers.
4) Expansion of area under cultivation of fruits, spices, flower, medicinal and aromatic plants, cashew and cocoa.
Answer: Provision drip irrigation, cold chains and allocating seed production incentives for farmers.
 
Q 122: Which one is a part of the Directive Principle of state Policy ?
Options:
1) Right to adult franchise
2) Right to equality before law
3) Organisation of trade Unions and workers rights
4) Organisation of Village Panchayats.
Answer: Organisation of Village Panchayats.
 
Q 123:  The implementation of which one of the following does not need any legislation ?
Options:
1) Directive Principles of state policy
2) Fundamental Rights and Duties
3) Promotion of community welfare
4) Suggestion to States for citizen welfare.
Answer: Fundamental Rights and Duties
 
Q 124: What is the difference between Economic growth and Economic Development ?
Options:
1) Economic growth leads to greater employment, economic development increases national income
2) Economic growth is the increase in the prosperity of a region whereas economic development is a result of policy of the Government
3) Economic growth is the Increase in production of goods and services over the previous year, economic development is the impact it has on income of an area.
4) Economic growth is quantifiable whereas development can only be described or felt.
Answer: Economic growth is the Increase in production of goods and services over the previous year, economic development is the impact it has on income of an area.
 
Q 125: Which measure is likely to make India the world’s largest green energy producer by 2022 ?
Options:
1) Increase Investment in solar panels, and batteries so that home owners can set up own power supply
2) Introducing roof top and grid connected solar Production units on build, own, operate and transfer basis.
3) Making solar energy producers create systems to provide solar power to areas not covered by the grid
4) Give private companies rights to use roof tops and fields for generating private electricity for industry
Answer: Introducing roof top and grid connected solar Production units on build, own, operate and transfer basis.

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Q 126: What is the advantage of E-commerce ?
Options:
1) Is private, secure, and fast, and allows worldwide competition.
2) Permits International trade without too many regulations.
3) Protects both the supplier and consumer.
4) Encourages production based on natural resources.
Answer: Is private, secure, and fast, and allows worldwide competition.
 
Q 127: What are the three values cherished by the commonwealth Games ?
Options:
1) Faster, Higher, Stronger.
2) Get Set, Go, and Play.
3) Diversity Shines here.
4) Humanity, Equality, Destiny.
Answer: Humanity, Equality, Destiny.
 
Q 128: For participation in which international games event has the Men’s Indian Hockey team qualified after the World Hockey League ?
Options:
1) Asian Games
2) Olympics
3) Winter Olympics
4)  Common wealth Games
Answer: Olympics
 
Q 129: Which countries would benefit from the Kunming to Kolkata high speed rail corridor ?
Options:
1) Bangladesh, China, Myanmar, India
2) India, Vietnam, Myanmar, Bangladesh.
3) China, Myanmar, Bhutan, India
4) Myanmar, China, Nepal and India.
Answer: Bangladesh, China, Myanmar, India
 
Q 130: What are the main features of the smart city which has been proposed to meet the needs of the 843 million urban population India by the year 2050 ?
Options:
1) More roads, and high speed trains to connect the cities and towns.
2) Support to small towns to modernise and improve their civic amenities
3) Eco Friendly, satellite cities, efficient quality of urban life.
4) Improved garbage disposal and urban sanitation measures.
Answer: Eco Friendly, satellite cities, efficient quality of urban life.
 
Q 131: What is SAKAAR ?
Options:
1) Latest technology to track satellites from Earth.
2) An application to find location of stars.
3) An application to view the space images.
4) A device to receive data about space probes.
Answer: An application to view the space images.
 
Q 132: Rainbows show that different colours have different wavelengths? Which one has the shortest wavelength?
Options:
1) Blue
2) Red
3) Orange
4) Violet
Answer: Violet
 
Q 133: Which law governs the movement of manmade satellites in space ?
Options:
1) Newton’s Laws of Motion
2) Hubble’s Laws
3) Kepler’s Laws
4) Harley’s law
Answer: Kepler’s Laws
 
Q 134:  In Comparison to the measurement on the surface of the Earth, those on top of Mt. Everest demonstrate
Options:
1) Decrease in weight with mass remaining the same
2) Increase in the mass with weight remaining the same
3) Decrease in both mass and weight
4) Increase in both mass and weight
Answer: Decrease in weight with mass remaining the same
 
Q 135: Which one of the following pairs of elements are components of all proteins ?
Options:
1) Sodium and Oxygen
2) Carbon and Hydrogen
3) Potassium and Nitrogen
4) Iron and Carbon Dioxide
Answer: Carbon and Hydrogen
 
Q 136: What is Acid Rain is caused by ?
Options:
1) Emissions of sulphur dioxide
2) Higher levels of Carbon monoxide
3) Increase in dust particles
4) More ozone in the lower atmosphere.
Answer: Emissions of sulphur dioxide
 
Q 137:

Gas Composition before the Experiment Composition after the Experiment
Oxygen 20.50% 16.50%
Nitrogen 78.50% 78.50%
Carbon dioxide 0.94% 4.04%
Water vapour Average More than before

 
The above data leads to the conclusion that the process carried out was one of:
1) Condensation
2) Carbon Assimilation
3) Slow Combustion
4) Evaporation
Answer: Carbon Assimilation
 
Q 138: What is the Genome ?
Options:
1) DNA molecules in the nucleus of the cell.
2) Number of cells in a tissue of an organism.
3) Number of chromosomes in the cell’s DNA.
4) Complete set of nuclear DNA in an organism.
Answer: Complete set of nuclear DNA in an organism.
 
Q 139: Which component of the blood is our second defence mechanism against infections ?
Options:
1) Lymphocytes
2) Platelets
3) Red blood Corpuscles
4) White blood corpuscles
Answer: White blood corpuscles
 
Q 140: Why is Vitamin D also considered a hormone ?
Options:
1) It increases the absorption of oxygen in the blood
2) It Absorbs sunlight and gives the skin the pigmentation it needs.
3) It is produced from the kidney, helps maintain calcium levels in blood.
4) It Makes the blood thinner and increases clotting time.
Answer: It is produced from the kidney, helps maintain calcium levels in blood.
 
Q 141: A and B are sister. C and D are brother. B’s son is D’s brother. How is A related to C ?
Options:
1) Sister
2) Aunt
3) Nephew
4) Mother
Answer: Aunt
 
Q 142: Three of the four number-pairs in the alternatives have number which hold the same relationship as the numbers in the number-pair given below. Find out the number-pair In which the two numbers do not hold the same relationship as the two numbers in the number-pair below.
                                     56:7
Options:
1) 6:2
2) 72:8
3) 42:6
4) 35:5
Answer: 35:5
 
Q 143: ‘Cloth’ is related to ‘Fibre’ in the same way as ‘Book’ is related to:
Option:
1) Text
2) Prints
3) Paper
4) Chapter
Answer: Paper
 
Q 144: Six person are standing in a queue. D and F had one person between them. C was behind A. E was not in the front. F was between A and B.
Who are respectively at the front and at the back of the queue?
Options:
1) DE
2) DC
3) AC
4) BE
Answer: DE
 
Q 145: Arrange the following words in a meaningful logical sequence and choose the appropriate number sequence from the alternatives.
                1) Lake 2) Sea 3) Pond 4) Well 5) Bay 6) Ocean
Options:
1) 6,2,5,3,1,4
2) 4,3,1,5,2,6
3) 1,4,3,2,5,6
4) 4,3,1,2,5,6
Answer: 4,3,1,5,2,6
 
Q 146: One term in the following number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
             2, 6, 12, 20, 32, 42, 56
Options:
1) 6
2) 12
3) 20
4) 32
Answer: 32
 
Q 147: In a certain code, ‘375’ means ‘ mangoes are sweet’; ‘2934’ means ‘boys like sweet dishes’ and ‘827’ means ‘dishes are costly’. Which digit means ‘mangoes’ in that code ?
Options:
1) 5
2) 7
3) 3
4) 4
Answer: 5
 
Q 148: In a certain language, ‘POSTAL’ is coded as ‘OPTSLA’ then in that language, ‘SMOKER’ would be coded as:
Options:
1) MSKOER
2) MKEROS
3) MSKORE
4) MSREKO
Answer: MSKORE
 
Q 149: Gopal walks 65 meters towards West and turns left and walks 25 meters and turns left again and walks 35 meters. He turns left once more and walks 45 meters. Finally, he turns right and walks 30 meters. How far is he from the starting point ?
Options:
1) 45 meters
2) 10 meters
3) 35 meters
4) 20 meters
Answer: 20 meters
 
Q 150: The numbers in the matrix given below follow a certain trend row-wise and and/or column wise. Study the trend and choose the number which will replace the question mark?

4 9 7
11 25 16
15 ? 19

    
Options:
1) 36
2) 16
3) 42
4) 34
Answer: 16
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