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RRB Junior Engineer Exam Paper 2015 Set-6

RRB Junior Engineer Exam Paper 2015 Set-6

RRB Junior engineer exam

Exam Duration:  120
Number of Questions:   150
Total Marks:   150
Correct: 1 mark
Wrong:  0.33 Negative marks

#rrbjuniorengineerexam

Q 1: For an ideal gas the value of joule Thomson coefficient is
Options:
1) Zero
2) 0.5
3) Unity
4) Infinite
Answer: Zero
 
Q 2: Perpetual motion machine of second kind  violates the
Options:
1) First law of thermodynamics
2) Kelvin-plank statement
3) Clausius statement
4) Third law of thermodynamics
Answer: Kelvin-plank statement
 
Q 3: The ratio of thermal conductivity to electrical conductivity is equal to
Options:
1) Prandtl number
2) Schmidt number
3) Lorentz number
4) Lewis number
Answer: Lorentz number
 
Q 4: The effectiveness of a fin will be maximum in an environment with
Options:
1) Free convection
2) Forced convection
3) Radiation
4) Convection and radiation
Answer: Free convection
 
Q 5: With increasing temperature of intake air, IC engine efficiency
Options:
1) Decreases
2) Increases
3) Remains same
4) Depends on other factors
Answer: Decreases
 
Q 6: Thermal efficiency of CI engine is higher than that of SI engine due to
Options:
1) Fuel used
2) Higher compression ratio
3) Constant pressure heat addition
4) Lower compression ratio
Answer: Higher compression ratio
 
Q 7: The float in the carburetor of a petrol engine controls
Options:
1) Flow rate of air
2) Flow rate of fuel
3) Flow rate of air-fuel mixture
4) Level of the petrol in the float chamber
Answer: Level of the petrol in the float chamber
 
Q 8: Angle between the face and flank of the single point cutting tool is known as
Options:
1) Rake angle
2) Clearance angle
3) Lip angle
4) Point angle
Answer: Lip angle
 
Q 9: Which of the following is a cutting tool material
Options:
1) High speed steel
2) Mild steel
3) Cost Iron
4) Galvanized steel
Answer: High speed steel
 
Q 10: In milling machine, the cutting tool is held in position by
Options:
1) Chuck
2) Spindle
3) Arbor
4) Tool holder
Answer: Arbor
 
Q 11: Collapsible tooth paste tubes are manufactured by
Options:
1) Direct extrusion
2) Piercing
3) Impact extrusion
4) Indirect extrusion
Answer: Impact extrusion
 
Q 12: Sprue in casting refers to
Options:
1) Gate
2) Runner
3) Riser
4) Vertical passage
Answer: Vertical passage
 
Q 13: In arc welding, arc is created between the electrode and work by
Options:
1) Flow of current
2) Voltage
3) Material characteristics
4) Contact resistance
Answer: Contact resistance
 
Q 14: Preheating of work piece is essential in welding
Options:
1) High speed steel
2) Stainless steel
3) Cast Iron
4) Aluminium
Answer: Cast Iron
 
Q 15: An Ideal voltage source should have
Options:
1) Large value of emf
2) Small value of emf
3) Zero source resistance
4) Infinite source resistance
Answer: Zero source resistance
 
Q 16: Which bulbs operates on lowest power
Options:
1) Night bulb
2) Neon bulb
3) GLS bulb
4) Torch bulb
Answer: Torch bulb
 
Q 17: Electrode is not consumed in the case of
Options:
1) TIG welding
2) MIG welding
3) Gas welding
4) Resistance welding
Answer: TIG welding
 
Q 18: DC generator are installed near the load centres to reduce
Options:
1) Iron losses
2) Line losses
3) Sparking
4) Corona losses
Answer: Line losses
 
Q 19: In a DC motor, constant torque is produced due to
Options:
1) Rotor laminations
2) End plates
3) Pole shoes
4) Commutator
Answer: Commutator
 
Q 20: Which of the following is not a part of transformer
Options:
1) Conservator
2) Buccholz Relay
3) Exciter
4) Breather
Answer: Exciter
 
Q 21: An induction motor is
Options:
1) Self starting with zero torque
2) Self starting with high torque
3) Self starting with low torque
4) Non self starting
Answer: Self starting with low torque
 
Q 22: The term “cogging” is associated with
Options:
1) Three phase transformer
2) Compound generators
3) DC series motor
4) Induction motors
Answer: Induction motors
 
Q 23: The speed of universal motor is generally reduced by using
Options:
1) Gear trains
2) V-belts
3) Brakes
4) Chains
Answer: Gear trains
 
Q 24: A thermal protection switch can protect against
Options:
1) Short circuit
2) Temperature
3) Over load
4) Variable load
Answer: Over load
 
Q 25: In a bipolar transistor which current is largest
Options:
1) Collector current
2) Base current
3) Emitter current
4) Base or emitter current
Answer: Emitter current


Q 26: The word enhancement mode is associated with
Options:
1) Tunnel diode
2) MOSFET
3) Photodiode
4) Varactor diode
Answer: MOSFET
 
Q 27: Which of the following has highest resistivity ?
Options:
1) Mica
2) Paraffin
3) Air
4) Mineral oil
Answer: Air
 
Q 28: Power diodes are generally
Options:
1) Silicon diodes
2) Germanium diodes
3) Carbon diodes
4) Carbon or germanium diodes
Answer: Silicon diodes
 
Q 29: The depletion layer width of Junction
Options:
1) Decreases with light doping
2) Is independent of applied voltage
3) Increases under reverse bias
4) Increases with heavy doping
Answer: Increases under reverse bias
 
Q 30: For mercury arc rectifiers, the anode is usually made up of
Options:
1) Aluminium
2) Graphite
3) Tungsten
4) Copper
Answer: Graphite
 
Q 31: For effective modulation, the degree of modulation should
Options:
1) Small
2) Never exceed 100%
3) Be large
4) Always more than 100%
Answer: Never exceed 100%
 
Q 32: Which of them radiates emission ?
Options:
1) LED
2) LCD
3) Both LCD and LED
4) Neither LCD nor LED
Answer: LED
 
Q 33: Binary 101010 is equivalent to decimal number
Options:
1) 24
2) 42
3) 64
4) 44
Answer: 42
 
Q 34: The number of valence electrons in donor impurity are
Options:
1) 1
2) 3
3) 5
4) 7
Answer: 5
 
Q 35: A prismatic beam has uniform
Options:
1) Depth
2) Width
3) Strength
4) Cross-section
Answer: Cross-section
 
Q 36: A well graded soil has a coefficient of curvature between
Options:
1) 10 to 12
2) 7 to 9
3) 4 to 6
4) 1 to 3
Answer: 1 to 3
 
Q 37: How is the deflection in RC beams controlled as per IS:456 ?
Options:
1) By using large aspect ratio
2) By using small modular ratio
3) By controlled span/depth ratio
4) By moderating water-cement ratio
Answer: By controlled span/depth ratio
 
Q 38: A steel beam supporting loads from the floor slab as well as from wall is termed as
Options:
1) Stringer beam
2) Lintel beam
3) Spandrel beam
4) Header
Answer: Spandrel beam
 
Q 39: The dimensions of dynamics viscosity μ are
Options:
1) ML-1T-2
2) ML-1T-1
3) MLT-2
4) M0L0T0
Answer: ML-1T-1
 
Q 40: The representative fraction 1/2500 means that the scale 1 cm is equal to
Options:
1) 0.25 m
2) 2.5 m
3) 25 m
4) 2.5 km
Answer: 25 m
 
Q 41: CPM is the
Options:
1) Time oriented technique
2) Event oriented technique
3) Activity oriented technique
4) Target oriented technique
Answer: Activity oriented technique
 
Q 42: Which of the following cement has maximum percentage of C3S?
Options:
1) Ordinary Portland cement
2) Low heat cement
3) Sulphate resisting cement
4) Rapid hardening cement
Answer: Rapid hardening cement
 
Q 43: Consistency as applied to cohesive soils is an indicator of its
Options:
1) Density
2) Moisture content
3) Shear strength
4) Porosity
Answer: Shear Strength
 
Q 44: The needle of a magnetic compass is generally supported on a
Options:
1) Bush bearing
2) Ball bearing
3) Needle bearing
4) Jewel bearing
Answer: Jewel bearing
 
Q 45: Stainless steel resist corrosion due to
Options:
1) Carbon
2) Manganese
3) Chromiun
4) Sulphur
Answer: Chromiun
 
Q 46: A barometer is used to measure
Options:
1) Very low pressure
2) Very High Pressure
3) Pressure difference between two points
4) Atmospheric pressure
Answer: Atmospheric pressure
 
Q 47: The household energy meter is
Options:
1) Indicating instrument
2) Recording instrument
3) Integrating instrument
4) Visible instrument
Answer: Integrating instrument
 
Q 48: Magnetic flux density has the dimensions
Options:
1) ML-1T-2
2) M-1L-2T-2
3) ML-3T-2
4) ML-1T-3
Answer: ML-1T-2
 
Q 49: Assertion (A): De sauty’s bridge is suitable only for pure capacitor.
            Reason  (R): Capacitors are mostly perfect.
Options:
1) Both A and R are True and R is correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
3) A is true R is false
4) A is false R is true
Answer: A is true R is false
 
Q 50: A voltmeter using thermocouples measures
Options:
1) RMS value
2) Peak value
3) Average value
4) Peak to peak value
Answer: RMS value

RRB Junior Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)

Q 51: To increase Q factor of a coil, the wire should be
Options:
1) Thin
2) Thick
3) Long
4) Long and thin
Answer: Thick
 
Q 52: The undesirable taste and odours caused by dissolved gases may be removed by
Options:
1) Chemical treatment
2) Aeration
3) Disinfection
4) Reverse osmosis
Answer: Aeration
 
Q 53: The biochemical oxygen demand of treated water should be
Options:
1) Nil
2) Less than 30 mg/l
3) Less than 150 mg/l
4) Always more than 9 mg/l
Answer: Nil
 
Q 54: The function of sluice valve provided in pipe line is
Options:
1) To reduce the chances of population reaching into the pipe
2) To reduce the pressure on pipes
3) To regulate the flow of water through the pipes
4) To allow the air to enter the pipe
Answer: To regulate the flow of water through the pipes
 
Q 55: The source of lead in urban atmosphere is
Options:
1) Bursting of cracker in festive season
2) Road traffic
3) Construction works
4) Small scale industries
Answer: Road traffic
 
Q 56: The noise level decreases with distance following
Options:
1) Inverse square law
2) Power
3) Directly proportional to intensity square
4) Inversely proportional to intensity
Answer: Inverse square law
 
Q 57: The major pollutant that may cause damage to prestigious monument Taj Mahal is
Options:
1) RSPM along with humidity
2) NOx with HC+Ozone
3) SOx with humidity
4) Organic vapours released from Mathura refinery
Answer: SOx with humidity
 
Q 58: Microphone is a(an) ____________
Options:
1) Input device
2) Output device
3) Storage device
4) Both input and output device
Answer: Input device
 
Q 59: Which of the following is a volatile memory ?
Options:
1) Cache memory
2) Hard Disk
3) DVD
4) CD
Answer: Cache memory
 
Q 60: Dynamic RAM (DRAM) is slower than Static RAM (SRAM) because_____________
Options:
1) DRAM uses flip-flops
2) DRAM is costlier
3) DRAM requires refreshing
4) DRAM is cheaper
Answer: DRAM requires refreshing
 
Q 61: UTF-16 is a(an)_________
Options:
1) 8-bit fixed-width encoding
2) 8-bit variable-width encoding
3) 16-bit variable-width encoding
4) 16-bit fixed-width encoding
Answer: 16-bit variable-width encoding
 
Q 62: The hexadecimal representation of (407)s is__________
Options:
1) (107)16
2) (701)16
3) (017)16
4) (710)16
Answer: (107)16
 
Q 63: Considering X and Y as binary variables, the Boolean expression Y + XY is equivalent to
Options:
1) X
2) 1
3) 0
4) Y
Answer: Y
 
Q 64: The 2’s compliment of the binary number (11110000)2 is
Options:
1) (00001111)2
2) (11110000)2
3) (00010000)2
4) (10101010)2
Answer: (00010000)2
 
Q 65: Which of the following category of viruses does not replicate themselves ?
Options:
1) Worms
2) Trojan horses
3) Boot sector viruses
4) Marco viruses
Answer: Trojan horses
 
Q 66: In class ‘B’ IP addresses, number of network ID bits used to identify the class is________
Options:
1) 0
2) 1
3) 2
4) 3
Answer: 2
 
Q 67: Which of the following categories of networks has largest geographic area ?
Options:
1) WAN
2) PAN
3) LAN
4) MAN
Answer: WAN
 
Q 68: the front view and top view of a line both lie above the XY line. The line is located in:
Options:
1) First Quadrant   
2) Second Quadrant    
3) Third Quadrant    
4) Fourth Quadrant 
Answer:  Second Quadrant     
 
Q 69: If the nominal diameter of a bolt is “D”, then the width of the hexagonal nut across flat surface is empirically given as:
Options:
1) D
2) 1.5 x D
3) 1.5 x D + 3mm
4) 1.5 x D + 5mm
Answer: 1.5 x D + 3mm
 
Q 70: A vernier scale is good enough to read in ———after decimal.
Options:
1) One digit
2) Two digits
3) Three digits
4) Four digits
Answer: Two digits
 
Q 71: A sectioning plane cuts a cone such that it is inclined to cone axis at an angle other than 90o and it cuts all its generators. The section so cut is.
Options:
1) Rectangular Hyperbola
2) A parabola
3) A Hyperbola
4) An ellipse
Answer: An ellipse
 
Q 72: An Isometric projection is a:
Options:
1) 2D view
2) 3D view
3) 2.5D view
4) Perspective view
Answer: 2D view
 
Q 73: Which of the following is a unit of momentum ?
Options:
1) N m
2) Kg m s-1
3) Kg m s-2
4) Kg m-2
Answer: Kg m s-1
 
Q 74: A ball is thrown vertically upward with a velocity of 19.6 m/s. The maximum height it attains is
    (g=9.8 m/s2)
Options:
1) 4.9 m
2) 9.8 m
3) 19.6 m
4) 39.2 m
Answer: 19.6 m
 
Q 75: A 10 kg box is placed at a height h above the ground. The potential energy of the box is 980 J. The value of h is (g = 9.8 m/s2)
Options:
1) 10 m
2) 20 m
3) 98 m
4) 49 m
Answer: 10 m

RRB Junior Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)

Q 76: A source produces sound waves under water. Waves travel through water and some of it is transmitted into air. Which of the following statements about the frequency f and wavelength λ is correct as sound passes from water to air ?
Options:
1) f and λ remain unchanged
2) f increases but λ decreases
3) f remains unchanged but λ increases
4) f remains unchanged but λ decreases.
Answer: f remains unchanged but λ decreases.
 
Q 77: A light ray from air enters and passes through a glass slab. Which of the following statements is true about its speed after it emerges from the block ?
Options:
1) Speed is same as that before it entered glass slab
2) Speed is same as that in glass slab
3) Speed is less than when in glass slab
4) Speed is less than before it entered glass slab.
Answer: Speed is same as that before it entered glass slab
 
Q 78: Two resistors A and B are connected in parallel across a 3.0 V battery. The current through B is Found to be 0.25 A. When the two resistors are connected in series to the same battery, the voltage across resistor A is found to be 1.0 V. Resistance of A and B are, respectively
Options:
1) 6 Ω, 12 Ω
2) 9 Ω, 12 Ω
3) 3 Ω, 6 Ω
4) 12 Ω, 24 Ω
Answer: 6 Ω, 12 Ω
 
Q 79: Which among the following is a displacement reaction ?
Options:
1) CaCO3    —— CaO + CO2
2) 2H2 + O2  —— 2H2O
3) Pb + CuCl2   —— PbCl2  +  Cu
4) C2H4 + H2  —– C2H6
Answer: Pb + CuCl2   —— PbCl2  +  Cu
 
Q 80: What is the mass of a molecule of nitrogen ?
Options:
1) 14 u
2) 28 u
3) 14 / 6.023 x 1023
4) 28 / 6.023 x 1023
Answer: 28 / 6.023 x 1023
 
Q 81: A metal forms an amphoteric oxide on reaction with oxygen. The metal is
Options:
1) Al
2) Na
3) Cu
4) Fe
Answer: Al
 
Q 82: A hydrocarbon contains one carbon-carbon single bond, one carbon-carbon double bond and one carbon-carbon triple bond. What is its molecular formula ?
Options:
1) C4H4
2) C4H6
3) C4H8
4) C4H10
Answer: C4H4
 
Q 83: Which of the following are correct for the reaction
  H2SO4 + 2NaOH     —–   Na2SO4 + 2H2O
It is

  1. i) An endothermic reaction
  2. ii) An exothermic reaction

iii) A neutralization reaction

  1. iv) A combination reaction

Options:
1) (i) & (iii)
2) (ii) & (iii)
3) (ii) & (iv)
4) (iii) & (iv)
Answer: (ii) & (iii)
 
Q 84: The electronic configuration of an element is 2,7. In which group of the modern periodic table is this element placed ?
Options:
1) 7
2) 9
3) 15
4) 1
Answer: 1
 
Q 85: The hormone secreted by the human ovary is
Options:
1) FSH
2) LH
3) Estrogen
4) Testosterone
Answer: Estrogen
 
Q 86: Colour blindness is due to a defective gene on
Options:
1) X Chromosome
2) Y Chromosome
3) First pair of Autosomes
4) Last Pair of Autosomes
Answer: X Chromosome
 
Q 87: Mushrooms and Yeast are
Options:
1) Lower Plants
2) Seedless plants
3) Fungi
4) Microorganism
Answer: Fungi
 
Q 88: The end product of Photosynthesis is a
Options:
1) Carbohydrate
2) Protein
3) Lipid
4) Steroid
Answer: Carbohydrate
 
Q 89: When fertilizers as nutrients flow from fields into an adjacent pond, algae bloom and cover the surface but fish in the pond die because
Options:
1) Algae use up all the Oxygen
2) Algae die and decompose and poison the pond
3) Fish do not get any nutrients
4) Fish do not get any sunlight
Answer: Algae use up all the Oxygen
 
Q 90: Select the correct statement
Options:
1) Lizarda lay eggs but crocodiles give birth to babies
2) Birds lay eggs but bats give birth to babies
3) Both bats and birds lay eggs
4) Tortoises and crocodiles give birth to babies
Answer: Lizarda lay eggs but crocodiles give birth to babies
 
Q 91: The HCF and LCM of 24 and 36 are respectively
Options:
1) 12, 36
2) 24, 72
3) 12, 72
4) 36, 72
Answer: 12, 72
 
Q 92: The least number which when divided by 15 and 18 leaving reminder 6 in each case is
Options:
1) 84
2) 96
3) 264
4) 276
Answer: 96
 
Q 93: If a : b = 5 : 6 and a + b = 220, then a is equal to
Options:
1) 100
2) 120
3) 130
4) 140
Answer: 100
 
Q 94: If 4, x, 2x, 32 are in proportion, then x is equal to
Options:
1) 8√2
2) 8
3) 16
4) 16√2
Answer: 8
 
Q 95: If 15% of a number is 9, then number is
Options:
1) 30
2) 45
3) 60
4) 75
Answer: 60
 
Q 96: The simple interest on Rs.300 for 3.5 years, at 6% per annum is
Options:
1) Rs.45
2) Rs.50
3) Rs.53
4) Rs.63
Answer: Rs.63
 
Q 97: Compound interest on Rs.1000 for 3 years compound annually at 10% per annum is
Options:
1) Rs.331
2) Rs.300
3) Rs.1300
4) Rs.1331
Answer: Rs.331
 
Q 98: The cost price of an article is Rs.260. If is sold at profit of 10%, then selling price is
Options:
1) Rs.234
2) Rs.286
3) Rs.334
4) Rs.386
Answer: Rs.286
 
Q 99: The selling price of an article is Rs.648. If it was sold at a profit of 8%, the cost price of the article was
Options:
1) Rs.500
2) Rs.550
3) Rs.600
4) Rs.630
Answer: Rs.600
 
Q 100: A shopkeeper mixes 30 kg of wheat which cost him Rs.16/kg with 20 kg of wheat which cost him Rs.18/kg. He sells the mixture at Rs.20/kg. His gain is
Options:
1) Rs.260
2) Rs.220
3) Rs.180
4) Rs.160
Answer: Rs.160

RRB Junior Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)

Q 101: Two vessels A and B, spirit and water are in the ratio 7:2 and 7:4 respectively. The ratio in which these are mixed which contains spirit and water in the ratio 2:1 is
Options:
1) 3:11
2) 11:3
3) 2:7
4) 7:2
Answer: 3:11
 
Q 102: A person cycles at the speed of 36km/h. The time taken by him in seconds, to cover a distance of 1500 m is
Options:
1) 160
2) 150
3) 120
4) 90
Answer: 150
 
Q 103: A train is moving at a speed of 72 km/h. In 5 seconds it will cover a distance of
Options:
1) 60 m
2) 80 m
3) 100 m
4) 120 m
Answer: 100 m
 
Q 104: A can do a piece of work in 30 days and B can do same work in 20 days. If they work together, in how many days they can complete the same work ?
Options:
1) 10
2) 12
3) 15
4) 16
Answer: 12
 
Q 105: P and Q can do a piece work in 5 days, Q and R in 12 days and R and P in 20 days. The number of days required for R to complete the same work is
Options:
1) 60
2) 50
3) 30
4) 20
Answer: 30
 
Q 106: the average of first 5 odd prime numbers is
Options:
1) 5.4
2) 5.8
3) 6.8
4) 7.8
Answer: 7.8
 
Q 107: The average of 18 observations is 30 and average of 22 observations is 40. The average of all combined observation is
Options:
1) 35.5
2) 35
3) 36
4) 36.5
Answer: 35.5
 
Q 108: The sum of first 20 terms of the AP
5, 9, 13, 17,…….., is
Options:
1) 850
2) 840
3) 820
4) 860
Answer: 860
 
Q 109: The sum of infinite GP 5,1,1/5, 1/52,….., is
Options:
1) 25/4
2) 28/5
3) 29/4
4) 29/5
Answer: 25/4
 
Q 110: A vertical pole is tied with a string of length 20m on the ground. If string makes an angle of 60o with the ground, the length of pole is
Options:
1) 10 m
2) 10√3 m
3) 10√3 / 3 m
4) 20 m
Answer: 10√3 m
 
Q 111: The angle of elevation of top of a tower, 30m high, from two points on opposite side of the tower are respectively 60o and 45o. If the point and tower are in same line, the distance between two points is
Options:
1) 40√3 m
2) 10(3+√3)m
3) 20(√3-1)m
4) 20(3-√3) m
Answer: 10(3+√3)m
 
Q 112: If (x+1) is a factor of x4-2ax3+x2-4, then a is equal to
Options:
1) -1
2) 2
3) 1
4) -2
Answer: 2
 
Q 113: One of the factor of (5x-7y)3 – (3y-4x)3 is
Options:
1) (x-10y)
2) (x-4y)
3) (9x+4y)
4) (9x-10y)
Answer: (9x-10y)
 
Q 114: The value of k for which 3x2-2x+3k=0 has equal roots is
Options:
1) 1/9
2) 9
3) 1/18
4) 18
Answer: 1/9
 
Q 115: The sum of squares of the roots of the equations x2-5x-6=0 is
Options:
1) 26
2) 30
3) 35
4) 37
Answer: 37
 
Q 116: Which one of the following animals was not represented on seals and terracotta art of the Harappan culture
Options:
1) Cow
2) Elephant
3) Rhinoceros
4) Tiger
Answer: Cow
 
Q 117: A “Forgotten Empire”, written by the renowned historian Robert Sewell is about which of the following Empires
Options:
1) Mauryan Empire
2) Kushan Empire
3) Vijaynagar Empire
4) Mughal Empire
Answer: Vijaynagar Empire
 
Q 118: During whose Viceroyship did the High Court came into existence at the three presidential cities of Calcutta, Madras and Bombay
Options:
1) Warren Hastings
2) Lord Cornwallis
3) John Lawrence
4) Lord Dalhousie
Answer: John Lawrence
 
Q 119: The Eastern and Western Ghats meet at the
Options:
1) Cardamom Hills
2) Annamalai Hills
3) Nilgiri Hills
4) Palani Hills
Answer: Nilgiri Hills
 
Q 120: Match List 1 with List 2 and select the correct answer from the codes given below in the list

List 1(State) List 2 (Emblem)
A. Zoji La Pass 1. Sikkim
B. Bara Lacha Pass 2. Uttarakhand
C. Jelep La Pass 3. Himachal Pradesh
D. Niti Pass 4. Jammu and Kashmir

 
Options:
1) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
2) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
3) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
4) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
Answer: A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
 
Q 121: the Karakoram highway connects which of the following pair of countries
Options:
1) India-Nepal
2) India-China
3) India-Pakistan
4) China-Pakistan
Answer: China-Pakistan
 
Q 122: On raising the temperature of the medium, velocity of light
Options:
1) Increases
2) Decreases
3) Remains the same
4) Suddenly decreases
Answer: Increases
 
Q 123: Which of the following is a paramagnetic
Options:
1) Nickel
2) Cobalt
3) Chromium
4) Copper
Answer: Chromium
 
Q 124: If the length of a simple pendulum increases by 4%, then its time period will be
Options:
1) Increased by 3%
2) Increased by 4%
3) Increased by 2%
4) Increased by 8%
Answer: Increased by 2%
 
Q 125: The Indian legislature was made bi-cameral for the first time by
Options:
1) Indian Council Act 1892
2) Indian Council Act 1909
3) The Government of India Act 1919
4) The Government of India Act 1935
Answer: The Government of India Act 1919

RRB Junior Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)

Q 126: Recommendations to the president of India on the specific Union state fiscal relations are made by the-
Options:
1) Finance Minister
2) Reserve Bank of India
3) Planning commission
4) Finance Commission
Answer: Finance Commission
 
Q 127: Who had estimated National income in India first
Options:
1) Dadabhai Naoroji
2) R.C. Dutt
3) M.G. Ranade
4) W.Hunter
Answer: Dadabhai Naoroji
 
Q 128: Match the Dams and the States in which they are situated

List-1 (Dam) List-2 (State)
A. Tungabhadra 1. Kerala
B. Lower bhawani 2. Andhra Pradesh
C. Idukki 3. Tamil Nadu
D. Nagarjuna Sagar 4. Karnataka

 
Options:
1) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
2) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
3) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
4) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
Answer: A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
 
Q 129: Which one of the following was the Chairman of the Committee on Pricing and Taxation of Petroleum products
Options:
1) Raja. J.Chelliah
2) C. Rangrajan
3) Y.V. Reddy
4) Abid Hussain
Answer: C. Rangrajan
 
Q 130: The first Commonwealth Games were held in the year 1930 at
Options:
1) London (UK)
2) Sydney (Australia)
3) Hamilton (Canada)
4) Auckland (New Zealand)
Answer: Hamilton (Canada)
 
Q 131: Which of the following is currently matched
Options:
1) Nehru trophy – Table tennis
2) Holkar trophy – Bridge
3) Ruia trophy- Kabaddi
4) B.C. Roy Trophy-Lawn Tennis
Answer: Holkar trophy – Bridge
 
Q 132: The disease Athlere foot is caused by
Options:
1) Bacteria
2) Fungi
3) Protozoa
4) Nematod
Answer: Fungi
 
Q 133: Which one of the following is not obtain from stem ?
Options:
1) Sunhemp
2) Jute
3) Hemp
4) Cotton
Answer: Cotton
 
Q 134: Plant which grow in saline soil are
Options:
1) Xerophytes
2) Hydrophytes
3) Halophytes
4) Succulents
Answer: Halophytes
 
Q 135: What are the type of bonds present in CuSO4. 5H2O
Options:
1) Electrovalent and covalent
2) Electrovalent and co-ordinate
3) Electrovalent, Covalent, Co-ordinate and hydrogen bond
4) Covalent and co-ordinate covalent
Answer: Electrovalent, Covalent, Co-ordinate and hydrogen bond
 
Q 136: Match List-1 with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given the lists

List- I List – II
A. Blue vitriol 1. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Epsom salt 2. Sodium hydroxide
C. Baking soda 3. Magnesium sulphate
D. Caustic soda 4. Copper sulphate

 
Options:
1) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
2) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
3) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
4) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
Answer: A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
 
Q 137: Which one of the following is not an essential micronutrient for plants ?
Options:
1) Boron
2) Zinc
3) Sodium
4) Copper
Answer: Sodium
 
Q 138: A renowned hindi poet who received the sahitya Akedemi award for his work ‘Hawa mein hastakshar’ passed away on April 1, 2015 is
Options:
1) Ajit kumar
2) Kailash Vajpayi
3) Harishankar Parsai
4) Ravindra Kalia
Answer: Kailash Vajpayi
 
Q 139: The 99th constitution Amendment Act was in news recently, It is related to
Options:
1) National Judicial Appointments commission
2) Right to work
3) Reservation of women in police services
4) Police action in Naxal-prone areas.
Answer: National Judicial Appointments commission
 
Q 140: Who has been declared the best actor and the best actress at the 62nd national film awards announced on march 24, 2014 in new Delhi ?
Options:
1) Sanjari Vijay & kangana Ranaut
2) Sanjari Vijay & Baljinder kaur
3) Bobby simhaa & Kangana ranaut
4) Bobby simhaa & Baljinder kaur
Answer: Sanjari Vijay & kangana Ranaut
 
Q 141: B is the brother of A, who is the father of D. C is the brother of D. D and E are sisters. How is B related to E ?
Options:
1) Uncle
2) Brother
3) Father
4) Grandfather
Answer: Uncle
 
Q 142: The first two numbers on the left of the sign ‘::’ are related in a certain way. The same relationship holds for the second pair of numbers on the right side of the sign ‘::’ of which one is missing. Find the missing one from the alternatives.
    4623 : 2814 :: 6531 😕
Options:
1) 3546
2) 4813
3) 3268
4) 3462
Answer: 3462
 
Q 143: ‘Cat’ is related to ‘Kitten’ in the same way as ‘Lion’ is related to:
Options:
1) Puppy
2) Cub
3) Lioness
4) Animal
Answer: Cub
 
Q 144: Six persons are sitting in a row. F is to the left of E and right of B. There are 2 persons between E and D and 1 person between A and E. If A is at one of the extremes, who is at the other extreme ?
Options:
1) E
2) C
3) B
4) D
Answer: D
 
Q 145: Arrange the following words in a meaningful logical sequence and choose the appropriate number sequence from the alternatives.

  1. Doctor 2. Medicine 3. Hospital  4. Diagnosis  5. Cure  6. Fever

Options:
1) 6, 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
2) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1, 6
3) 6, 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
4) 6, 3, 4, 1, 2, 5
Answer: 6, 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
 
Q 146: One term in the following number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
  220, 108, 54, 24, 10, 3
Options:
1) 108
2) 54
3) 24
4) 10
Answer: 54
 
Q 147: If MOST is coded as 5926 and TRUE is coded as 6814, then SORE will be coded as:
Options:
1) 2948
2) 4892
3) 9248
4) 2984
Answer: 2984
 
Q 148: If ‘HARMONY’ is coded as ‘YHANORM’, then ‘EXPLAIN’ would be coded as:
Options:
1) NEXIPAL
2) LPXENIA
3) NEXIAPL
4) NEIXAPL
Answer: NEXIAPL
 
Q 149: A boy walked Southwards, turned right and walked 3 km. Then he turned left and walked 1 km. If he is 5 km from his starting point, how far did he walk southwards initially ?
Options:
1) 3 km
2) 1 km
3) 4 km
4) 2 km
Answer: 3 km
 
Q 150: The numbers in the following figure follow a pattern. Which number would  replace the question mark ?
pattern reasoning
Options:
1) 27
2) 29
3) 31
4) 48
Answer: 29

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