RRB JE Exam
Exam Duration: 120
Number of Questions: 150
Total Marks: 150
Correct: 1 mark
Wrong: 0.33 Negative marks
#rrbjeexam
Q 1: Work done in a free expansion process is
Options:
1) Zero
2) Positive
3) Negative
4) Maximum
Answer: Zero
Q 2: The internal energy of an ideal gas is
Options:
1) A function of temperature only
2) A function of pressure
3) A function of volume
4) Both pressure and volume
Answer: A function of temperature only
Q 3: The process in which no heat enters or leaves the system is called
Options:
1) Isobaric
2) Isothermal
3) Isentropic
4) Isochoric
Answer: Isentropic
Q 4: Ignition quality of diesel fuel is indicated by
Options:
1) Octane number
2) Cetane number
3) Raynolds number
4) Mach number
Answer: Cetane number
Q 5: In spark ignition engine, fuel used is
Options:
1) Diesel
2) Petrol
3) Kerosene
4) Both Diesel and Kerosene
Answer: Petrol
Q 6: The heat flow through solids only by
Options:
1) Conduction
2) Convection
3) Radiation
4) Does not flow
Answer: Conduction
Q 7: A perfect black body is
Options:
1) One which absorbs total radiant energy
2) Black in colour
3) One which does not reflect the radiant energy
4) One which absorbs all radiant energy at all wavelengths
Answer: One which absorbs all radiant energy at all wavelengths
Q 8: Weld spatter is a welding defect due to
Options:
1) Lack of flux
2) High welding current
3) High welding speed
4) Dirty metal surface
Answer: High welding current
Q 9: During arc welding, eyes need to be protected against
Options:
1) Intense glare
2) Microwave
3) High frequency waves
4) Ultraviolet and infrared radiation
Answer: Ultraviolet and infrared radiation
Q 10: Lathe bed is usually made of
Options:
1) Mild steel
2) Cast iron
3) High speed steel
4) Alloy steel
Answer: Cast Iron
Q 11: Extrusion is the process of
Options:
1) Producing holes by arc
2) Metal shaping on presses
3) Pushing the heated billet of metal through the orifice
4) Welding two dissimilar metals
Answer: Pushing the heated billet of metal through the orifice
Q 12: A third flask sometimes used between cope and drag is called
Options:
1) Middle
2) Core
3) Fillet
4) Cheek
Answer: Cheek
Q 13: Gears in mass producing is produced by
Options:
1) Milling
2) Shaping
3) Hobbing
4) Forming
Answer: Hobbing
Q 14: Scab is a
Options:
1) Sand casting defect
2) Machining defect
3) Welding defect
4) Forging defect
Answer: Sand casting defect
Q 15: The following symbol depicts
Options:
1) Relay
2) Lightning arrester
3) Fuse
4) Circuit Breaker
Answer: Fuse
Q 16: Thermal relay works on the principle of
Options:
1) Heating effect of current
2) Flow of current in the circuit
3) Ohm’s Law
4) Electromagnetic Induction
Answer: Heating effect of current
Q 17: Which of the following is not a part of a DC machine ?
Options:
1) Stabilizer
2) Stator
3) Commutator
4) Armature
Answer: Stabilizer
Q 18: The type of transformer used in a Stabilizer is
Options:
1) Power Transformer
2) Auto Transformer
3) Current Transformer
4) Distribution Transformer
Answer: Auto Transformer
Q 19: Safety relay used in a transformer acts as
Options:
1) Temperature Gauge
2) Explosion Vent
3) Buchholz Relay
4) Earthing Point
Answer: Buchholz Relay
Q 20: The value of slip of an induction motor at synchronous speed is
Options:
1) Zero
2) Infinite
3) Unity
4) Cannot be determined
Answer: Zero
Q 21: The motor used in electrical shaving machines is
Options:
1) Universal motor
2) Shaded pole motor
3) Capacitor motor
4) Reluctance motor
Answer: Universal motor
Q 22: Economiser used in power plants is used to heat
Options:
1) Flue gases
2) Intake air
3) Steam
4) Feed water
Answer: Feed water
Q 23: Which of the following is a high head turbine
Options:
1) Propeller turbine
2) Francis turbine
3) Kaplan turbine
4) Pelton wheel turbine
Answer: Pelton wheel turbine
Q 24: A 4 ohm resistor is connected in a circuit containing 4 V supply. The current drawn is
span style=”color: #000000; font-size: 10pt;”>Options:
1) 8 A
2) 4 A
3) 1 A
4) 16 A
Answer: 1 A
Q 25: Which of the following rectifiers can withstand maximum voltage on DC side
Options:
1) Mercury bulb rectifier
2) Glass bulb rectifier
3) Steel tank rectifier
4) Varactor diode
Answer: Steel tank rectifier
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Q 26: In arc rectifier, the drop in voltage at the cathode is approximately
Options:
1) 1 volt
2) 6 to 7 volts
3) 60 to 70 volts
4) 1.2 to 7 volts
Answer: 6 to 7 volts
Q 27: Which one of the following converts sound waves into AF signals
Options:
1) Loudspeaker
2) Antenna
3) Rectifier
4) Microphone
Answer: Microphone
Q 28: Which one of the following gives noiseless reception
Options:
1) Amplitude modulation
2) Phase modulation
3) Frequency modulation
4) Amplitude or phase modulation
Answer: Frequency modulation
Q 29: The basic logic gate whose output is the complement of the input is
Options:
1) OR gate
2) AND gate
3) INVERTER gate
4) XOR gate
Answer: INVERTER gate
Q 30: The most commonly used semiconductor material is
Options:
1) Silicon
2) Carbon
3) Germanium
4) Phosphorus
Answer: Silicon
Q 31: For a P-N junction diode, the current in reverse bias may be
Options:
1) Few amperes
2) Few milliamperes
3) Between 0.5 A to 1 A
4) Few microamperes to nanoamperes
Answer: Few microamperes to nanoamperes
Q 32: A full wave bridge rectifier is supplied voltage at 50 Hz. The lowest ripple frequency will be
Options:
1) 400 Hz
2) 200 Hz
3) 100 Hz
4) 50 Hz
Answer: 100 Hz
Q 33: Identify the following logic gate
Options:
1) AND gate
2) OR gate
3) NAND gate
4) NOT gate
Answer: NAND gate
Q 34: The forbidden energy gap for germanium is
Options:
1) 0.12 eV
2) 0.72 eV
3) 1.11 eV
4) 1.52 eV
Answer: 0.72 eV
Q 35: The term nominal stress in stress-strain curve for mild steel implies
Options:
1) Average stress
2) Actual stress
3) Yield stress
4) Stress at necking
Answer: Average stress
Q 36: Inorganic soil with low compressibility is represented by
Options:
1) MH
2) SL
3) ML
4) CH
Answer: ML
Q 37: Minimum grade of concrete to be used in reinforced concrete is
Options:
1) M 10
2) M 15
3) M 20
4) M 25
Answer: M 20
Q 38: Which one of following is a compression member ?
Options:
1) Purlin
2) Boom
3) Girt
4) Tie
Answer: Boom
Q 39: Absolute pressure in flow system
Options:
1) Is always above local atmospheric pressure
2) Is equal to a vacuum pressure
3) May be above or equal to the local atmospheric pressure
4) Is also called negative pressure
Answer: May be above or equal to the local atmospheric pressure
Q 40: Gantt charts indicate
Options:
1) Comparison of actual progress with the scheduled progress
2) Balance of work to be done
3) Progressive cost of project
4) Inventory costs
Answer: Comparison of actual progress with the scheduled progress
Q 41: As per Indian Standard specifications, concrete is designed into
Options:
1) 3 grades
2) 5 grades
3) 7 grades
4) 10 grades
Answer: 7 grades
Q 42: First class timber has an average life of
Options:
1) Less than one year
2) 1 to 5 years
3) 5 to 10 years
4) More than 10 years
Answer: 5 to 10 years
Q 43: Equation of continuity is based on the principle of conservation of
Options:
1) Mass
2) Energy
3) Momentum
4) Time
Answer: Mass
Q 44: The instrument used for accurate centering in plane table survey is
Options:
1) Spirit level
2) Alidade
3) Plumbing fork
4) Through compass
Answer: Plumbing fork
Q 45: A series of closely spaced contour lines represents a
Options:
1) Steep slope
2) Gentle slope
3) Uniform slope
4) Plane surface
Answer: Steep slope
Q 46: After storage, the strength of cement
Options:
1) Decreases
2) Increases
3) Remains same
4) May increase or decrease
Answer: Decreases
Q 47: The pointer of an indicating instrument should be
Options:
1) Very light
2) Very heavy
3) Either light or heavy
4) Neither light nor heavy
Answer: Very light
Q 48: In majority of Instruments, damping is provided by
Options:
1) Fluid friction
2) Spring
3) Eddy currents
4) Both spring and fluid friction
Answer: Eddy currents
Q 49: An ammeter is a
Options:
1) Secondary instrument
2) Absolute instrument
3) Recording Instrument
4) Integrating instrument
Answer: Secondary instrument
Q 50: The function of shunt in an ammeter is to
Options:
1) By pass the current
2) Increase the sensitivity of the ammeter
3) Increase the resistance ammeter
4) Either increasing sensitivity of ammeter or by passing current
Answer: By pass the current
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Q 51: The multiplier and the meter coil in a voltmeter are in
Options:
1) Series
2) Parallel
3) Series-parallel
4) Bi-junction mode
Answer: Series
Q 52: The value of peak factor considered in the estimation of water demand for the population of 1,00,00 is
Options:
1) 2.25
2) 2.50
3) 2.75
4) 3.00
Answer: 2.50
Q 53: A water borne disease may be controlled by
Options:
1) Disinfection of water
2) Sterilization of water
3) Demineralization of water
4) Desalination of water
Answer: Disinfection of water
Q 54: The colour in water is determined using instrument called
Options:
1) Spectrophotometer
2) Photometer
span style=”color: #000000; font-size: 10pt;”>3) Tintometer
4) Atomic adsorption spectrophotometer
Answer: Tintometer
Q 55: The high concentration level of ozone affect the vegetation and the colour of the affected part of leaf becomes
Options:
1) Silver
2) Black
3) Colourless
4) Brown
Answer: Silver
Q 56: The unit of sound pressure level, dBA is defined as
Options:
1) Summation of measured and reference sound pressure level
2) Ratio of measured to reference sound pressure levels
3) Ratio of measured to reference sound pressure levels in logarithmic scale
4) Product of measured to reference sound pressure levels
Answer: Ratio of measured to reference sound pressure levels in logarithmic scale
Q 57: The presence of ozone is considered to be boon for humanity in
Options:
1) Troposphere
span style=”color: #000000; font-size: 10pt;”>2) Stratosphere
3) Mesosphere
4) Ionosphere
Answer: Stratosphere
Q 58: Joystick is a(an)_________
Options:
1) Input device
2) Output device
3) Storage device
4) Both input and output device
Answer: Input device
Q 59: Which of the following is not true about ache emory ?
Options:
1) Faster memory than RAM
2) Volatile memory
3) Smaller in size than RAM
4) Sequential access memory
Answer: Sequential access memory
Q 60: Which of the following statement is not true ?
Options:
1) Data bus is bidirectional
2) Address bus is bidirectional
3) Address bus is unidirectional
4) Same data bus is used for both read and write operations
Answer: Address bus is bidirectional
Q 61: EBCDIC coding scheme uses________bits to code different characters.
Options:
1) 4
2) 8
3) 16
4) 32
Answer: 8
Q 62: The hexadecimal representation of 125.25 is___________
Options:
1) (7D.40)16
2) (7D.04)16
3) (D7.40)16
4) (D7.04)16
Answer: (7D.40)16
Q 63: Considering X as a binary variable, the Boolean expression X. X’ is equivalent to
Options:
1) X
2) 1
3) 0
4) X’
Answer: 0
Q 64: The 2’s compliment of the binary number (10101010)2 is
Options:
1) (10000000)2
2) (00000000)2
3) (01010110)2
4) (10101010)2
Answer: (01010110)2
Q 65: A programming language which enables a programmer to write programs that are more or less independent of a particular type of computer is called_______
Options:
1) Assembly language
2) Machine language
3) Lowlevel language
4) High-level language
Answer: High-level language
Q 66: Class ‘C’ IP addresses use________bits for Network ID.
Options:
1) 8
2) 16
3) 24
4) 32
Answer: 24
Q 67: W3C stands for________
Options:
1) World Wide Web Consortium
2) World wide web community
3) World wide Websites Consortium
4) World wide websites Community
Answer: World Wide Web Consortium
Q 68: Angle is measured by
Options:
1) Plain scale
2) Comparative scale
3) Scale of chords
4) Diagonal scale
Answer: Scale of chords
Q 69: If a line is parallel to V.P. and inclined to H.P., its true length will be seen in
Options:
1) Side view
2) Top view
3) Both front and top views
4) Front view
Answer: Front view
Q 70: If a circular plane is inclined at 60o with the H.P. and 30o with the V.P., its side view will be
Options:
1) A circle
2) A straight
3) An ellipse
4) true shape
Answer: A straight line
Q 71: The exact value of R.F. on an isometric scale is
Options:
1) 0.815
2) 0.8165
3) (2/3)1/2
4) 9/11
Answer: (2/3)1/2
Q 72: The eccentricity of an ellipse is
Options:
1) =1
2) <1
3) >1
4) =0
Answer: <1
Q 73: A force acting on a body of mass 1.5 kg, Accelerates it from rest to a velocity of 4 m/s
Options:
1) 1.5 kg m/s
2) 3.0 kg m/s
3) 4.5 kg m/s
4) 6.0 kg m/s
Answer: 6.0 kg m/s
Q 74: Let g be the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of Earth. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of Moon is
Options:
1) 6 g
2) g/6
3) g
4) g/3
Answer: g/6
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Q 75: The quantity of work equal to one joule is also equivalent to one
Options:
1) Watt x second
2) Watt / second
3) Watt / second2
4) Watt
Answer: Watt x second
Q 76: A source A frequency f and another source of frequency 2 f are used to produce sound waves in a science Laboratory. Let vA and vB represent the velocity of waves produced by the sources A and B, respectively. Then vA / vB is
Options:
1) 1
2) 2
3) 0.5
4) 4
Answer: 1
Q 77: The size of image formed by a convex lens (focal length f) is equal to the size of the object. The object is placed at a distance
Options:
1) Between f and 2f
2) Greater than 2f
3) 2f
4) Less than f
Q 78: A 1m long metal wire of radius 1 cm has a resistance of 1.6 x 10-4 Ω. The resistivity of the metal is
Options:
1) 5.0 x 10-8 Ω m
2) 1.0 x 10-8 Ω m
3) 1.6 x 10-8 Ω m
4) 3.2 x 10-8 Ω m
Answer: 5.0 x 10-8 Ω m
Q 79: The decreasing order of reactivity of four metals is in the order: Zn > Fe > Cu > Ag. In view of the order of reactivity, which of the following reaction is feasible ?
Options:
1) CuSO4 + 2Ag → Ag2SO4 + 2Ag
2) ZnCl2 + Cu → CuCl2 + Zn
3) 2 AgNO3 + Cu → Cu(NO3)2 + Fe
4) FeSO4 + Cu → CuSO4 + Fe
Answer: 2 AgNO3 + Cu → Cu(NO3)2 + Fe
Q 80: Sodium sulphate dissociates in water as follows:
Na2SO4 = 2 Na+ + SO42-
What is the total number of ions present in the solution containing one mole of dissolved sodium sulphate in water ?
Options:
1) 6.023 x 1023
2) 12.046 x 1046
3) 18.069 x 1069
4) 18.069 x 1023
Answer: 18.069 x 1023
Q 81: Which of the following is an endothermic process ?
Dissolution of
Options:
1) NH4Cl in water
2) NaOH in water
3) Quick line in water
4) Sulphuric acid in water
Answer: NH4Cl in water
Q 82: An organic compound X, molecular mass = 46, undergoes dehydration reaction to yield the compound Y, the first member of olefin homologous series. What is the compound X ?
Options:
1) Aldehyde
2) Alchohol
3) Ester
4) Carboxylic acid
Answer: Alcohol
Q 83: The values of pH of four different solutions of salts W, X, Y, & Z respectively in water are 6.2, 6.5, 6.8 and 7.5 respectively. Which of them is a basic salt ?
Options:
1) W
2) X
3) Y
4) Z
Answer: Z
Q 84: Which one of the following set of elements has the same number of valence electrons ?
Options:
1) Li Be Mg
2) B Al Si
3) Li Na K
4) Li Na Mg
Answer: Li Na K
Q 85: Which part of the leaf makes carbon-dioxide available for photosynthesis ?
Options:
1) Veins
2) Stomate
3) Leaf margin
4) Lower surface of leaf
Answer: Stomata
Q 86: Which one of the following cannot be called an ecosystem ?
Options:
1) Pond
2) Aquarium
3) Swimming Pool
4) Agricultural Field
Answer: Swimming Pool
Q 87: In a food chain who gets the maximum amount of energy ?
Options:
1) Tertiary consumers
2) Secondary consumers
3) Primary consumers
4) Producers
Answer: Producers
Q 88: The gland which secretes enzymes as well as hormones is
Options:
1) Pituitary
2) Thyroid
3) Pancreas
4) Liver
Answer: Pancreas
Q 89: A brown eyed man (BB) married a blue eyed woman (bb). What will be the color of the eyes of their children ? (B gene is dominant, b gene is recessive )
Options:
1) All their children will be brown eyed
2) All will be blue eyed
3) Eye color of all will be a mixture of brown and blue
4) 50% children will have brown eyes and the other 50% will have blue eyes
Answer: All their children will be brown eyed
Q 90: The Indian thali has (A) chapatti or rice (B) dal and (C) green vegetables cooked with very little oil. Which nutrients do A,B, and C have ?
Options:
1) A=Protein, B=Carbohydrates, C=Fat
2) A=Carbohydrates, B=Protein, C=Fat and Vitamins
3) A= Fat, B=Protein, C=Vitamins
4) A=Vitamins, B=Carbohydrates, C=Fat
Answer: A=Carbohydrates, B=Protein, C=Fat and Vitamins
Q 91: The HCF and LCM of 16 and 25 are respectively
Options:
1) 0, 400
2) 1, 400
3) 1, 25
4) 16, 25
Answer: 1, 400
Q 92: The least number which when divided by 8 and 12 leaving reminder 5 in each case is
Options:
1) 19
2) 29
3) 91
4) 101
Answer: 29
Q 93: If a : b = 2 : 3 and a + b = 45, then a is equal to
Options:
1) 27
2) 25
3) 18
4) 9
Answer: 18
Q 94: If 2,x,x2,4 are in proportion, then x is equal to
Options:
1) 2
2) 4
3) 8
4)16
Answer: If 20% of a number is 250, then number is
Q 95: If 20% of a number is 250, then number is
Options:
1) 25
2) 1250
3) 2500
4) 5000
Answer: 1250
Q 96: In how many years Rs.500 will amount to Rs.700 at simple interest of 5% per annum ?
Options:
1) 4
2) 5
3) 6
4) 8
Answer: 8
Q 97: In how many years Rs.2000 will amount to Rs.2100 at 10% per annum compounded half yearly ?
Options:
1) 2
2) 1.5
3) 1
4) 0.5
Answer: 0.5
Q 98: The cost price of an article is Rs.220. If profit is 10%, then selling price of article is
Options:
1) Rs.242
2) Rs.252
3) Rs.200
4) Rs.363
Answer: Rs.242
Q 99: If selling price of an article is Rs.330 and profit is 10%, then cost price of article is
Options:
1) Rs.290
2) Rs.297
3) Rs.300
4) Rs.363
Answer: Rs.300
Q 100: A shopkeeper mixes 10 kg of wheat which cost him Rs.20/kg with 5 kg of wheat which cost him Rs.15/kg. He sells the mixture at Rs.21/kg. His profit is
Options:
1) Rs.40
2) Rs.45
3) Rs.50
4) Rs.55
Answer: Rs.40
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Q 101: In two vessels A and B, sprit and water are in the ratio 2 : 1 and 2 : 3 respectively. The ratio in which these are mixed which contains half water is
Options:
1) 5 : 3
2) 3 : 5
3) 2 : 3
4) 3 : 2
Answer: 3 : 5
Q 102: The speed of a car is 72km/h. The time taken by it to cover a distance of 500 m in seconds is
Options:
1) 20
2) 25
3) 30
4) 40
Answer: 25
Q 103: A train 80 m long is moving with the speed of 45 km/h. The time taken by it in seconds to pass a bridge 120m long is
Options:
1) 8
2) 10
3) 16
4) 20
Answer: 16
Q 104: A and B can do a piece of work in 6 days. A alone can do the same work in 10 days. In how many days B alone, can do the same work ?
Options:
1) 15
2) 8
3) 7
4) 8.5
Answer: 15
Q 105: P and Q can do a piece of work in 15 days, Q and R in 12 days, and R and P in 20 days. The number of days required for Q to do the same work alone is
Options:
1) 60
2) 40
3) 30
4) 20
Answer: 20
Q 106: The average of 4, 6, 0, 3, 6 is
Options:
1) 4.75
2) 4.5
3) 3.8
4) 3.5
Answer: 3.8
Q 107: The average of 20 observations is 18 and average of 30 observations is 25.
The average of all 50 observations is
Options:
1) 21.5
2) 21.8
3) 22.2
4) 22.5
Answer: 22.2
Q 108: Sum of first 20 terms of the AP
-4, -2, 0, 2,……… is
Options:
1) 600
2) 340
3) 300
4) 460
Answer: 300
Q 109: The sum of infinite GP 1, 1/3, 1/9, 1/27, …….is
Options:
1) 5 / 3
2) 3 / 2
3) 4 / 3
4) 3 / 5
Answer: 5 / 3
Q 110: The angle of elevation of top of a tower from a point on the ground 20 m away from the foot of the tower is 60o. The height of tower is
Options:
1) (20√3 / 3) m
2) (40√3 / 3) m
3) 20 m
4) 20√3 m
Answer: (40√3 / 3) m
Q 111: The angles of elevation of top of a tower, 30m high, from two points on opposite side of the tower are 30o and 60o respectively. If the points and tower are in same line, the distance between two points is
Options:
1) 20√3 m
2) 40√3 m
3) 20(√3 + 1) m
4) 20(√3 – 1) m
Answer: 40√3 m
Q 112: If (x – 2) is a factor of x2+2x2-ax+4, then a is equal to
Options:
1) 8
2) – 8
3) – 10
4) 10
Answer: 10
Q 113: One of the factor of (2x + 3y)3 – (5x – 2y)3 is
Options:
1) (7x + y)
2) (7x – y)
3) (3x + 5y)
4) (5y – 3x)
Answer: (5y – 3x)
Q 114: The value of k which x2+5x-2k=0 has equal roots is
Options:
1) 25 / 8
2) – 25 / 8
3) 5 / 2
4) – 5 / 2
Answer: – 25 / 8
Q 115: The sum of squares of the roots of the equation x2+x-2=0 is
Options:
1) 1
2) 2
3) 5
4) 3
Answer: 5
Q 116: In a game of cricket, when the ball bounces more than once before reaching batsman’s side, it is called
Options:
1) Bouncer
2) Yorker
3) Short ball
4) Dead ball
Answer:Dead ball
Q 117: How many points are awarded for one normal basket in a game of basketball ?
Options:
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 2 or 3
Answer: 2 or 3
Q 118: Wires in our homes are made of metal because metals are
Options:
1) Good conductors of electricity
2) Cheap and wires are long
3) Easily available
4) Conveniently covered by insulators
Answer: Good conductors of electricity
Q 119: Who wrote our national song, ‘Vande Mataram’ ?
Options:
1) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
2) Rabindra Nath Tagore
3) Sumitra Nandan Paut
4) Mohan Das Karam Chand Gandhi
Answer: Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
Q 120: What is not true about, “what forces can do” ?
Options:
1) Speed up and slow down
2) Turn and change shape
3) Push and pull
4) Turn but not change direction
Answer: Turn but not change direction
Q 121: How can you know that vinegar is an acid ?
Options:
1) It will turn blue litmus red
2) It will turn red litmus blue
3) Phenolphthalein turns pink when added to vinegar
4) Its pH will be more than 7
Answer: It will turn blue litmus red
Q 122: The majority of Members of Parliament of the present Lok Sabha are from
Options:
1) Bharatiya Janta party
2) Aam Aadmi party
3) Congress
4) Bahujan Samaj party
Answer: Bharatiya Janta party
Q 123: Alcohols are studied in Organic Chemistry because there are
Options:
1) Hydrocarbons
2) Silicon compounds
3) Ring compounds
4) Made C, O, N
Answer: Hydrocarbons
Q 124: When new plants are grown from plant parts other than the flower, it is termed
Options:
1) Multiple Fission
2) Sexual reproduction
3) Vegetative propagation
4) Binary fission
Answer: Vegetative propagation
Q 125: When cell division in the body is out of control, it causes
Options:
1) Fever
2) Cancer
3) Inflammation
4) a and c
Answer: Cancer
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Q 126: Mules which humans use to carry load are unable to breed because
Options:
1) Their parents belong to the same species
2) Their parents belong to different species
3) Reproductive organs are absent in mules
4) Mules are neither female nor male
Answer: Their parents belong to different species
Q 127: What is not true regarding your image. When you see yourself in the plane mirror ?
Options:
1) Image is of the same size as you
2) It is at the same distance behind the mirror as you are infront of it
3) The face, hands and legs are in the same direction in the mirror as yours
4) Your image is laterally inverted in the mirror
Answer: The face, hands and legs are in the same direction in the mirror as yours
Q 128: One of the India’s past presidents was active as a scientist of repute till his death recently. Select his name
Options:
1) Rajendra Prasad
2) Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan
3) A P J Abdul Kalam
4) Pranab Mukherji
Answer: A P J Abdul Kalam
Q 129: The state capital of Haryana and Punjab is
Options:
1) Ambala
2) Chandigarh
3) Chandigarh and Ludhiana respectively
4) Rohtak and Amritsar respectively
Answer: Chandigarh
Q 130: How does deformation cause an increase in greenhouse gases in the atmosphere ?
Options:
1) Trees from a Carbon Sink in the forest when they are cut down
2) All trees cut from forest are burnt down which releases lots of Carbon dioxide
3) Canopy layer of forest prevents leaching and that causes air to have lot of greenhouse gases
4) Deforestation reduce cloud formation and rain which increases collection of greenhouse gases
Answer: Trees from a Carbon Sink in the forest when they are cut down
Q 131: Summer solstice falls on 20th or 21th on this day
Options:
1) Day and night are equal
2) Day is the longest of all days in the year
3) Night is longest of all nights in the year
4) The temperature is usually the highest in the year
Answer: Day is the longest of all days in the year
Q 132: Which out of the following is not correct ?
Options:
1) The Dutch invaded Indonesia
2) The Japanese occupied Singapore during World War II
3) India was colonized by the British for almost two centuries
4) Palestinian territory was never part of Israel
Answer: Palestinian territory was never part of Israel
Q 133: What was the name of the founder of Buddhism, before he renounced the world ?
Options:
1) Gautama
2) Siddhartha
3) Partha
4) Mahaveera
Answer: Siddhartha
Q 134: Which of the following became the greatest landmark in history of mankind as it ushered in an era of liberty, equality and fraternity ?
Options:
1) Spanish Revolution in 1936
2) Russian Revolution in 1971
3) Serbian Revolution in 1804
4) French Revolution in 1789
Answer: French Revolution in 1789
Q 135: Which salt of Calcium is Plaster of Paris ?
Options:
1) Calcium Sulphate
2) Calcium Oxide
3) Calcium Carbonate
4) Calcium Hydroxide
Answer: Calcium Sulphate
Q 136: Dr. Baba Saheb Bhimrao Ambedkar, is regarded as the architect of Indian constitution because, he
Options:
1) Designed the cover page of the document
2) Was elected the president of Constituent Assembly
3) Was the chairman of the Drafting committee
4) a and b
Answer: Was the chairman of the Drafting committee
Q 137: The economic group called “group of seven” (G7) does not include
Options:
1) Canada
2) Germany
3) Japan
4) Netherlands
Answer: Netherlands
Q 138: Comparative advantage and absolute advantage are terms related to
Options:
1) International trade
2) E-commerce
3) Commercial vehicular exchange
4) Movement of commodities within a country
Answer: Movement of commodities within a country
Q 139: The terms of trade measures
Options:
1) The ratio of export prices to import prices
2) Extent of International competitivess
3) Effective exchange rates
4) Nominal exchange rates
Answer: The ratio of export prices to import prices
Q 140: The President of India can declare Emergency under Article 352 on the advice of:
Options:
1) Prime Minister
2) Council of Ministers
3) Governor
4) Cabinet
Answer: Cabinet
Q 141: A boy pointing to a photograph said, “His father is my father’s brother.” How is the person in the photograph related to the boy ?
Options:
1) Cousin
2) Brother
3) Nephew
4) Sister
Answer: Cousin
Q 142: The first two numbers on the lrft of the sign ‘::’ are related in a certain way. The same relationship holds for the second pair of numbers on the side of the sign ‘::’ of which one is missing. Find the missing one from the alternatives.
35 : 16 :: 53 : ?
Options:
1) 61
2) 29
3) 27
4) 25
Answer: 25
Q 143: ‘Botany’ is related to ‘Plants’ in the same way as ‘Anthropology’ is related to:
Options:
1) Archives
2) Culture
3) Rural
4) Events
Answer: Culture
Q 144: C is taller than B, who is shorter than D. D is taller than C. Who is shorter than E. D is shorter than E, who is taller than A.
Who is the tallest of all ?
Options:
1) A
2) C
3) D
4) E
Answer: E
Q 145: Arrange the following words in a meaningful logical sequence and choose the appropriate number sequence from the alternatives.
- Locality 2. State 3. Member 4. Village 5. Nation 6. Family
Options:
1) 3, 6, 1, 4, 2, 5
2) 5, 2, 4, 1, 6, 3
3) 3, 6, 4, 1, 2, 5
4) 3, 6, 4, 2, 1, 5
Answer: 3, 6, 4, 1, 2, 5
Q 146: One term in the following number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
1097, 368, 125, 44, 16, 8, 5
Options:
1) 8
2) 16
3) 44
4) 125
Answer: 16
Q 147: If SIT=66 and ROW=50, then HOPE will be equal to:
Options:
1) 128
2) 88
3) 64
4) 28
Answer: 128
Q 148: If ‘HOSTILE’ is coded as ‘JMURKJG’, then ‘REQUEST’ would be coded as:
Options:
1) TCSSGSV
2) PGPWCUR
3) TCSSGQV
4) TCSWCSV
Answer: TCSSGQV
Q 149: Shovan walked 5 km towards South-west, took a right turn and walked 3 km. Thenhe turned right again and walked 9 km. How far and in which direction is Shovan now with respect to his starting point ?
Options:
1) 4 km North
2) 5 km North
3) 4 km North-East
4) 5 km North-East
Answer: 5 km North
Q 150: The numbers in the following figure follow a pattern. Which number would replace the question mark ?
Options:
1) 25
2) 42
3) 35
4) 49
Answer: 35
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