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Home / Newton Desk / RRB Junior Engineer Exam Paper 2015 Set-3

RRB Junior Engineer Exam Paper 2015 Set-3

RRB Junior Engineer Exam (JE)

Exam Duration:  120
Number of Questions:   150
Total Marks:   150
Correct: 1 mark
Wrong:  0.33 Negative marks

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Q 1: Control volume refers to
Options:
1) A fixed region in space
2) A specified mass
3) An isolated system
4) A reversible process only
Answer: A fixed region in space

Q 2: All of the following are intensive properties EXCEPT
Options:
1) Mass
2) Density
3) Pressure
4) Temperature
Answer: Mass

Q 3: Fourier’s law of heat conduction gives the heat flow for
Options:
1) Irregular surfaces
2) Non-uniform temperature surfaces
3) One dimensional cases only
4) Two dimensional cases only
Answer: One dimensional cases only

Q 4: Absorptivity of a body is equal to its emissivity
Options:
1) For a polished body
2) Under thermal equilibrium
3) At one particular temperature
4) At shorter wave lengths
Answer: Under thermal equilibrium

Q 5: A two stroke engine can be identified by
Options:
1) Cooling system
2) Lubrication system
3) Absence of valves
4) Piston size
Answer: Absence of valves

Q 6: A four stroke, four cylinder SI engine has a swept volume of 450 CC and compression ratio is 8. The clearance volume of each cylinder is equal to
Options:
1) 48 CC
2) 55 CC
3) 65 CC
4) 70 CC
Answer: 65 CC

Q 7: Piston rings are usually made of
Options:
1) Cast iron
2) Aluminium
3) Babbitt
4) Carbon steel
5) Carbon steel
Answer: Cast iron

Q 8: In submerged arc welding, an arc is produced between a
Options:
1) Carbon electrode and the work
2) Metal electrode and the work
3) Bare metal electrode and the work
4) Two tungsten electrodes and the work
Answer: Bare metal electrode and the work

Q 9: Weld spatter is
Options:
1) A flux
2) A filler material used in gas welding
3) A filler material used in soldering
4) A welding defect
Answer: A welding defect

Q 10: Investment casting uses pattern made of
Options:
1) Metal
2) Wood
3) Plastic
4) Wax
Answer: Wax

Q 11: Slag inclusion in casting is a
Options:
1) Internal defect
2) Moulding defect
3) Surface defect
4) Superficial defect
Answer: Surface defect

Q 12: Knurling is an operation
Options:
1) Of cutting smooth collars
2) Of under cutting
3) Done without use of coolant
4) Of generally roughing the surface for hand grip
Answer: Of generally roughing the surface for hand grip

Q 13: The process in which the edge of the sheet is folded over itself to increases the stiffness of the part, is called
Options:
1) Dimpling
2) Hemming
3) Spinning
4) Peen forming
Answer: Hemming

Q 14: The usual value of the helix angle of a drill is
Options:
1) 20o
2) 30o
3) 45o
4) 60o
Answer: 30o

Q 15: Effective resistance of two wires when connected in series and in parallel are 25 ohms and 6 ohms respectively. The resistances of two wires is
Options:
1) 10 ohms and 15 ohms
2) 20 ohms and 30 ohms
3) 5 ohms and 10 ohms
4) 10 ohms and 20 ohms
Answer: 10 ohms and 15 ohms

Q 16: A closed path made by several branches of network is known as
Options:
1) Branch
2) Loop
3) Circuit
4) Junction
Answer: Loop

Q 17: Brushes of DC machine are usually made up of
Options:
1) Carbon
2) Mild steel
3) Cast iron
4) Aluminium
Answer: Carbon

Q 18: Small DC motors having upto 5 H.P. usually have
Options:
1) 2 poles
2) 4 poles
3) 6 poles
4) 8 poles
Answer: 2 poles

Q 19: Humming sound produced in a transformer is usually due to
Options:
1) Load fluctions
2) Oil used in the transformer
3) Magnetostriction
4) Mechanical vibrations
Answer: Magnetostriction

Q 20: Which of the following is a widely used insulating and cooling  transformer liquid ?
Options:
1) Mineral oil
2) Water
3) Heavy water
4) Mercury
Answer: Mineral oil

Q 21: The difference between synchronous speed and actual speed of a motor is called
Options:
1) Lag
2) Regulation
3) Slip
4) Backlash
Answer: Slip

Q 22: Which of the following motor is self starting ?
Options:
1) Split motor
2) Shaded pole motor
3) Reluctance motor
4) Hysterisis motor
Answer: Shaded pole motor

Q 23: Water hammer pressure is relieved by
Options:
1) Penstock
2) Draft tube
3) Turbine
4) Surge tank
Answer: Surge tank

Q 24: TIG Welding stands for
Options:
1) Temperature Insulated Gas Welding
2) Tungsten Inert Gas Welding
3) Thermally Induced Gas Welding
4) Tungsten Insulated Gas Welding
Answer: Tungsten Inert Gas Welding

Q 25: The type of modulation used in the T.V picture transmission is
Options:
1) Amplitude modulation
2) Phase modulation
3) Frequency modulation
4) Modulation is not needed
Answer: Amplitude modulation
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Q 26: The process of extracting the signal from the modulated wave is called
Options:
1) Modulation
2) Detection
3) Amplification
4) Resonance
Answer: Detection

Q 27: An OR gate has 4 inputs. One input is high and the other three are low. The output
Options:
1) Is high
2) Is low
3) Is alternately high and low
4) May be high or low depending on inputs
Answer: Is high

Q 28: Decimal 43 in hexadecimal is
Options:
1) 2B
2) B2
3) 2C
4) C2
Answer: 2B

Q 29: A JFET is
Options:
1) A current controlled device
2) A low input resistance
3) A voltage controlled device
4) Is always forward biased
Answer: A voltage controlled device

Q 30: Which type of gain is achieved using CB configuration
Options:
1) Current
2) Voltage
3) Resistance
4) Power
Answer: Voltage

Q 31: In vaccum diode, emission of electrons happens due to
Options:
1) Electric field
2) Magnetic field
3) Heating
4) Electron bombardment
Answer: Heating

Q 32: Which of the following cannot actually move ?
Options:
1) Free electrons
2) Ions
3) Holes
4) Majority careers
Answer: Ions

Q 33: The mean value of half wave rectified sine wave is
Options:
1) 0.707 
2) 0.637
3) 0.5
4) 0.318
Answer: 0.318

Q 34: A silicon controlled rectifier is a
Options:
1) Unijunction device
2) Device with two junctions
3) Device with three junctions
span style=”color: #000000; font-size: 10pt;”>4) Device with four junctions
Answer: Device with three junctions

Q 35: The unit of elastic modulus is the same as those of
Options:
1) Stress, shear modulus and pressure
2) Strain, shear modulus and force
3) Shear modulus, stress and force
4) Stress, strain and pressure
Answer: Stress, shear modulus and pressure

Q 36: Relative density of a compacted dense sand is approximately equal  to
Options:
1) 0.4
2) 0.95
3) 0.50
4) 1.10
Answer: 0.95

Q 37: Which one of the following is the mode of failure in a fillet weld material ?
Options:
1) Tension
2) Shear
3) Bearing
4) Crushing
Answer: Shear

Q 38: kinematic viscosity of gases on increase of temperature
Options:
1) Decreases
2) Increases
3) Remains the same
4) First decreases then increases
Answer: Increases

Q 39: Benchmark is established by
Options:
1) Hypsometry
2) Barometric leveling
3) Spirit leveling
4) Trigonometrical leveling
Answer: Spirit leveling

Q 40: A critical path has
Options:
1) Zero float
2) Minimum float
3) Maximum float
4) Infinite float
Answer: Zero float

Q 41: A sample of cement is said to be sound when it does not contain free
Options:
1) Lime
2) Silica
3) Iron oxide
4) Alumina
Answer: Lime

Q 42: The tensile strength of concrete is approximately what percent of compressive strength of concrete
Options:
1) 50%
2) 20%
3)10%
4) 5%
Answer: 10%

Q 43: The type of surveying which requires least office work is
Options:
1) Tacheometry
2) Trigonometrical levelling
3) Plane table surveying
4) Theodolite surveying
Answer: Plane table surveying

Q 44: The eddy viscosity for turbulent flow is
Options:
1) A function of temperature only
2) A physical property of the fluid
3) Dependent on the flow
4) Independent of the flow
Answer: Dependent on the flow

Q 45: The ratio of volume of voids to the total volume of soil mass is called
Options:
1) Air content
2) Porosity
3) Percentage air voids
4) Voids ratio
Answer: Porosity

Q 46: Which is the purest form of Iron ?
Options:
1) Cast Iron
2) Wrought Iron
3) Mild Steel
4) High carbon steel
Answer: Wrought Iron

Q 47: Commonly used instruments in power system measurement are
Options:
1) Induction
2) Moving coil or Iron
3) Rectifier
4) Electrostatic
Answer: Induction

Q 48: Damping of the Ballistic galvanometer is made small to
Options:
1) Get first deflection large
2) Make the system oscillatory
3) make the system critically damped
4) Get minimum overshoot
Answer: Get first deflection large

Q 49: The rectifier instrument is not free from
Options:
1) Temperature error
2) Wave shape error
3) Frequency error
4) Both wave and frequency error
Answer: Frequency error

Q 50: Alternating current is measured by
Options:
1) Induction ammeter
2) Permanent magnet type ammeter
3) Electrostatic ammeter
4) Moving Iron repulsion type voltmeter
Answer: Induction ammeter

RRB Junior Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)

Q 51: Most sensitive Galvanometer is
Options:
1) Elastic Galvanometer
2) Vibration Galvanometer
3) Duddlb Gavanometer
span style=”color: #000000; font-size: 10pt;”>4) Spot ballistic Galvanometer
Answer: Spot ballistic Galvanometer

Q 52: The suspended solids present in surface water can be determined by
Options:
1) Gravimetric test
2) Colourimetric test
3) Titrimetric test
4) Spectrophotometric test
Answer: Gravimetric test

Q 53: The disease caused by mercury is known as
Options:
1) Itai-itai
2) Blue baby disease
3) Minimata
4) Skin disease
Answer: Minimata

Q 54: Length to width ratio of rectangular sedimentation tank should be
Options:
1) 3 : 4
2) 3 : 1
3) 4 : 1
4) 1 : 5
Answer: 3 : 1

Q 55: The average concentration of ozone in troposphere is
Options:
1) 0.3 ppm
2) 0.05 ppm
3) 0.5 ppm
4) 0.1 ppm
Answer: 0.05 ppm

Q 56: A condition of sudden permanent aural damage resulting from an Intense short term exposure of noise is called
Options:
1) Acoustic trauma
2) Annoyance
3) Temporary threshold shift
4) Permanent threshold shift
Answer: Acoustic trauma

Q 57: The acidity in the atmosphere is basically caused due to emission of Sox and NOx. The percentage contribution of Sox and NOx in the formation of acidity is
Options:
1) 80% and 20% respectively
2) 70% and 30% respectively
3) 50% and 50% respectively
4) 60% and 40% respectively
Answer: 70% and 30% respectively

Q 58: Which of the following is not a valid category of impact printers ?
Options:
1) Chain printers
2) Line printers
3) Band printers
4) Ink-jet printers
Answer: Ink-jet printers

Q 59: Which of the following is not true about PROM ?
Options:
1) Random access memory
2) Non-volatile memory
3) Programmable read only memory
4) Sequential access memory
Answer: Sequential access memory

Q 60: Which of the following components of CPU is responsible to direct the system to execute instructions ?
Options:
1) Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU)
2) Control Unit (CU)
3) Registers
4) Random Access Memory (RAM)
Answer: Control Unit (CU)

Q 61: BCD stands for__________
Options:
1) Binary Coded Decimal
2) Binary Code Display
3) Bidirectional Coded Data
4) Binary Coded Data
Answer: Binary Coded Decimal

Q 62: The binary representation of 144.5 is _________
Options:
1) (10010000.01)2
2) (10010001.11)2
3) (10010000.10)2
4) (10011001.11)2
Answer: (10010000.10)2

Q 63: Considering X as a binary variable, the Boolean expression X.O is equivalent to
Options:
1) X
2) 1
3) 0
4) X’
Answer: 0

Q 64: The 2’s compliment of the binary number (10000000)2
Options:
1) (01111111)2
2) (10101010)2
3) (10000000)2
4) (01010101)2
Answer: (10000000)2

Q 65: Linux is a/an_________
Options:
1) Application software
2) I word Processor
3) Database management system
4) System software
Answer: System software

Q 66: Class ‘B’ IP addresses use________bits for Host ID.
Options:
1) 8
2) 16
3) 24
4) 32
Answer: 16

Q 67: Which of the following is not a Web browser ?
Options:
1) Netscape Navigator
2) Safari
3) HTML
4) Chrome
Answer: HTML

Q 68: The meaning of R.F. is
Options:
1) Reducing fraction
2) Representative fraction
3) Reduction factor
4) Representative factor
Answer: Representative fraction

Q 69: If a line parallel to both H.P. and V.P., its true length will be seen in
Options:
1) Both front and top views
2) Only in side view
3) Only in front view
4) Only in top view
Answer: Both front and top views

Q 70: Planes which are inclined to both the horizontal and vertical planes are known as
Options:
1) Auxiliary planes
2) Profile planes
3) Reference planes
4) Oblique planes
Answer: Oblique planes

Q 71: In first – angle projection system, the right hand side view of an object is drawn
Options:
1) Right of the elevation
2) Above the elevation
3) Left of the elevation
4) Below the elevation
Answer: Left of the elevation

Q 72: A square lamina is perpendicular to the H.P. and parallel to V.P.. Its horizontal trace will be
Options:
1) Perpendicular to the reference line
2) Parallel to the reference line
3) Inclined to the reference line
4) A point
Answer: Parallel to the reference line

Q 73: A 0.5 kg ball is accelerated from rest to 12 m/s in 0.30 s. The force applied on the ball during its motion is
Options:
1) 20 N
2) 6.0 N
3) 40 N
4) 3.6 N
Answer: 20 N

Q 74: The acceleration due to gravity near the surface of Earth (radius R) is proportional to
Option:
1) R
2) 1/R
3) R2
4) 1/R2
Answer: 1/R2

Q 75: A ball of mass 10 kg is moving with a velocity 5 m/s. The kinetic energy of the ball is
Options:
1) 50 J
2) 125 J
3) 250 J
4) 25 J.
Answer: 125 J

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Q 76: The end of a string is vibrated up and down once every 1.5 s and waves propagate at 6 m/s along the string. The wavelength of the waves is
Options:
1) 4.0 m
2) 9.0 m
3) 0.25 m
4) 1.5 m
Answer: 9.0 m

Q 77: An object is placed somewhere between the focus and centre of curvature of a concave mirror. Which of the following best describes the image formed ?
Options:
1) Real, Inverted and Magnification greater than one
2) Real, Inverted and Magnification less than one
3) Virtual, Upright and Magnification greater than one
4) Virtual, Upright and Magnification less than one
Answer: Real, Inverted and Magnification greater than one

Q 78: Two 1.5 V batteries in series power a transistor radio. The batteries hold a total chage of 270 C. If the radio has a resistance of 100 Ω, the batteries will last
Options:
1) 5.0 hours
2) 2.5 hours
3) 1.25 hours
4) 33 hours
Answer: 2.5 hours

Q 79: What is the value of X in the following equation:
    4 NH3 + X O2 → 4NO + 6H2O
Options:
1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) 5
Answer: 5

Q 80: During the electrolytic refining of copper using copper sulphate as an electrolyte
Options:
1) Impure copper is made the anode
2) Impure copper is made the cathode
3) (ii) only
4) (iii) only
Answer: Impure copper is made the anode

Q 81: The electronic configuration of an element is 2, 8, 1. To which of the following elements will it be similar ?
Options:
1) 2,1
2) 2, 8, 4
3) 2, 7
4) 2, 8, 7
Answer: 2, 1

Q 82: A solution containing 80 grams of sodium hydroxide (molecular mass = 40) completely neutralizes another solution containing 98 grams of an acid “A” (molecular mass = 98). The charge on the anion part of “A” is
Options:
1) -1
2) -2
3) -3
4) -4
Answer: -2

Q 83: Which of the following is a saponification reaction ?
Options:
1) CH3COOH + NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O
2) 2 CH3COOH + 2 Na → 2 CH3COONa + H2
3) 2 CH3CH2OH + 2Na → 2 CH3COONa + H2
4) CH3COOCH3 + NaOH → CH3COONa + CH3OH
Answer: CH3COOCH3 + NaOH → CH3COONa + CH3OH

Q 84: Which of the following is a molecule of an element ?
Options:
1) Neon (g)
2) Chlorine (g)
3) Sulphur dioxide (g)
4) Water (l)
Answer: Chlorine (g)

Q 85: Which out of the following perform all body functions in a single cell ?
Options:
1) Bacteria only
2) Bacteria and Protozoa
3) Bacteria, protozoa and Fungi
4) Protozoa only
Answer: Bacteria and Protozoa

Q 86: In the food chain given below who gets the least energy ?
 Leaves   →  Caterpillars   →    Birds    →   Cats
Options:
1) Leaves
2) Caterpillar
3) Bird
4) Cat
Answer: Cat

Q 87: Which part of the flower becomes the seed after fertilization ?
Options:
1) Pollen
2) Ovule
3) Ovary
4) Carpel
Answer: Ovule

Q 88: One feature in which spiders are different from insects is that spiders have
Options:
1) Jointed legs
2) Body covered with chitinous cuticle
3) Body distinctly divided into parts like head etc.
4) Four pairs of legs
Answer: Four pairs of legs

Q 89: In humans, digestion begins in the
Options:
1) Buccal cavity
2) Oesophagus
3) Stomach
4) Intestine
Answer: Buccal cavity

Q 90: Which is not a hereditary feature in humans ?
Options:
1) Height
2) Weight
3) Blood group
4) Eye colour
Answer: Weight

Q 91: The HCF of two numbers is 15 and their LCM is 210. If one number is 105, the other number is
Options:
1) 15
2) 30
3) 45
4) 75
Answer: 30

Q 92: The least number which when divided by 10, 15 and 18, leaving remainder 5 in each case is
Options:
1) 85
2) 90
3) 95
4) 105
Answer: 95

Q 93: If a : b = 4 : 5 and b : c = 2 : 3, then c : a is
Options;
1) 15 ; 8
2) 8 : 15
3) 4 : 5
4) 3 : 4
Answer: 15 : 8

Q 94: If 25, x, 5, 3 are in proportion, then x is equal to
Options:
1) 5
2) 15
3) 75
4) 125
Answer:  15

Q 95: Successive  discounts of 20% and 5% are equivalent to a single discount of
Options:
1) 25%
2) 22%
3) 21%
4) 24%
Answer: 24%

Q 96: The simple interest on rupees 800 for 3 years at 5% per annum in rupees is
Options:
1) 24
2) 40
3) 120
4) 140
Answer: 120

Q 97: Compound interest on rupees 8000 for 1 year at 10% per annum compounded half yearly is
Options:
1) 800
2) 1680
3) 840
4) 820
Answer: 820

Q 98: If CP of 7 articles is equal to SP of 5 articles, then in the whole transaction there is a profit of
Options:
1) 40%
2) 30%
3) 25%
4) (200/7)%
Answer: 40%

Q 99: To gain 20% after allowing a discount of 5%, the shopkeeper should mark the price of the article which cost him Rs.475 as
Options:
1) Rs.4500
2) Rs.550
3) Rs.600
4) Rs.650
Answer: 650

Q 100: A shopkeeper mixes 35 kg of wheat which cost him Rs.15 per kg with 25 kg of wheat which costs him Rs.20 per kg. He sells the mixture at Rs.22 per kg. His gain is
Options:
1) (1180 / 41)%
2) (1475 / 66)%
3) (1080 / 41)%
4) (1325 / 41)%
Answer: (1180 / 41)%

RRB Junior Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)

Q 101: In two vessels A and B, the milk and water are in the ratio of 3 : 4 and 2 : 3 respectively. The ratio in which these are mixed to obtain new mixture which contains milk and water in the ratio 20 ; 29 is
Options:
1) 6 ; 5
2) 7 : 9
3) 2 : 5
4) 3 : 5
Answer: 2 : 5

Q 102: A person cycles from one place to another in 100 minutes. If his speed is 18 km/h, the distance between two places is
Options:
1) 20 km
2) 30 km
3) 15 km
4) 25 km
Answer: 30 km

Q 103: A train 200 m long is moving at 68 km/h. The time in seconds, it will take to pass another train 150 m long which is moving at 50 km/h in the same direction from the moment they meet is
Options:
1) 40
2) 50
3) 60
4) 70
Answer: 70

Q 104: A and B can do a piece of work in 24 days. If efficiency of A is double than B, then in how many days B alone can do the same work ?
Options:
1) 72
2) 60
3) 36
4) 30
Answer: 72

Q 105: P and Q can do a piece of work in 12 days, Q and R in 15 days and R and P in 20 days. In how many days R alone can do the same work ?
Options:
1) 70
2) 60
3) 45
4) 30
Answer: 60

Q 106: The average of first six even whole numbers is
Options:
1) 5
2) 6
3) 7
4) 8
Answer: 5

Q 107: The average weight of 100 students is 46 kg. The average weight of girls is 40 kg. If the number of girls is 40, the average weight of boys in kilograms is
Options:
1) 40
2) 45
3) 50
4) 60
Answer: 50

Q 108: The common difference of an AP in which  a18 – a13 = 45 is
Options:
1) – 9
2) 9
3) – 5
4) 5
Answer: 9

Q 109: The tenth term of the GP 3, 1, 1/3, ……is
Options:
1) 3-10
2) 3-9
3) 3-8
4) 39
Answer: 3-8

Q 110: A ladder 15 m long just reaches the top of a vertical wall. If the ladder makes an angle of 60o with the wall, the distance of the foot of the ladder from the wall is
Options:
1) 7.5 m
2) 5√3 m
3) 10√3 m
4) (15√3 / 2) m
Answer: (15√3 / 2) m

Q 111: From a point on the bridge across a river the angles of depression of the bank on the opposite side of the river are 60o and 45o respectively. If the bridge is at a height of 4m from the bank, the width of the river is
Options:
1) {4 (3 + √3) / 3} m
2) 4 (√3 + 1) m
3) {2 (1 + √3) / 3} m
4) 2(2√3 + 1) m
Answer: {4 (3 + √3) / 3} m

Q 112: If (x -1) is a factor of x4+x3-2x2+ax+1, then a is equal to
Options:
1) 1
2) -1
3) 2
4) -2
Answer: -1

Q 113: One of the factors of (49x2 – 1) + (1 + 7x)2 is
Options:
1) 7 + x
2) 7 – x
3) 14 x
4) 7x – 1
Answer: 14 x

Q 114: All values of k for which 2x2 + kx + 8 = 0 has real roots is
Options:
1) -8 ≤ k ≤ 8
2) 8 ≤ k ≤ -8
3) -2√2 ≤ k ≤ 2√2
4) 2√2 ≤ k ≤ -2√2
Answer: 8 ≤ k ≤ -8

Q 115: The sum and product of the roots of the equation -5x2+2x-10=0 are respectively
Options:
1) -2/5 , 2
2) 2, -2/5
3) 2/5, 2
4) -2/5, -2
Answer: 2/5. 2

Q 116: Which statement is not true for a game of Badminton ?
Options:
1) Total points to be scored are 21
2) If both sides score upto game point, the winner needs two clear points in a row
3) The game never ends in a draw
4) Total points to be scored are 15
Answer: Total points to scored are 15

Q 117: Paralympics is a multisport event involving those athletes who are
Options:
1) Only visually challenged
2) Only hearing impaired
3) Just mentally challenged
4) With a range of physical disability
Answer: With a range of physical disability

Q 118: Whose saying ‘Earth has enough for man’s need but not enough for man’s greed ‘  is often being quoted by speakers on Environment ?
Options:
1) Independent india’s first Prime Minister
2) The second President of India
3) The Environmentalist, Madhav Gadgil
4) The father of our nation
Answer: The father of our nation

Q 119: The country called ‘Land of the Rising Sun’ is
Options:
1) China
2) Norway
3) Japan
4) Sweden
Answer: Japan

Q 120: The term ‘ collegiums system’ was recently seen in the newspapers. With which field is this term associated ?
Options:
1) Education
2) Judiciary
3) Politics
4) Constitution
Answer: Judiciary

Q 121: One of the following is not an objective of the mid-day Meal scheme in school launched by the government. Select from options given below
Options:
1) Provide full nutritional support to children at the primary stage of education
2) Encourage disadvantaged section of the society to attend school regularly and concentrate on studies
3) Improve the nutritional status of children in the primary section
4) Bridge the gender and social category gaps in schools at the primary level itself
Answer: Bridge the gender and social category gaps in schools at the primary level itself

Q 122: Which one out of the values of the Indian constitution means ‘having complete freedom and being the supreme authority ‘ ?
Options:
1) Socialism
2) Secularism
3) Sovereignty
4) Liberty
Answer: Sovereignty

Q 123: There are two forms of government, presidential and parliamentary. Which type of government do India, Us and England have ?
Options:
1) India – Parliament, England – Parliamentary, US – Parliamentary
2) India – Presidential, England – Parliamentary, US – Presidential
3) India – Parliamentary, England – Parliamentary, US – Presidential
4) All three countries have Presidential form
Answer: India – Parliamentary, England – Parliamentary, US – Presidential

Q 124: If you were to measure the strength of a current which instrument would you look for ?
Options:
1) Voltmeter
2) Thermometer
3) Ammeter
4) Barometer
Answer: Ammeter

Q 125: Another term for Genetic Engineering is
Options:
1) Recombinant DNA technology
2) Polymerase Chain Reaction
3) DNA Fingerprinting
4) DNA Typing
Answer: Recombinant DNA technology

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Q 126: Which function of the body is not carried out by long bones ?
Options:
1) Providing support to legs
2) Formation of blood
3) Making the neck rotate to body bend on the sides
4) Serving as platform for attachment of muscles
Answer: Making the neck rotate to body bend on the sides

Q 127: Which disease does Quinine cure and from which plant is it obtained ?
Options:
1) Malaria ; Cinchona
2) Blood Pressure ; Rawolffia
3) Tuberculosis ; Nicotiana
4) Jaundice ; Hibiscus
Answer: Malaria ; Cinchona
 
Q 128: The artificial satellites cannot be used for
Options:
1) Relaying Radio, TV and Telephone signals
2) Weather forecasting
3) Monitoring atmospheric pollution
4) Exploring solar system
Answer: Monitoring atmospheric pollution

Q 129: Of the Slav population scattered in Eastern Europe, those who began the pan slav movement to have one state were
Options:
1) Serbians
2) Bulgarians
3) Romanians
4) Polish
Answer: Serbians
 
Q 130: Who built the pyramids ?
Options:
1) Pharaohs
2) Chinese
3) Romans
4) Confucians
Answer: Pharaohs

Q 131: The king of Mauryan Empire who in 322 BC uprooted Greeks from Punjab and Nandas from the Gangetic plane was
Options:
1) Chandragupta
2) Bindusar
3) Ashok
4) Mahapadmananda
Answer: Chandragupta

Q 132: Which method will you use to separate yoghurt (Curd) from water contained in it ?
Options:
1) Distillation
2) Crystallisation
3) Filtration
4) Decantation
Answer: Filtration

Q 133: Out of two bottles of pickle, one old and one freshly made, the old one can be detected by its smell and taste caused by
Options:
1) Oxidation of oil in the pickle making it rancid
2) Invasion of bacteria causing putrefaction
3) Reduction in volume of oil in the pickle
4) Fermentation by yeast
Answer: Oxidation of oil in the pickle making it rancid

Q 134: Hair dyes may contain the base
Options:
1) Sodium Hydroxide
2) Ammonium Hydroxide
3) Calcium Hydroxide
4) Potassium Hydroxide
Answer: Ammonium Hydroxide

Q 135: A bicycle pump works on the principle:
Options:
1) When volume decreases, pressure increases
2) When volume increases, pressure increases
3) Air pressure at one point become zero
4) At one point volume and pressure become equal
Answer: When volume decreases, pressure increases

Q 136: What is not true of the Thar Desert ?
Options:
1) Has arid and semiarid weather conditions throughtout the year
2) The flora is mainly cacti and thorny bushes
3) Water is available in sinduates and streams which are always there even without rainfall
4) Rainfall is scanty
Answer: Water is available in sinduates and streams which are always there even without rainfall

Q 137: What is a hotspot ?
Options:
1) A region of high endemic biodiversity
2) A geographical area with very high exotic bio-diversity
3) A region of scanty rainfall
4) An area of constant high temperature
Answer: A region of high endemic biodiversity

Q 138: Give the term for ‘Price of one currency in terms of another ‘
Options:
1) Effective exchange rate
2) Nominal exchange rate
3) Spot rate
4) Purchasing power parity
span style=”color: #000000; font-size: 10pt;”>Answer: Nominal exchange rate

Q 139: The labour or workforce of a country does not include one of the following
Options:
1) Employees of Government
2) Self employed
3) Unemployed
4) Those of age less than 14 years
Answer: Those of age less than 14 years

Q 140: The terms of trade measure
Options:
1) Ratio of export prices and import prices
2) Sum of export prices and import prices
3) Difference of export price and import price
4) Product of export price and import price
Answer: Ratio of export prices and import prices

Q 141:  Pointing to a portrait, Suresh said, “His father is the husband of my father’s only daughter. “ How is the person in the portrait related to Suresh ?
Options:
1) Uncle
2) Nephew
3) Cousin
4) Brother
Answer: Nephew

Q 142: The first two numbers on the left of the sign ‘::’ are related in a certain way. The same relationship holds for the second pair of number on the right side of the sign ‘::’ of which one is missing. Find the missing one from the alternatives.
      27 : 65 :: 125 : ?
Options:
1) 217
2) 237
3) 253
4) 344
Answer: 217

Q 143: The two words on the left side of the sign ‘::’ are related in a certain way. The same relationship holds for the second pair of words on the right side of the sign ‘::’ of which one is missing. Find the missing one from the alternatives.
      School : Student :: Hospital : ?
Options:
1) Doctor
2) Patient
3) Nurse
4) Inmates
Answer: Patient

Q 144: A team of five is to be selected from among five boys P, Q, R, S and T and four girls A, B, C and D with the following conditions.
 (i) B and R have to be put together
(ii) P cannot be put with D.
(iii) C and Q cannot be together.
(iv) S cannot be put with A.

If the team would consist of 3 boys and 2 girls, the team will consist of:
Options:
1) RTSBA
2) TCAPQ
3) DTQPS
4) QBATR
Answer: QBATR

Q 145: Arrange the following words in a meaningful logical sequence and choose the appropriate number sequence from the alternatives.
Options:
1) Wall 2) Brick 3) Decoration 4) House 5) Clay 6) Room
Options:
1) 2, 5, 1, 6, 3, 4
2) 5, 2, 1, 6, 3, 4
3) 5, 2, 1, 6, 3, 4
4) 5, 1, 2, 6, 4, 3
Answer: 5, 2, 1, 6, 3, 4

Q 146: The numbers in each group are related in a certain way choose the correct number from among the alternatives that will replace the question mark.
  ( 3 [ 5 ] 4 )  ( 5 [ 13 ] 12 )   ( 6 [ ? ] 8 )
Options:
1) 11
2) 10
3) 14
4) 9
Answer: 10

Q 147: In a certain language, ‘283’ means ‘ trees have leaves’; ‘758’ means ‘leaves are green’ ; and ‘2495’ means ‘forests have green bushes’. Which digit means ‘ forests’ in that language ?
Options:
1) 9
2) 4
3) Either 4 or 9
4) Either 2 or 9
Answer: Either 4 or 9

Q 148: If ‘QUESTION’ is coded as ’OTEQUSIN’ , then ‘COMPUTER’ would be coded as:
Options:
1) EUMCOPTR
2) RTPOCMUE
3) EUMCRTPO
4) CMUERTPO
Answer: EUMCOPTR

Q 149: Starting from his school, Vipul moves 5 km to the West, takes a left turn and moves 10 km. He then takes two successive left turns covering 10 km and 15 km respectively. Finally he takes another left turn and covers 10 km. In which direction is he now with respect to his school ?
Options:
1) North-East
2) North
3) North-West
4) West
Answer: North-West

Q 150: The numbers in the matrix given below follow a certain trend row-wise and  and/or column wise. Study the trend and choose the number which will replace the question mark ?

3 8 11
6 4 10
45 80 ?

Options:
1) 108
2) 196
3) 202
4) 221
Answer: 221
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