RRB Recruitment
Exam Duration: 120
Number of Questions: 150
Total Marks: 150
Correct: 1 mark
Wrong: 0.33 Negative marks
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Q 1: Hirakud dam has been built on the river
Options:
1) Cauvery
2) Mahanadi
3) Krishna
4) Yamuna
Answer: Mahanadi
Q 2: Who received the first Nobel in Physics in India ?
Options:
1) Dr. C.V.Raman
2) Dr. Hargobind Khurana
3) Prof. C.N.R. Rao
4) Prof. Narlikar
Answer: Dr. C.V.Raman
Q 3: Which of the following books was banned by all Muslim countries and India ?
Options:
1) The Shame Within
2) Discovery of India
3) Satanic Verses
4) Beyond Expanse
Answer: Satanic Verses
Q 4: IGMDP, in India context, is a
Options:
1) Management Development Programme
2) Monetary Policy
3) Missile Programme
4) Marketing policy in Management Studies
Answer: Missile Programme
Q 5: Who is the Secretary General of United Nations ?
Options:
1) David Cameron
2) Stephen Harper
3) Jung Hong-Won
4) Ban ki-moon
Answer: Ban ki-moon
Q 6: With reference to water pollution, BOD means
Options:
1) Biochemical Oxygen Dilution
2) Biochemical Oxygen Demand
3) Bio Organic Dissolutes
4) Basic Organic Dissolutes
Answer: Biochemical Oxygen Demand
Q 7: Approx. percentage of oxygen in Earth’s atmosphere is
Options:
1) 17%
2) 21%
3) 25%
4) 33%
Answer: 21%
Q 8: In the context of genetics, DNA stands for
Options:
1) Di-Neuro Acid
2) Daily News Analysis
3) Detoxic Neuro Acid
4) Deoxyribo Nucleic Acid
Answer: Deoxyribo Nucleic Acid
Q 9: In the context of Information Technology, OCR means
Options:
1) Optical Character Recognition
2) Octagonal Cyclic Recharge
3) Octadecimal Cyclic Regenration
4) Optical Character Regeneration
Answer: Optical Character Recognition
Q 10: If Aruna is Chetna’s son, Chetna and Kavita are sisters, Jyoti is Kavita’s mother, Parth is the son of Jyoti, then
Options:
1) Parth and Arun are cousins
2) Parth is material uncle of arun
3) Kavita is Arun’s grandmother
4) Parth is maternal uncle of Kavita
Answer: Parth is material uncle of arun
Q 11: Find the next number in the series:
10, 100, 200, 310, _______,
Options:
1) 430
2) 510
3) 400
4) 420
Answer: 430
Q 12: A man is facing North. He starts walking on a circular path, completes 3/4th of the circle and takes a right turn. Which direction is he facing now ?
Options:
1) East
2) West
3) North
4) South
Answer: North
Q 13: In a certain code MONKEY is coded as XDJMNL. How would the TIGER be coded ?
Options:
1) SDFHS
2) UJHFS
3) QDFHS
4) SHFDQ
Answer: QDFHS
Q 14: Find the number that will replace the______:
1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13,________
Options:
1) 20
2) 21
3) 22
4) 23
Answer: 21
Q 15: How many cubes are there in the figure ?
Options:
1) 6
2) 8
3) 9
4) 10
Answer:
Q 16: Ramesh goes 4 km South, then 8 km West, then 6 km North, then 8 km East and then 1 km South, How far is Ramesh from the starting point ?
Options:
1) 2 km
2) 1 km
3) 0 km
4) 8 km
Answer: 1 km
Q 17: ‘Crime’ is related to ‘Court’ in the same way as ‘Disease’ is related to
Options:
1) Doctor
2) Hospital
3) Medicine
4) Punishment
Answer: Hospital
Q 18: Two tangents are drawn to a circle of radius 10 cm. The tangents are parallel to each other. What is the distance between the two tangents ?
Options:
1) 10 cm
2) 20 cm
3) 10√2 cm
4) 10√3 cm
Answer: 20 cm
Q 19: Number of points on x-axis which are 2 units away from the point (4, 1) are
Options:
1) 0
2) 1
3) 2
4) Infinite
Answer: 2
Q 20: If the ratio of height of tower to its shadow is 1 : √3 the angle of elevation of sun is
Options:
1) 30o
2) 45o
3) 60o
4) 
Answer: 30o
Q 21: The value of (1 + 0.1 + 0.11 + 0.111) is
Options:
1) 1.321
2) 1.211
3) 1.111
4) 1.331
Answer: 1.321
Q 22: When a number is divided by 5, it gives remainder 3. What is the remainder when square of that number is divided by 5 ?
Options:
1) 9
2) 3
3) 4
4) 1
Answer: 4
Q 23: Find the value of 672 -332
Options:
1) 3200
2) 3400
3) 3146
4) 3143
Answer: 3400
Q 24: If two sides of a triangle are given and an angle not included by the two sides is also given, how many triangles can be drawn at the most ?
Options:
1) 0
2) 1
3) 2
4) 3
Answer: 2
Q 25: 4 men can complete a piece of work in 5 days. How many men are required to complete 3 times the work in 4 days ?
Options:
1) 5
2) 15
3) 80
4) 20
Answer: 15
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Q 26: Given that log 2 = 0.3 approx., one billion would be approx.
Options:
1) 29
2) 210
3) 220
4) 230
Answer: 230
Q 27: In how many different ways can 3 identical white balls and 2 identical red balls be arranged besides each other, in a straight line ?
Options:
1) 6
2) 10
3) 12
4) 120
Answer: 10
Q 28: The value of sin230o + sin260o is
Options:
1) 1
2) 3/2
3) 2
4) 3/4
Answer: 1
Q 29: Match the following:
| 1. | Cell wall | (a) | Animal cell |
| (b) | Plant cell | ||
| 2. | ATP | (a) | Mitochondria |
| (b) | Genes |
Options:
1) 1-(a), 2-(a)
2) 1-(a), 2-(b)
3) 1-(b), 2-(a)
4) 1-(b), 2-(b)
Answer: 1-(b), 2-(a)
Q 30: Synapses and Dendrites are associated with
Options:
1) Cortex
2) Epithelium
3) Retina
4) Nerve-cells
Answer: Nerve-cells
Q 31: A tissue that connects muscle to bones in humans is called
Options:
1) Tendon
2) Fibre
3) Axon
4) Femur
Answer: Tendon
Q 32: The human population of globe is approximately
Options:
1) 500 million
2) 600 million
3) 6 billion
4) 7 billion
Answer: 7 billion
Q 33: Hematology is the study related to
Options:
1) Plant reproduction system
2) Blood
3) Food habits of animals
4) Bones
Answer: Blood
Q 34: Which of the following is not a food borne disease ?
Options:
1) Amoebiasis
2) Cholera
3) Influenza
4) Cyclotrons
Answer: Influenza
Q 35: Hadrons and Baryons are
Options:
1) Industrial chemicals
2) Types of subatomic particles
3) Alkalies
4) Cyclotrons
Answer: Types of subatomic particles
Q 36: A pheromone secreted by an animal
Options:
1) Influences the behavior of animals of same species
2) Protects it from predators
3) Attracts the victims for its food
4) None of the above
Answer: Influences the behavior of animals of same species
Q 37: As the speed of charged particle Increases in a cyclotron, (choose True (T) or False (F))
- A) The particle moves to a larger circle
- B) There is relativistic change in the mass of the particle
- C) Frequency of the cyclotron has to be adjusted
Options:
1) F, F, F
2) T, T, T
3) T, F, t
4) T, T, F
Answer: T, T, T
Q 38: In a thermodynamic system, a process in which volume remains constant is called ________process.
Options:
1) Isobaric
2) Isometric
3) Adiabatic
4) Isentropic
Answer: Isometric
Q 39: Coefficient of performance of a commercially used refrigerator would be close to
Options:
1) 40%
2) 85%
3) 1.5
4) 3.5
Answer: 3.5
Q 40: In a thermodynamic system, thermal equilibrium is achieved when two bodies reach
Options:
1) Same thermal energy
2) Same entropy
3) Same temperature
4) Same molecular energy
Answer: Same temperature
Q 41: A hot body follows Newton’s law of cooling. Typical temperature-time graph of the cooling body would be
Options:
Q 42: In a multicylinder diesel engine, the cylinders are fired in a particular sequence
Options:
1) To Reduce fuel consumption
2) To Reduce knocking
3) To reduce engine vibrations
4) All of the above
Answer: To reduce engine vibrations
Q 43: The formula R = (R1 R2 / R1 + R2) represents
Options:
1) Series connection
2) Parallel connection
3) Bridge connection
4) Linear connection
Answer: Parallel connection
Q 44: In the circuit given below, what is the current flowing in the 6 Ω resistance ?
Options:
1) 0.22 A
2) 0.55 A
3) 2.22 A
4) 2.775 A
Answer: 0.55 A
Q 45: A transformer core is made of laminations
Options:
1) To increase the electrical conductivity of the core
2) To increase the permeability of the core
3) To reduce eddy currents
4) To increase eddy currents and improve efficiency
Answer: To reduce eddy currents
Q 46: Domestic supply of electricity in India is 220 V AC. 220 V refers to the _________of the voltage.
Options:
1) Rms value
2) Peak value
3) Mean value
4) Minimum value
Answer: Rms value
Q 47: In a given AC circuit there is a phase difference of π/2 between current and voltage. When the current is a t its peak voltage is zero. The circuit is
Options:
1) Resistive
2) Inductive
3) Capacitive
4) Can’t say
Answer: Can’t say
Q 48: An unknown DC voltage is to be measured. Which measuring range in the multimeter will you select first ?
Options:
1) 500 V
2) 50 V
3) 5 V
4) 0.5 V
Answer: 500 V
Q 49: The earth conductor provides a path to ground for
Options:
1) Circuit current
2) Leakage current
3) Ever current
4) High voltage
Answer: Leakage current
Q 50: Consider the circuit below:
This circuit is called a
Options:
1) Half adder
2) Latch
3) Bit counter
4) PIPO device
Answer: Latch
RRB Junior Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)
Q 51: De Morgan’s theorem states that
Options:
1) (X + Y)’ = Y’ + X’
2) (X · Y)’ = X’ + Y’
3) (X · Y)’ = Y’ · X’
4) (X + Y)’ = X’ + Y’
Answer: (X · Y)’ = X’ + Y’
Q 52: In Boolean algebra = ?
Options:
1) 0
2) 1
3) 2
4) –1
Answer: 0
Q 53: Which of the following is not an I/Q device of the computer ?
Options:
1) Keyboard
2) Joy stick
3) ALU
4) Printer
Answer: ALU
Q 54: A bond in a brick work when headers and stretchers are placed in alternate layers is called
Options:
1) Header bond
2) English bond
3) Flemish bond
4) Herring bone bond
Answer: English bond
Q 55: Excess silica in cement
Options:
1) Increases the setting time
2) Decreases the setting time
3) Weakens the strength of the cement
4) Does not affect the setting time
Answer: Increases the setting time
Q 56: The outer protective layer of a tree is
Options:
1) Cambium layer
2) Pitch
3) Bark
4) Sap
Answer: Bark
Q 57: Which lime is most suitable for white washing ?
Options:
1) Quick lime
2) Stone lime
3) Kankar lime
4) Shell lime
Answer: Shell lime
Q 58: Distance between two buildings is 100 m. A surveyor is standing at a distance of 40 m from the taller building on a line joining them. If the angle of elevation measured by him for the taller building is 1.5 times the angle of elevation of the smaller building, what is the height of smaller building ?
Options:
1) 45.3 m
2) 45.67 m
3) 46.22 m
4) Data insufficient
Answer: Data insufficient
Q 59: A galvanometer is converted a voltmeter by
Options:
1) Adding a high resistance in series with the galvanometer
2) Adding a low resistance in parallel with the galvanometer
3) Increasing the number of winding of galvanometer coil
4) Decreasing the number of winding of the galvanometer coil
Answer: Adding a high resistance in series with the galvanometer
Q 60: A dynamometer is an equipment used to measure
Options:
1) Current and voltage of generator
2) Dynamic loads over cyclic times
3) Fatigue propagation due to dynamic loads
4) Torque and power of an engine
Answer: Torque and power of an engine
Q 61: Interferometers are used for measurement of
Options:
1) Changes in life cycle processes due to radiation
2) Effect of interference of wearing of one mechanical component, on the whole machine
3) measurement of very small displacement and surface irregularities
4) Chemical analysis of compounds
Answer: measurement of very small displacement and surface irregularities
Q 62: Sclerometer is used by
Options:
1) Astronomers
2) Civil Engineering Surveyors
3) Doctors
4) Metallurgists
Answer: Metallurgists
Q 63: The word ‘Brinell’ is associated with
Options:
1) Soil testing
2) Tensile testing
3) Hardness testing
4) Testing of seasoning of wood
Answer: Hardness testing
Q 64: What is carbon footprint ?
Options:
1) Measure of radioactivity from a fossil
2) Environmental impact because of used cells and batteries
3) Total sets of greenhouse gas emissions by organization, individual etc.
4) Amount of carbon content in the organic compounds
Answer: Total sets of greenhouse gas emissions by organization, individual etc.
Q 65: What is floating point with reference to computers ?
Options:
1) It is a software subroutine around which other subroutines are built
2) It is a representation of real numbers to facilitate computing
3) It is the main algebraic formula of the software
4) It is the voltage point given to various operating units of the computer
Answer: It is a representation of real numbers to facilitate computing
Q 66: A system of digital rules for exchange and processing of data between various devices is called
Options:
1) Software programme
2) Algorithm
3) Protocol
4) Information processing
Answer: Protocol
Q 67: A theoretical computer with infinite type and memory, used in analysis of problems of computation, is called
Options:
1) Tape calculator
2) Babbage machine
3) Turning machine
4) Theoretical machine
Answer: Turning machine
Q 68: ASCII coding allocated binary codes to English alphabets and symbols for computer use. More recently a new standard has been adopted which allocates code to almost all the languages of the world and also to symbols covering more than a lakh characters. The new standard is called
Options:
1) CCS
2) Unicode
3) Standard CCS code
4) Universal CCS code
Answer: Unicode
Q 69: For using passwords on the Internet a software is used so that the password is not intercepted easily. It is called
Options:
1) Coding
2) Malware
3) Virus
4) Encryption
Answer: Encryption
Q 70: A software, coding of which is available freely on Internet and is open for users for further use and improvement and which is generally developed in a collaborative manner is called
Options:
1) Open source software
2) Unlicensed software
3) Free software
4) Community software
Answer: Open source software
Q 71: Which of the following are machine level languages ?
Options:
1) C++
2) Java
3) Python
4) None of these
Answer: None of these
Q 72: Ashoka in the 13th year of his coronation , appointed a special type of officer who surveyed the land, kept land records and carried out justice. These officers were called
Options:
1) Amatyas
2) Samahartas
3) Rajukas
4) Chalukyas
Answer: Samahartas
Q 73: Who built the Jagannatha temple of Puri ?
Options:
1) Anantavarmana Chodaganga
2) Narsimahavarmana
3) Aadiyavarmana
4) Parmeshwaravarmana
Answer: Anantavarmana Chodaganga
Q 74: An individual who is not a member of either house of the parliament can be appointment as a member of the Council of Ministers, but he has to become the member of the either house in
Options:
1) 3 months
2) 6 months
3) One year
4) 2 years
Answer: 6 months
Q 75: The term ‘Republic’ used in the preamble of the Constitution of India implies
Options:
1) That the head of the state is hereditary
2) That the head of the state is a constitutional ruler
3) That the head of the state is an elected representative
4) None of the above
Answer: That the head of the state is an elected representative
RRB Junior Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)
Q 76: The Hindustan Shipyard Limited is located at
Options:
1) Goa
2) Cochin
3) Mumbai
4) Visakhapatnam
Answer: Visakhapatnam
Q 77: In India, what is the minimum permissible age for employment in a factory ?
Options:
1) 14 years
2) 16 years
3) 18 years
4) 21 years
Answer: 14 years
Q 78: Lunar Eclipse occurs only on a
Options:
1) First quarter day
2) New moon day
3) Full moon day
4) Last quarter day
Answer: Full moon day
Q 79: Mirages generally occur in
Options:
1) Mountains
2) Forests
3) Deserts
4) Sea
Answer: Deserts
Q 80: Which state is known for its sandalwood carvings ?
Options:
1) Maharashtra
2) Madhya Pradesh
3) Kerala
4) Karnataka
Answer: Karnataka
Q 81: Section 66 A has been in media controversy recently. The section pertains to
Options:
1) Communal Harmony
2) Sexual Aggression
3) Company’s Act
4) Information Technology
Answer: Information Technology
Q 82: IPC stands for
Options:
1) International Peace Code
2) Indian Peace Code
3) Indian Penal Code
4) International Punishment Code
Answer: Indian Penal Code
Q 83: Who among the following can accept the deposits of money from the public, as a business in financial transactions ?
Options:
1) Individuals
2) Firms
3) Unincorporated Associations
4) None of the above
Answer: None of the above
Q 84: NEFT and RTGS are the means for
Options:
1) Money transfer
2) Fiscal control policy
3) Monitoring tax collection
4) Implementing GST
Answer: Money transfer
Q 85: In Sept. 2014 ISRO achieved success in which project ?
Options:
1) Launched Heavy payload vehicle
2) Launched geo-stationary satellite
3) Launched rocket to mars
4) Mars Orbiter successfully entered mars orbit
Answer: Mars Orbiter successfully entered mars orbit
Q 86: In October 2014 a cyclone hit Vishakhapatnam. The name of the cyclone was
Options:
1) Katrina
2) Hudhud
3) Laila
4) Helen
Answer: Hudhud
Q 87: SAARC countries are from which part of the world ?
Options:
1) South America
2) South Asia
3) South Africa
4) None of the above
Answer: South Asia
Q 88: How many pairs of letters are there in the word CRAB which has as many letters between them in the word as there are between them in the English alphabet ?
Options:
1) 3
2) 2
3) 1
4) 0
Answer: 2
Q 89: Which month is different from other months in the group ?
Options:
1) April
2) June
3) July
4) November
Answer: July
Q 90: If circumference of a circle is increased by 10%, the area of the area of the circle will increase by
Options:
1) 5%
2) 10%
3) 20%
4) 21%
Answer: 21%
Q 91: A cylindrical shaped metal piece is converted into a wire. Out of the following, Which parameter can be assumed to remain the same ?
Options:
1) Volume
2) Cross-section area
3) Length
4) Diameter
Answer: Volume
Q 92: What is the probability of getting 3 aces if three cards are drawn from a set of 52 playing cards ?
Options:
1) 522
2) 1 / 523
3) 1 / 52!
4) (4x3x2) / (52x51x50)
Answer: (4x3x2) / (52x51x50)
Q 93: In a class of 40 students, 25 are sports persons and 25 are mathematicians. What is the probability that the monitor of the class is both a sports person and a mathematician ?
Options:
1) 1/40
2) 1/25
3) 1/4
4) 1/50
Answer: 1/4
Q 94: Sum of two numbers is 15 and sum of their reciprocals is 15 / 56. The two numbers are
Options:
1) 4, 11
2) 5, 10
3) 6, 9
4) 7, 8
Answer: 7, 8
Q 95: If α, β are the roots of quadratic equation x2+x+1=0, then 1/α + 1/β is
Options:
1) –1
2) 1
3) 0
4) None of these
Answer: –1
Q 96: Value of is
Options:
1) 5 / 2
2) –2
3) 3
4) 4
Answer:
Q 97: If a, b, c, d, e and f are in arithmetic progression, then e – c is equal to
Options:
1) 2(b – a)
2) c – b
3) 2(f – d)
4) 2(d – b)
Answer: 2(b – a)
Q 98: In coordinate geometry, distance of the point (-4, 3) from origin is
Options:
1) 3
2) 4
3) 5
4) 25
Answer: 5
Q 99: Find the median of the following numbers:
14, 23, 20, 12, 11, 15, 24, 17, 9, 21, 25
Options:
1) 15
2) 20
3) 17
4) 14
Answer: 17
Q 100: tan 90o is undefined. As θ is increased from 89o towards 90o, value of tan θ tends to
Options:
1) 1% loss
2) 1% gain
3) 2% loss
4) No loss no gain
Answer: 1% loss
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Q 101: A man sells his two cars at the same price. In one car he makes a profit of 10%. In other car he loses 10% over the cost price. His total gain or loss percent is
Options:
1) 1% loss
2) 1% gain
3) 2% loss
4) No loss no gain
Answer: 1% loss
Q 102: √10 = 3.1623 (approx.). What is the approx. value of 1 / √10 ?
Options:
1) 0.333
2) 0.3162
3) 0.3221
4) 0.3437
Answer: 0.3162
Q 103: A student was asked to multiply a number by 12. By mistake he multiplied the number by 21 and got the answer 63 more than the correct answer. What is the correct answer ?
Options:
1) 9
2) 8
3) 7
4) 84
Answer: 84
Q 104: Consider the following graph:
Which portion represents the ‘Latent heat of fusion’ ?
Options:
1) OA
2) AB
3) BC
4) CD
Answer: OA
Q 105: Which of the following does not sublimate ?
Options:
1) Ice
2) Ammonium chloride
3) Naphthalene
4) Camphor
Answer: Ice
Q 106: Which of the following is a heterogeneous mixture ?
Options:
1) Brass
2) Sugar solution in water
3) Air
4) Milk
Answer: Milk
Q 107: A class of compounds which are used as fragrances when molecular weight is low and are naturally occurring fats when molecular weight is high in the series, is called
Options:
1) Amino acids
2) Aromatic compounds
3) Esters
4) Organic acids
Answer: Esters
Q 108: If the mass of sun, earth and distance between them is respectively M, m and r; work done by the sun’s gravity on earth for one revolution round the sun is
Options:
1) Zero
2) G M.m / r9
3) (G M.m / r) 2π
4) (G M.m / r2) 2π
Answer: Zero
Q 109: The choke of a tube light works on the principle of
Options:
1) Bi-metallic
2) Capacitance
3) Inductance
4) Ionization
Answer: Inductance
Q 110: In the figure below, what is the acceleration of body with mass m2, given g is the acceleration due to gravity (assume pulley and surfaces are smooth)
Options:
1) g
2) (m1+m2 / m1) g
3) (m1+m2 / m2) g
4) (m2 / m1+m2) g
Answer: (m2 / m1+m2) g
Q 111: Which of the following statements is correct ?
Options:
1)Speed of light in vacuum is 3 x 108 m/s
2) Speed of light is different for different colours
3) Speed of light is different in different media
4) All of the above
Answer: All of the above
Q 112: In Heisenberg’s Uncertainity of momentum of momentum and position of a particle can be
Options:
1) Reduced using smaller wavelength of probing light
2) Reduced using larger wavelength of probing light
3) Reduced using high energy probe particles accelerated by cyclotron
4) Can’t be reduced as it is fundamentally inherent
Answer: Can’t be reduced as it is fundamentally inherent
Q 113: In a scooter, which part is the petrol atomized and mixed in correct proportion with air ?
Options:
1) Carburettor
2) Cylinder
3) Inlet port
4) Fuel pump
Answer: Carburettor
Q 114: Which alloy steel would be used for making leaf and coil springs ?
Options:
1) Nickel-Chrome
2) Vanadium
3) Silicon-Manganese
4) Chrome-molybdenum
Answer: Silicon-Manganese
Q 115: In aluminium casting bubbles of argon or nitrogen are passed through the molten metal
Options:
1) To improve surface finish of the casting
2) To remove hydrogen gas porosity
3) To precipitate the inclusions
4) To mix the alloy elements
Answer: To remove hydrogen gas porosity
Q 116: Clearance between the mating parts is measured using
Options:
1) Dial gauge
2) Go-gauge
3) No-go gauge
4) Feeler gauge
Answer: Feeler gauge
Q 117: In a milling process, for milling mild steel, what will be a typical rake angle for the cutter ?
Options:
1) 12o
2) 20o
3) 28o
4) –12
Answer: 12o
Q 118: State True (T) or False (F) respectively:
- For better tensile strength, cast component is preferred over forged component
- Quenching of hot iron component in water improves its malleability
Options:
1) T, T
2) F, F
3) T, F
4) F, T
Answer: F, F
Q 119: Channels, Angles and I-section, which are used in fabricating a shed structure frame, are manufactured from blooms using the process of
Options:
1) Casting
2) Drawing
3) Swaging
4) Rolling
Answer: Rolling
Q 120: Output of a welding transformer transformer, compared with its input is
Options:
1) High voltage high current
2) High voltage low current
3) Low voltage high current
4) Low voltage low current
Answer: Low voltage high current
Q 121: A fuse should be connected in_________ in the _________ conductor.
Options:
1) Series, neutral
2) Series, live
3) Parallel, neutral
4) Parallel, live
Answer: Series, live
Q 122: Equipment earthing gives protection against
Options:
1) Voltage fluction
2) Overloading
3) Electric shocks
4) High temperature of conductors
Answer: Electric shocks
Q 123: A generator is rated 2 KW 200 V D.C. It can supply laod current of
Options:
1) 4000 A
2) 100 A
3) 10 A
4) 4 A
Answer: 10 A
Q 124: The term PCB stands for
Options:
1) Polyethylene Card Board
2) Printed Circuit Board
3) Printed Card Board
4) Polythene Circuit Board
Answer: Printed Circuit Board
Q 125: Color bands for 1.5 ohms resistor will be
Options:
1) Brown, Green , Brown
2) Brown, Green, Golden
3) Brown, Golden, Green
4) Brown, Golden, Golden
Answer: Brown, Green, Golden
RRB Junior Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)
Q 126: A frequency tuning electronic circuit would consist of
Options:
1) An inductor and a capacitor
2) An inductor and a resistor
3) Two inductors
4) Two capacitors
Answer: An inductor and a capacitor
Q 127: Main element of a filter circuit that reduces the A.C. component of the output is
Options:
1) Resistor
2) Inductor
3) Transformer
4) Capacitor
Answer: Capacitor
Q 128: For stabilizing the gain of an amplifier
Options:
1) Positive feedback is used
2) No feedback is used
3) Negative feedback is used
4) Input voltage is varied
Answer: Negative feedback is used
Q 129: A stereophonic system requires
Options:
1) Two separate Microphones
2) Two separate amplifiers
3) Two separate speakers
4) All of the above
Answer: All of the above
Q 130: For plastering walls, cement mortar would be typically used in which ratio ?
Options:
1) 1 : 2
2) 1 : 4
3) 1 : 6
4) 1 : 8
Answer: 1 : 4
Q 131: The grade M25 of concrete would approx. refer to the mix
Options:
1) 1 : 3 : 6
2) 1 : 2 : 4
3) 1 : 1 : 2
4) 1 : 4 : 8
Answer: 1 : 1 : 2
Q 132: Brass is an alloy of
Options:
1) Copper and zinc
2) Copper and tin
3) Copper and aluminium
4) Aluminium and tin
Answer: Copper and zinc
Q 133: A pigment renerally used to impart white colour in a paint is
Options:
1) Graphite
2) Lead
3) Copper sulphate
4) Zinc
Answer: Zinc
Q 134: The main purpose of providing foundation to a building is
Options:
1) To provide a level base over which masonry may be laid
2) To fix the super structure to the ground
3) To distribute the weight of the structure on a sufficiently large area of the substratum
4) To prevent uneven distribution of load of beams on the substratum
Answer: To distribute the weight of the structure on a sufficiently large area of the substratum
Q 135: The branch of surveying in which only linear measurements are directly made in the field is
Options:
1) Land surveying
2) Chain surveying
3) Engineering survey
4) Topographical survey
Answer: Chain surveying
Q 136: A theodolite is used for measuring
Options:
1) Distances
2) Strength of materials
3) Surface hardness
4) Angles
Answer: Angles
Q 137: Contour lines drawn on a map, are the lines which pass through
Options:
1) Hills and depressions
2) Same elevation
3) Same latitude
4) None of the above
Answer: Same elevation
Q 138: Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
Options:
1) Microsoft windows is GUI
2) Linux is GUI
3) More than 5000 kB data can be stored in a DVD
4) A 1 TB flash drive can store 2 million files each of size 1 MB
Answer: A 1 TB flash drive can store 2 million files each of size 1 MB
Q 139: How many lines can be said to exist or be drawn in a three dimentional space, which are mutually perpendicular to each other ?
Options:
1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) 8
Answer: 3
Q 140: A third angle orthographic projection of an object is given below. What is this object ?
Options:
1) Triangle
2) Trapezium
3) Cone
4) Frustrum of a cone
Answer: Frustrum of a cone
Q 141: In an engineering drawing it is written scale 1 cm = 100 m. Which ratio does it correspond to ?
Options:
1) 1 : 100
2) 1 : 1000
3) 1 : 10,000
4) 1 : 1,00,000
Answer: 1 : 10,000
Q 142: In machine drawing, a ‘sectional view’ cut portion is shown by
Options:
1) Diagonal hatching
2) Dots
3) Cross marks
4) Red colour
Answer: Diagonal hatching
Q 143: For-complete description of a component, a machine drawing would require minimum how many orthographic projections ?
Options:
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Answer: 2
Q 144: Thermochemical decomposition of organic materials at high temperatures, in the absence of oxygen is called
Options:
1) Pyrolysis
2) thermolysis
3) Caramelization
4) Catagenesis
Answer: Pyrolysis
Q 145: Acid rain is caused by presence of which of the following gases in the atmosphere
Options:
1) Nitrogen and oxygen
2) Sulfur dioxide and Nitrogen oxide
3) Carbon dioxide and Carbon-mono-oxide
4) Ozone and argon
Answer: Sulfur dioxide and Nitrogen oxide
Q 146: One of the main reason for depletion of ozone layer in the Earth’s atmosphere is
Options:
1) Green house gases
2) Colloidal impurities
3) CPC and halons
4) Rockets and satellite launching vehicles
Answer: CPC and halons
Q 147: What is the value of total hardness acceptable in portable water as per Indian Standards ?
Options:
1) 0.3
2) 3
3) 30
4) 300
Answer: 300
Q 148: Preventing rain water to run-off and its accumulation and deposition for re-use on site is called
Options:
1) Rain water collection
2) Micro-dams
3) Micro-accumulation
4) Rain water harvesting
Answer: Rain water harvesting
Q 149: The terms ALU, CPU, I/O devices pertain to
Options:
1) Computers
2) Environmental engineering
3) Diesel engine
4) Engineering drawing and orthogonal rojections
Answer: Computers
Q 150: In a computing device ‘MHz’ is mentioned in the specifications. It refers to
Options:
1) Size of memory
2) Speed of computation
3) Clock speed
4) None of the above
Answer: Clock speed
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