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]]>In this page, we are providing you GATE **(Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering)** Exam Previous year papers, which is conducted By IIT’s **(Indian Institute of Technology)** Every year to do Masters Course as well as for Engineering Jobs in Govt. Bodies. It is the best exam to examine the concepts of candidates in the field of **General Aptitude, Mathematics** & the Subject of candidate’s graduation. GATE is Just Similar to **SAT / ACT / TOEFL etc…** to check to over all personality of candidates. GATE exam pattern will include the number of questions, types of questions and marking scheme for all the **25 papers** of GATE.

IIT Conducts GATE exam of around 25 Subject Papers Like Engineering science, Life science, Biotechnology, Geology, Chemistry etc.., But here we will get to know only about **Mechanical Engineering** Previous Papers. All Questions are of **High level**, so try to solve it only if your concepts is clear, at least up to the mark. These previous Year Question are available in both Objective & Conventional types, which helps a lot to those who are preparing for the Next **GATE exam 2021**. Most of the Solved Paper’s **Answer key** given at the end of PDF.

**Other Mechanical Engineering Exams Questions Papers**

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]]>The post SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper 2018 Shift- 4 (Civil Engineering) appeared first on NewtonDesk.

]]>**Q 1:** Which of the following quality of timber can be improved using Abel’s process ?

**Options:**

**1)** Durability

**2)** Fire resistance

**3)** Chemical resistance

**4)** Strength

**Answer:** Fire resistance

**Q 2:** Which of the following shows the CORRECT decreasing order of rate of hydration of Portland cement compounds ?

**Options:**

**1)** C_{3}A > C_{4}AF > C_{3}S > C_{2}S

**2)** C_{3}A > C_{4}AF > C_{2}S > C_{3}S

**3)** C_{3}A > C_{3}S > C_{2}S > C_{4}AF

**4)** C_{4}AF > C_{3}S > C_{3}A > C_{2}S

**Answer:** C_{3}A > C_{4}AF > C_{3}S > C_{2}S

**Q 3:** The proportions of ingredients in concrete mix are given by 1:2:4, What will be the actual quantity of the sand per unit volume of cement, if it undergoes 20% of bulking ?

**Options:**

**1)** 1.5

**2)** 2.4

**3)** 4.6

**4)** 6.5

**Answer:** 2.4

**Q 4:** What is the range of slump (mm) of the concrete which is used as the mass concrete ?

**Options:**

**1)** 10 to 15

**2)** 20 to 50

**3)** 50 to 75

**4)** 75 to 110

**Answer:** 20 to 50

**Q 5:** In the symbol used to represent the concrete mix, MX. M stands for mix and numeric **X **represents the______.

**Options:**

**1)** 7 days compressive strength

**2)** 14 days compressive strength

**3)** 28 days compressive strength

**4)** 28 days tensile strength

**Answer:** 28 days compressive strength

**Q 6:** According to the IS code, at what moisture content, weight of the timber is noted ?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.05

**2)** 0.12

**3)** 0.23

**4)** 0.3

**Answer:** 0.12

**Q 7:** What is the recommended moisture content of timber, which is used as a structural element for windows ?

**Options:**

**1)** 5-10%

**2)** 10-16%

**3)** 16-26%

**4)** 26-36%

**Answer:** 10-16%

**Q 8:** Which of the following represents the smallest size (mm) of fine aggregate (sand)?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.01

**2)** 0.06

**3)** 1.5

**4)** 2

**Answer:** 0.06

**Q 9: **What is the percentage content of silica in a good quality brick earth ?

**Options:**

**1)** 20-30%

**2)** 30-40%

**3)** 40-50%

**4)** 50-60%

**Answer:** 50-60%

**Q 10:** When timber is burnt in the wood fire over a depth of about 15 mm, the process of treatment is known as______.

**Options:**

**1)** Charring

**2)** Rueping process

**3)** Bethel process

**4)** Boucherie process

**Answer:** Charring

**Q 11:** The plasticity index and plastic limit of a soil is given by 25% and 20% respectively. What will be the liquid limit of the soil ?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.15

**2)** 0.25

**3)** 0.35

**4)** 0.45

**Answer:** 0.45

**Q 12:** In the flow over length of 50 m, the head loss of 6 m occurred due to seepage. The hydraulic gradient is given by ______.

**Options:**

**1)** 0.01

**2)** 0.12

**3)** 0.29

**4)** 0.32

**Answer:** 0.12

**Q 13:** Which of the following expression represents the **CORRECT** value of coefficient of curvature ?

**Options:**

**1)** C_{c} = (D_{30})^{2} / (D_{60} x D_{10})

**2)** C_{c} = (D_{60})^{2} / (D_{30} x D_{10})

**3)** C_{c} = (D_{10})^{2} / (D_{60} x D_{30})

**4)** C_{c} = D_{30} / (D_{60} x D_{10})

**Answer:** C_{c} = (D_{30})^{2} / (D_{60} x D_{10})

** Q 14:** Which of the following apparatus is used to measure the liquid limit soil ?

**Options:**

**1)** Casagrande apparatus

**2)** Pycnometer

**3)** Ring and ball apparatus

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Casagrande apparatus

**Q 15:** The compressibility of the fluid is given as 5×10^{-11} Pa^{-1} What is the Bulk modulus (Gpa) of fluid ?

**Options:**

**1)** 10

**2)** 15

**3)** 20

**4)** 25

**Answer:** 20

**Q 16:** Which of the following is measured with the help of an orifice meter ?

**Options:**

**1)** Discharge

**2)** Discharge coefficient

**3)** Head of water

**4)** Pressure coefficient

**Answer:** Discharge

**Q 17:** Which of the following represents the **CORRECT** range of coefficient of discharge of venturimeter ?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.32 to 0.43

**2)** 0.45 to 0.52

**3)** 0.54 to 0.75

**4)** 0.96 to 0.98

**Answer:** 0.96 to 0.98

**Q 18:** A cube of dimension 2 m is floating in the water with immerging depth of 1 m. What is the weight (KN) of the cube ? (Consider unit weight of water as 10 kN/m^{3})

**Options:**

**1)** 10

**2)** 20

**3)** 30

**4)** 40

**Answer:** 40

**Q 19:** The Reynold number for the flow through smooth pipe is given by 10^{5}. The value of friction factor for smooth pipe is________.

**Options:**

**1)** 0.001

**2)** 0.018

**3)** 0.089

**4)** 0.125

**Answer:** 0.018

**Q 20:** At a particular point in the channel, the specific energy and velocity of flow is given by 1.5 m-kg/kg and 2.5 m/s respectively . What is the depth of flow in channel at that point ?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.5

**2)** 1.18

**3)** 2.32

**4)** 2.5

**Answer:** 1.18

**Q 21:** A circular pipe of diameter 60 cm carries a discharge of 2.5 m^{3}/s. What is the velocity of flow (m/s) through the pipe ?

**Options:**

**1)** 2.5

**2)** 5.67

**3)** 8.83

**4)** 12.32

**Answer:** 8.83

**Q 22:** Which of the following represents the **CORRECT** relationship between the Chezy’s coefficient, C and coefficient of roughness of channel, f ?

**Options:**

**1)** C ∝ 1/√f

**2)** C ∝ √f

**3)** C ∝ 1 / f^{3/2}

**4)** C ∝ 1/f

**Answer:** C ∝ 1/√f

**Q 23:** Which of the following is calculated with the help of Moody equation ?

**Options:**

**1)** Discharge

**2)** Friction factor

**3)** Pressure

**4)** Velocity of flow

**Answer:** Friction factor

**Q 24:** Which of the following is responsible for the separation of boundary layer ?

**Options:**

**1)** Positive pressure gradient

**2)** High viscosity of fluid

**3)** Low viscosity of fluid

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Positive pressure gradient

**Q 25:** The settling tank of surface over flow rate of 4.5×10^{-4} m^{3}/m^{2}/s is used for design discharge of 2 m^{3}/s. What is the surface area (m^{2}) of the settling tank ?

**Options:**

**1)** 1000

**2)** 2000

**3)** 3000

**4)** 4000

**Answer:** 4000

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers**

**Q 26:** The rain is called as acid rain, when its pH is less than______.

**Options:**

**1)** 3

**2)** 4.5

**3)** 7

**4)** 8.5

**Answer:** 4.5

**Q 27: **Using prismoidal method, what is the volume (cubic metre) of reathwork required for 10 m deep pit, if the top and bottom dimensions are 4 m x 8 m and 8 m x 16 m respectively ?

**Options:**

**1)** 678.34

**2)** 746.67

**3)** 800

**4)** 1493.33

**Answer:** 746.67

**Q 28:** For supply, lime is measured in_____.

**Options:**

**1)** Bags of 50 kg

**2)** Cubic metre

**3)** Kilograms

**4)** Quintals

**Answer:** Quintals

**Q 29:** What is the estimate (Rs.) for a building with a plinth area of 2000 sq. m with rate of 3800 per sq. m ? (Consider the acids of 15% of electric installation and 7% of miscellaneous)

**Options:**

**1)** 150000

**2)** 450080

**3)** 2423000

**4)** 9272000

**Answer:** 9272000

**Q 30:** What is the quality (sq. m) of plastering required for the 6 m length of wall which is 4 m high and 50 cm thick ?

**Options:**

**1)** 12

**2)** 24

**3)** 48

**4)** 56

**Answer:** 48

**Q 31:** The length, width and height of a wall are given as 800 cm, and 50 cm respectively. What will be the total cost (Rs.) of brickwork, if the rate of brickwork is Rs. 320 per cubic metre ?

**Options:**

**1)** 4000

**2)** 6400

**3)** 10500

**4)** 12860

**Answer:** 6400

**Q 32:** The plinth area rate and plinth area of a building is Rs 5500 per sq.m and 150 sq.m respectively. What is the total cost (Rs) of building considering cost of electrification as 7%, cost of sanitary fittings as 165 cost of roads and awns as 6.5% and cost of contingencies as 4.5%.

**Options:**

**1)** 50000

**2)** 825000

**3)** 982860

**4)** 1105500

**Answer:** 1105500

**Q 33:** Which of the following item is **NOT** a lump sum item ?

**Options:**

**1)** Architectural features

**2)** Contingencies and unforesees items

**3)** Electric installation

**4)** Plastering of wall

**Answer:** Plastering of wall

**Q 34:** What is the total cost (Rs.) according to approximate estimate of hostel building with capacity of 75 beds ? The altogether cost per bed is given as Rs. 20,000.

**Options:**

**1)** 500,000

**2)** 850,000

**3)** 1,500,000

**4)** 5,500,000

**Answer:** 1,500,000

**Q 35:** What is the volume of earthwork (cubic metre) in embankment of 10 m long and 7m wide with the side slope of 2.1 ?

**Options:**

**1)** 70

**2)** 150

**3)** 280

**4)** 390

**Answer:** 390

**Q 36:** Which of the following method is used to prepare the approximate estimate ?

**Options:**

**1)** Cubical contents method

**2)** Plinth area method

**3)** Unit base method

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 37:** In which of the following condition two contour lines intersect each other ?

**Options:**

**1)** Hills

**2)** Overhanging cliff

**3)** Steep slope

**4)** Uniform slope

**Answer:** Overhanging cliff

**Q 38:** In which of the following scale of the map is not affected due to shrinking of map ?

**Options:**

**1)** Engineer’s scale

**2)** Graphical scale

**3)** Representative fraction

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Graphical scale

**Q 39:** A surveyor measures a distance between two points on a map of representative fraction of 1:100 is 60 m. But later he found that he used wrong representative fraction of 1:50. What is the correct distance between the two points ?

**Options:**

**1)** 30

**2)** 45

**3)** 90

**4)** 120

**Answer:** 120

**Q 40:** Which one of the following is the CORRECT statement for a station that is affected by local attraction ?

**Options:**

**1)** Difference between the fore bearing and back bearing is always equal to 90 Degrees.

**2)** Difference between the fore bearing and back bearing is always equal to 180 Degrees.

**3)** Difference between the fore bearing and back bearing is not equal to 180 Degrees.

**4)** Difference between the fore bearing and back bearing is always equal to 360 Degrees.

**Answer:** Difference between the fore bearing and back bearing is not equal to 180 Degrees.

**Q 41:** Which of the following error is most likely to occur in the plane table surveying ?

**Options:**

**1)** Error in sighting

**2)** Error in orientation

**3)** Error in leveling

**4)** Error in measurement

**Answer:** Error in orientation

**Q 42:** Which of the following is the expression for the additive constant, if f is the focal length of objective and **i **is the stadia interval ?

**Options:**

**1)** f – i

**2)** f / i

**3)** f + d

**4)** f x i

**Answer:** f + d

**Q 43:** The staff reading taken on a staff held at a distance of 50 m from the instrument with the bubble central is 1.465 m. When the bubble is moved 4 divisions out of the centre, the staff reading is 1.472 m. What will be the radius of curvature (m) of the bubble tube, if the length of one division is 2 mm ?

**Options:**

**1)** 30

**2)** 43.7

**3)** 57.14

**4)** 66.34

**Answer:** 57.14

**Q 44:** Which of the following is the **CORRECT** ratio of refraction correction to curvature correction ?

**Options:**

**1)** 1/4

**2) **1/6

**3)** 1/7

**4)** 1/9

**Answer:** 1/7

**Q 45:** Which of the following Instrument is used for centering the theodolite in windy conditions ?

**Options:**

**1)** Cross staff

**2)** Optical plummet

**3)** Optical square

**4)** Spirit level

**Answer:** ** **Optical plummet

**Q 46:** Which of the following test is used to make the line of sight perpendicular to the horizontal axis ?

**Options:**

**1)** Azimuth test

**2)** Cross hair ring test

**3)** Spire test

**4)** Vertical arc test

**Answer:** Azimuth test

**Q 47:** Which of the following statement is **TRUE** for the linear reservoir ?

**Options:**

**1)** Storage is proportional to inflow discharge.

**2)** Storage is proportional to outflow discharge.

**3)** Storage is proportional to square of inflow discharge.

**4)** Storage is proportional to square of outflow discharge.

**Answer:** Storage is proportional to outflow discharge.

**Q 48:** A 45 cm diameter well penetrates aquifer of 30 m thick. Under the steady pumping rate for a long time, the drawdown’s at two observation wells 10 m and 20 m from the pumping well are 5 m and 3.5 m respectively. What will be the discharge (cubic metre), if the permeability of the aquifer is given as 20 m/day ?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.05

**2)** 0.067

**3)** 0.08

**4)** 1.12

**Answer:** 0.08

**Q 49:** What will be the cant deficiency (cm), if maximum safe speed on a 5 Degree curve of a broad gauge track is 110 km/h and average speed of train is 85 km/h ?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.011

**2)** 0.78

**3)** 0.89

**4)** 18.7

**Answer: **10

**Q 50:** What will be the shift of transition curve, if the length of transition curve is 80 m and radius of the curve is 300 m ?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.011

**2)** 0.78

**3)** 0.89

**4)** 21.33

**Answer:** 0.89

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers**

**Q 51:** Design of a riveted joint, is based on the assumption.

**Options:**

**1)** Load is uniformly distributed among all the rivets

**2)** Shear stress on a rivet is uniformly distributed over its gross area.

**3)** Bearing stress is uniform between the contact surfaces of the plate and the rivet.

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 52:** Effective length of a column effectively held in position and restrained in directions at both ends is

**Options:**

**1)** L

**2)** 0.67 L

**3)** 0.85 L

**4)** 1.5 L

**Answer:** 0.67 L

**Q 53:** The slenderness ratio of a column is zero when its length

**Options:**

**1)** Is zero

**2)** Is equal to its radius of gyration

**3)** Is supported on all sides throughout its length

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Is supported on all sides throughout its length

**Q 54:** Outstanding length of a compression member consisting of a channel is measured as

**Options:**

**1)** Half of the nominal width

**2)** Nominal width of the section

**3)** From the edge to the first row of rivets

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Nominal width of the section

**Q 55:** The equivalent axial load may be defined as the load which produces a stress equal to

**Options:**

**1)** Maximum stress produced by the eccentric load

**2)** Maximum stressed fiber

**3)** Bending stress

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Maximum stress produced by the eccentric load

**Q 56:** For the economical design of a combined footing to support two equal column loads the projections of beams in lower tier are kept such that bending moment under column is equal to

**Options:**

**1)** Bending moment at the center of the beam

**2)** Half the bending moment at the center of the beam

**3)** Twice the bending moment at the center of the beam

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Bending moment at the center of the beam

**Q 57:** A beam is defined as a structural member subjected to

**Options:**

**1)** Axial loading

**2)** Axial and transverse loading

**3)** Transverse loading

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Transverse loading

**Q 58:** The gross section of the web of a beam is defined as

**Options:**

**1)** Depth of the beam multiplied by its web thickness

**2)** Width of the flange multiplied by its web thickness

**3)** Sum of the flange width and depth of the beam multiplied by the web thickness

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Depth of the beam multiplied by its web thickness

**Q 59:** The effective length L of a simply supported beam with ends restrained against torsion and also the ends of compression flange partially restrained against lateral bending is given by

**Options:**

**1)** L = span

**2)** L = 0.85 span

**3)** L = 0.75 span

**4)** L = 0.7 span

**Answer:** L = 0.85 span

**Q 60:** The connection of one beam to another beam by means of an angle at the bottom and an angle at the top, is known as

**Options:**

**1) ** Unstiffened seated connection

**2) **Stiffened seated connection

**3) **Seated connection

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Seated connection

**Q 61:** Separation of water or water sand cement from a freshly mixed concrete is known

**Options:**

**1)** Bleeding

**2)** Creeping

**3)** Segregation

**4)** Flooding

**Answer:** Bleeding

**Q 62:** For road pavements, the cement generally used is

**Options:**

**1)** Ordinary Portland cement

**2)** Rapid hardening cement

**3)** Low heat cement

**4)** Blast furnace slag cement

**Answer: **Rapid hardening cement

**Q 63:** Hydration of cement is due to chemical action of water with

**Options:**

**1)** Tricalcium silicate and dicalcium silicate

**2)** Dicalcium silicate and tricalcium aluminate

**3)** Tricalcium aluminate and tricalcium alumin ferrite

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 64:** Internal friction between the ingredients of concrete, is decreased by using

**Options:**

**1)** Less water

**2)** Fine aggregates

**3)** Rich mix

**4)** More water and coarse aggregates

**Answer:** More water and coarse aggregates

**Q 65:** In a slump test, each layer of concrete is compacted by a steel rod 60 cm long and of 16 mm diameter for

**Options:**

**1)** 20 times

**2)** 25 times

**3)** 30 times

**4)** 40 times

**Answer:** 25 times

**Q 66:** To prevent segregation, the maximum height of placing concrete is

**Options:**

**1)** 100 cm

**2)** 125 cm

**3)** 150 cm

**4)** 200 cm

**Answer:** 100 cm

**Q 67:** The shuttering of a hall measuring 4 m x 5 m, can be removed after

**Options:**

**1)** 5 days

**2)** 7 days

**3)** 10 days

**4)** 14 days

**Answer:** 7 days

**Q 68:** For compacting plain concrete road surface of thickness less than 20 cm, we use

**Options:**

**1)** Internal vibrator

**2)** Screed vibrator

**3)** form vibrator

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Screed vibrator

**Q 69:** Pick up the correct statement from the following

**Options:**

**1) **Construction joints in columns are provided a few cm below the junction of beam

**2)** Construction Joints in columns are provided at the bottom haunching

**3)** Construction joint in beams and slabs are provided within middle third

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 70:** An excess of flaky particles in concrete aggregates

**Options:**

**1)** Decreases the workability

**2)** Increases the quantity of water and sand

**3)** Affects the durability of concrete

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 71:** For the construction of cement concrete dams, the maximum permissible size of the aggregates is

**Options:**

**1)** Greatest surface area for the given cement and aggregates

**2)** Least surface area for the given cement and aggregates

**3)** Least weight for the given cement and aggregates

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Greatest surface area for the given cement and aggregates

**Q 72:** For given workability the grade requiring the least amount of water is one that gives

**Options:**

**1)** Greatest surface area for the given cement and aggregates

**2)** Least surface area for the given cement and aggregates

**3)** Least weight for the given cement and aggregates

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Greatest surface area for the given cement and aggregates

**Q 73:** The type of aggregates same nominal size, which contains less voids when compacted are

**Options:**

**1)** Rounded spherical

**2)** Irregular

**3)** Flaky

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Rounded spherical

**Q 74:** For quality control of Portland cement the test essentially done is

**Options:**

**1)** Setting time

**2)** Soundness

**3)** Tensile strength

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 75:** Pick up the correct statement from the following

**Options:**

**1)** The percentage of voids in the aggregate after proper compaction is called the angularity number

**2)** Angular aggregate are superior to rounded aggregate

**3)** The surface texture depends upon the hardness, grain size, free structure and the structure of the rock

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers**

**Q 76:** No shrinkage occurs if the concrete is placed in a relative humidity of

**Options:**

**1)** 1

**2)** 0.85

**3)** 0.7

**4)** 0.5

**Answer:** 1

**Q 77:** Argillaceous materials are those

**Options:**

**1)** Which have alumina as the main constituent

**2)** Which have lime as the main constituent

**3)** Which evolve heat on the addition of water

**4)** Which easily break when hammered lightly

**Answer:** Which have alumina as the main constituent

**Q 78:** Spot the odd statement:

**Options:**

**1)** Rounded aggregate

**2)** Irregular or partly rounded aggregate

**3)** Angular flaky aggregate

**4)** Single-size aggregate

**Answer:** Single-size aggregate

**Q 79:** If **d** and **n** are the effective depth and depth of the neutral axis respectively of a singly reinforced beam, the lever arm of the beam, is

**Options:**

**1)** d

**2)** n

**3)** d + n/3

**4)** d – n/3

**Answer:** d – n/3

**Q 80:** Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. The intensity of horizontal shear stress at the element part of a beam section, is directly proportional to

**Options:**

**1)** Shear force

**2)** Area of the section

**3)** Distance of the C.G. of the area from its neutral axis

**4)** Moment of the beam section about its neutral axis

**Answer:** Moment of the beam section about its neutral axis

**Q 81:** If the average stress 6 kg/cm^{2} for M 150 grade concrete, the length of embedment of a bar of diameter d according to I.S. 456 specifications is

**Options:**

**1)** 28 d

**2)** 38 d

**3)** 48 d

**4)** 58 d

**Answer:** 58 d

**Q 82:** A singly reinforced concrete beam of 25 cm width and 70 cm effective depth is provided with 18.75 cm^{2} steel. If the modular ratio (m) is 15, the depth of the neutral axis, is

**Options:**

**1)** 20 cm

**2)** 25 cm

**3)** 30 cm

**4)** 35 cm

**Answer:** 30 cm

**Q 83:** If the neutral axis of a T-beam is below the slab, the relationship between the flange width B, depth of neutral axis n, thickness of the slab d_{s}, effective depth of the beam d, gross area of tensile steel A_{t} and the modular ratio m may be stated as

**Options:**

**1)** Bd_{s} (n – d_{s}/2) = mAt(d+n)

**2)** Bd_{s} (n + d_{s}/2) = mAt(d-n)

**3)** Bd_{s} (n – d_{s}/2) = mAt(d-n)

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Bd_{s} (n – d_{s}/2) = mAt(d-n)

**Q 84:** In a simply supported slab, alternate bars are curtailed at

**Options:**

**1)** 1/4^{th} of the span

**2)** 1/5^{th} of the span

**3)** 1/6^{th} of the span

**4)** 1/7^{th} of the span

**Answer:** 1/7^{th} of the span

**Q 85:** In a slab, the pitch of the main reinforcement should not exceed its effective depth

**Options:**

**1)** Three times

**2)** Four times

**3)** Five times

**4)** Two times

**Answer:** Three times

**Q 86:** In a combined footing if shear exceeds 5 kg/cm^{2}, the nominal stirrups provided are

**Options:**

**1)** 6 legged

**2)** 8 legged

**3)** 10 legged

**4)** 12 legged

**Answer:** 12 legged

**Q 87:** To ensure that the hogging bending moment at two points of suspension of a pile of length L equals the sagging moment at its center, the distance of the points of suspension from either end is

**Options:**

**1)** 0.107 L

**2)** 0.207 L

**3)** 0.307 L

**4)** 0.407 L

**Answer:** 0.207 L

**Q 88:** To have pressure wholly compressive under the base of a retaining wall if width b, the resultant of the weight of the wall and the pressure exerted by the retained, earth should have eccentricity not more than

**Options:**

**1)** b/3

**2)** b/4

**3)** b/5

**4)** b/6

**Answer:** b/6

**Q 89:** The ratio of the length and diameter of a simply supported uniform circular beam which experiences maximum bending stress equal to tensile stress due to same load at its mid span is

**Options:**

**1)** 1/8

**2)** 1/4

**3)** 1/2

**4)** 1/3

**Answer:** 1/2

**Q 90:** The ratio of the deflections of the free end of a cantilever due to an isolated load at 1/3rd and 2/3rd of the span is

**Options:**

**1)** 1/7

**2)** 2/7

**3)** 3/7

**4)** 2/5

**Answer:** 2/7

**Q 91:** A compound bar consists of two bars of equal length. Steel bar cross bar cross-section is 3500 mm^{2} and that of brass bar is 3000 mm^{2}. These are subjected to a Compressive load 100,000 N. If E_{b} = 0.2 MN/mm^{2}, the stresses developed are

**Options:**

**1)** σ_{b} = 10 N/mm^{2}, σ_{s} = 20 N/mm^{2}

**2)** σ_{b} = 8 N/mm^{2}, σ_{s} = 16 N/mm^{2}

**3)** σ_{b} = 6 N/mm^{2}, σ_{s} = 12 N/mm^{2}

**4)** σ_{b} = 5 N/mm^{2}, σ_{s} = 10 N/mm^{2}

**Answer:** σ_{b} = 10 N/mm^{2}, σ_{s} = 20 N/mm^{2}

**Q 92:** The radius of gyration of rectangular section (depth D, width B) from a centroidal axis parallel to the width is

**Options:**

**1)** D/2

**2)** D/√2

**3)** D/(2√3)

**4)** D/(4√3)

**Answer:** D/(2√3)

**Q 93:** For determining the force in AB of the truss shown in the figure below by method of sections, the section is made to pass through AB, AD and ED and the moments are taken about

**Options:**

**1)** Joint C

**2)** Joint B

**3)** Joint D

**4)** Joint A

**Answer:** Joint D

**Q 94:** The force in CD of the truss shown in the figure

**Options:**

**1)** 3t compression

**2)** 3t tension

**3)** Zero

**4)** 1.5t compression

**Answer:** Zero

**Q 95:** A shaft rotating N.R.M. under a torque T, transmits a power of

**Options:**

**1)** TπN/30 Newton meters/sec

**2)** TπN/30 Newton meters/min

**3)** TπN/60 Newton meters/min

**4)** TπN/60 Newton meters/sec

**Answer:** TπN/30 Newton meters/sec

**Q 96:** The greatest load which a spring can carry without getting permanently distorted is called

**Options:**

**1)** Stiffness

**2)** Proof resilience

**3)** Proof stress

**4)** Proof load

**Answer:** Proof load

**Q 97:** In case of a simply supported I – section beam of span L and loaded with a central load W, the length of elasto-plastic zone of the plastic hinge is

**Options:**

**1)** L/2

**2)** L/3

**3)** L/4

**4)** L/5

**Answer:** L/5

**Q 98:** The horizontal thrust on the ends of a two-hinged semicircular arch of radius R carrying

**Options:**

**1)** A Uniformly distributed load w per unit run over its right half span is (2/3)*(wR/π)

**2)** A uniformly distributed load w per unit run over its entire span is (4/3)*(wR/π)

**3)** A distributed load varying from zero at the left end to w per unit horizontal run at the right end, is (2/3)*(wR/π)

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 99:** If a three-hinged parabolic arch, (span I, rise h) is carrying a uniformly distributed load w/unit length over the entire span,

**Options:**

**1)** Horizontal thrust is (wl^{2})/8h

**2)** Shear Force will be zero throughout

**3)** Bending Moment will be zero throughout

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 100:** The equivalent length of a column of length L having both the end fixed is

**Options:**

**1)** 2L

**2)** L

**3)** L/2

**4)** L/√2

**Answer:** L/2

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers**

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]]>**Q 1:** Which one of the following brick is suitable for the high-class brick masonry ?

**Options:**

**1)** Bull nose bricks

**2)** Jhumb bricks

**3)** Modular bricks

**4)** Under burnt bricks

**Answer:** Modular bricks

**Q 2:** Which of the following is the correct reason for soaking the brick in water before its use ?

**Options:**

**1)** For preventing adsorption of moisture from mortar by bricks

**2)** For reducing air void

**3)** For reducing efflorescence

**4)** For cleaning

**Answer:** For preventing adsorption of moisture from mortar by bricks

**Q 3:** Which of the following compound affects the ultimate strength of cement ?

**Options:**

**1)** Dicalcium silicate

**2)** Tetracalcium alumino-ferrite

**3)** Tricalcium aluminate

**4)** Tricalcium silicate

**Answer:** Dicalcium silicate

**Q 4:** Refractory bricks are generally used to resist_____.

**Options:**

**1)** Chemical action

**2)** Dampness

**3)** High temperature

**4)** Weathering action

**Answer:** High temperature

**Q 5:** Which of the following is the correct percentage of maximum moisture content based in sand where change in volume is maximum ?

**Options:**

**1)** 5%

**2)** 9%

**3)** 12%

**4) **15%

**Answer:** 5%

**Q 6:** Which one of the following cement is best for the marine works ?

**Options:**

**1)** Blast furnace slag cement

**2)** High alumina cement

**3)** Low heat Portland cement

**4)** Rapid hardening cement

**Answer:** Blast furnace slag cement

**Q 7:** Which of the following is limit of the moisture content that can be achieved in the air drying process of timber ?

**Options:**

**1)** 10%

**2)** 15%

**3)** 20%

**4)** 28%

**Answer:** 15%

**Q 8: **Which of the following proportion of cement and standard sand is used in cement mortar while testing the compressive and tensile strength of cement ?

**Options:**

**1)** 1:2

**2)** 1:3

**3)** 1:4

**4)** 1:6

**Answer:** 1:3

**Q 9:** Which of the following is the important factor that affects the shrinkage of cement concrete ?

**Options:**

**1)** Quantity of cement

**2)** Size of coarse aggregates

**3)** Size of the fine aggregate

**4)** Amount of water added during mixing of concrete

**Answer:** Amount of water added during mixing of concrete

**Q 10:** Calculate the proportion (in percentage) of fine aggregate in combined aggregate so that the fineness modulus of the combined aggregate becomes 6.4. The fitness modulus of coarse aggregate and fine aggregate in the concrete mix is 7.6 and 2.8 respectively.

**Options:**

**1)** 20

**2)** 33.33

**3)** 35

**4)** 66.6

**Answer:** 33.3

**Q 11:** Which of the following unit is used for estimation of D.P.C. work ?

**Options:**

**1)** Number

**2)** Cubic meter

**3)** Running meter

**4)** Square meter

**Answer: ** Square meter

**Q 12:** Calculate the quantity of the sand required (in cubic meter) in 20 cubic meters of reinforced cement concrete (1:2:4).

**Options:**

**1)** 2.87

**2)** 4.4

**3)** 5.7

**4)** 8.8

**Answer:** 8.8

**Q 13:** Deduction at cross wall for total length of the central line is______.

**Options:**

**1)** Half of thickness of wall

**2)** No deduction

**3)** Thickness of wall

**4)** Twice of the thickness of wall

**Answer:** Thickness of wall

**Q 14:** Calculate the quantity of the earth works in cubic meter for a canal embankment of 100 m long having cross section areas at the two sections are 20 Square meters and 80 square meters. Use trapezoidal method.

**Options:**

**1)** 2000

**2)** 5000

**3)** 7000

**4)** 10000

**Answer:** 5000

**Q 15:** Accuracy in measurement of the area should be_____.

**Options:**

**1)** 1 square centimeter

**2)** 10 square centimeter

**3)** 100 square centimeter

**4)** 1 square meter

**Answer:** 100 square centimeter

**Q 16:** For estimation of painted area of corrugated asbestos cement sheets, percentage increase in area above the painted area is_____.

**Options:**

**1)** 10%

**2)** 14%

**3)** 20%

**4)** 25%

**Answer:** 20%

**Q 17:** Which of the following is the purpose of the valuation ?

**Options:**

**1)** Approximate estimation of cost

**2)** Analysis of rate

**3)** Detailed estimation of cost

**4)** Taxation

**Answer:** Taxation

**Q 18:** An electric generator is installed in the building at a cost of Rs. 50,000. Calculate the annual sinking fund (Rs.) required to be deposited to accumulate the whole amount of 5% compound interest. Assume the life of the electric generator as 10 years.

**Options:**

**1)** 1535

**2)** 30695

**3)** 3975

**4)** 79503

**Answer:** 3975

**Q 19:** No deduction is made for opening in estimation of masonry work up to______.

**Options:**

**1)** 1 square centimeter

**2)** 10 square centimeter

**3)** 100 square centimeter

**4)** 1000 square centimeter

**Answer:** 1000 square centimeter

**Q 20:** Calculate the weight (kg) per meter length of 25 mm diameter steel bar place at a spacing of 250 mm center by center for 1 meter.

**Options:**

**1)** 0.96

**2)** 3.85

**3)** 7.7

**4)** 15.43

**Answer:** 15.43

**Q 21:** Which one is the upper limit of survey area (square kilometer) for use of plane survey ?

**Options:**

**1)** 250

**2)** 300

**3)** 350

**4)** 450

**Answer:** 250

**Q 22: **Which one is the smallest scale ?

**Options:**

**1)** 1:100

**2)** 1:500

**3)** 1:1,000

**4)** 1:2,500

**Answer:** 1:2,500

**Q 23:** A line of true length 398 m when measured by a chain of 20m chain is recorded to be 400 m. What is the actual length of the chain (in m) ?

**Options:**

**1) **19.9

**2)** 20.1

**3) **20.4

**4)** 21.5

**Answer:** 19.9

**Q 24:** Calculate the correction for temperature for a tape of length ‘L’, if the increase in temperature is ‘T’ above the standard temperature. The coefficient of the temperature for tape material is ‘a’

**Options:**

**1)** aT / L

**2) **– aT / L

**3)** + aTL

**4)** – aTL

**Answer:** + aTL

**Q 25:** What is the correct sequence of the temporary adjustment of level ?

**Options:**

**1)** Centering, leveling and settling

**2)** Leveling, setting and centering

**3)** Setting, centering and leveling

**4)** Setting, leveling and centering

**Answer:** Setting, centering and leveling

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers**

**Q 26:** The values of whole circle bearing vary from______.

**Options:**

**1)** 0^{o} to 90^{o}

**2)** 0^{0} to 180^{o}

**3)** 0^{o} to 270^{o}

**4)** 0^{o} to 360^{o}

**Answer:** 0^{o} to 360^{o}

**Q 27:** Which of the following statement is correct for proper adjustment of the theodolite ?

**Options:**

**1)** Axis of plate level is perpendicular to the horizontal axis.

**2)** Line of collimation is perpendicular to the horizontal axis.

**3)** Line of collimation is parallel to the vertical axis.

**4)** Line of collimation is perpendicular to the vertical axis.

**Answer:** Line of collimation is perpendicular to the horizontal axis.

**Q 28:** Which of the following are correct for sensitivity of the bubble tube ?

**Options:**

**1)** Sensitivity decreases with increase in internal radius of the tube.

**2)** Sensitivity decreases with increase with increase in diameter of the tube.

**3)** Sensitivity increase with decrease in length of the tube.

**4)** Sensitivity increases with decrease in viscosity of the liquid.

**Answer:** Sensitivity increases with decrease in viscosity of the liquid.

**Q 29:** Calculate the curvature correction (in m) if distance between the instrument and staff is 500 m.

**Options:**

**1)** 0.0196

**2)** – 0.0196

**3)** 0.0028

**4)** – 0.0028

**Answer:** – 0.0196

**Q 30:** Calculate the volume of the earthwork (in cubic meter) using trapezoidal method if the cross section areas of the three section of embankment at an interval of 20 m are 40 square meters, 50 square meters and 80 square meters.

**Options:**

**1)** 1067

**2)** 1700

**3)** 2200

**4)** 3200

**Answer:** 2200

sp;

**Q 31:** The_____soil transported by the gravitational forces.

**Options:**

**1)** Alluvial soil

**2)** Colluvial soil

**3)** Loess

**4)** Till

**Answer:** Colluvial soil

**Q 32:** Which of the following is determined with the help of pycnometer ?

**Options:**

**1)** Dry density and specific gravity

**2)** Void ratio and dry density

**3)** Water content and specific gravity

**4)** Water content and void ratio

**Answer:** Water content and specific gravity

**Q 33:** The cell pressure and pore water pressure is increased from 0.1 N/sq. m to 0.26 N/sq. m and 0.07 N/sq.m respectively in the triaxial test. The Skempton’s pore pressure parameter is given by_____.

**Options:**

**1)** – 3

**2)** – 0.5

**3)** 0.5

**4)** 2

**Answer:** 0.5

**Q 34:** Which one of the following shows time factor (approximate), for 50% degree of consolidation ?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.2

**2)** 0.5

**3)** 1

**4)** 2

**Answer:** 0.2

**Q 35:** Which one of the following is true about ideal fluid ?

**Options:**

**1)** It is compressible.

**2)** It is incompressible.

**3)** It has high sheer force.

**4)** It has high value of viscosity.

**Answer:** It is incompressible.

**Q 36:** The diameter of droplet is 0.075 mm. What is the intensity of the pressure (N.sq. cm) developed in the droplet by surface tension of 0.000075 N/mm ?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.4

**2)** 0.6

**3)** 0.8

**4)** 1

**Answer:** 0.4

**Q 37:** A rectangular block of dimensions 2 m **x** 1 m **x** 1 m is floating in the water with immersing depth of 0.5 m. What is the weight of block (kN) if unit weight of water is 10 kN/cubic meter.

**Options:**

**1)** 5

**2)** 10

**3)** 15

**4)** 20

**Answer:** 10

**Q 38:** On which principle equation of continuity is based ?

**Options:**

**1)** Conservation of energy

**2)** Conservation of mass

**3)** Conservation of momentum

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** Conservation of mass

**Q 39:** If Reynolds numbers are 1000,000, then what is the approximate value of friction for the smooth pipe ?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.1

**2)** 0.01

**3)** 0.001

**4)** 0.0001

**Answer:** 0.01

**Q 40:** Which one of the following is correct for impulse turbine ?

**Options:**

**1)** Always operates in submerged condition

**2)** Converts pressure head into velocity with the help of vanes

**3)** Operates by initial complete conversion to kinetic energy

**4)** Operates by initial complete conversion to potential energy

**Answer:** Operates by initial complete conversion to kinetic energy

**Q 41:** When the water drawn from the central hole made in wash hand basin, the type of flow of water is_____.

**Options:**

**1)** Forced vortex

**2)** Free vortex

**3)** Tangential flow

**4)** Transitional flow

**Answer:** Free vortex

**Q 42:** Which of the following turbine is suitable to generate the power of 10,000 hp, working at the speed of 500 rpm under a head of 81 m ?

**Options:**

**1)** Propeller

**2)** Francis

**3)** Kaplan

**4)** Pelton

**Answer:** Francis

**Q 43:** Calculate the specific energy (m-kg / kg) of the flow if the velocity of flow is 2.22 m/s and depth of flow is 1 m.

**Options:**

**1)** 1.25

**2)** 2.22

**3)** 3.22

**4)** 4.22

**Answer:** 1.25

**Q 44:** The sphere of diameter 0.02 m is falls in the fluid of kinematic viscosity 10 stokes with the terminal velocity of 0.02 m/s. What is the value of coefficient of drag on the falling sphere ?

**Options:**

**1)** 40

**2)** 60

**3)** 80

**4)** 100

**Answer:** 60

**Q 45:** As one moves from head of the canal to the field, the duty of the water_____.

**Options:**

**1)** Decreases

**2)** Either increases or decreases

**3)** Increases

**4)** Remains constant

**Answer:** Increases

**Q 46:** Which of the following is the correct assumption of the kennedy’s theory ?

**Options:**

**1)** Shape of regime channel is semicircular.

**2)** Slit is in Suspension due to buoyancy force.

**3)** Slit is in suspension due to eddy formed from bottom of channel.

**4)** Slit is in suspension due to eddy formed from wetted perimeter of channel.

**Answer:** Slit is in suspension due to eddy formed from bottom of channel.

**Q 47:** What is the value of the lateral coefficient of the friction as per the IRC ?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.007

**2)** 0.01

**3)** 0.15

**4)** 0.3

**Answer:** 0.15

**Q 48: **Calculate the safe stopping sight distance (in m) for the descending gradient of 3% for a design speed of 80 km/h. Take coefficient of friction as 0.35 and total reaction time as 2 seconds.

**Options:**

**1)** 110.82

**2)** 123.26

**3)** 1018.41

**4)** 1092

**Answer:** 123.26

**Q 49:** Which of the following is the minimum limit (ppm) of the dissolved oxygen that must be in the water for survival of aquatic life ?

**Options:**

**1)** 1

**2)** 4

**3)** 10

**4)** 40

**Answer:** 4

**Q 50:** A stream has flow of 20 cumecs and BOD concentration of 10 mg/l receives the industrial waste water having flow of 1.5 cumecs and BOD concentration of 250 mg/l. What is the BOD concentration (mg/l) of stream at downstream point of meeting of stream with industrial waste ?

**Options:**

**1)** 2.67

**2)** 12.09

**3)** 13

**4)** 26.74

**Answer:** 26.74

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers**

**Q 51:** A riveted joint may experience

**Options:**

**1)** Shear failure

**2)** Shear failure of plates

**3)** Bearing failure

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 52:** If p and d are pitch and gross diameter of rivets, the efficiency (η) of the riveted joint is given by

**Options:**

**1)** η = p/(p-d)

**2)** η = p/(p+d)

**3)** η = (p-d)/p

**4)** η = (p+d)/p

**Answer:** η = (p-d)/p

**Q 53:** If the moment of inertia of a section about its axis is **I** and its effective sectional area is A, its radius of gyration **r** about the axis is

**Options:**

**1)** r = I/A

**2)** r = √(I/A)

**3)** r = √(A/I)

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** r = √(I/A)

**Q 54:** Allowable working stress corresponding to the slenderness ratio of double angles placed back to back and connected to one side of a gusset plate is reduced to

**Options:**

**1)** 50%

**2)** 60%

**3)** 70%

**4)** 80%

**Answer:** 80%

**Q 55:** According to I.S. : 800 – 1871, lacing bars resist transverse shear equal to______.

**Options:**

**1)** 1.0% of the axial load

**2)** 2.0% of the axial load

**3)** 2.5% of the axial load

**4)** 3.0% of the axial load

**Answer:** 2.5% of the axial load

**Q 56:** Pick up the correct statement from the following

**Options:**

**1)** Loaded columns are supported on column bases

**2)** Column bases transmit the column load to the concrete foundation

**3)** Column load is spread over a large area on concrete

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 57:** In the composition of good bricks, the total content of slit and clay, by weight should not be less than

**Options:**

**1)** 20%

**2)** 30%

**3)** 50%

**4)** 75%

**Answer:** 50%

**Q 58:** In factory buildings, the horizontal beams spanning between the wall columns supporting a wall covering are called

**Options:**

**1)** Stringers

**2)** Trimmers

**3)** Girts

**4)** Lintels

**Answer:** Girts

**Q 59:** The average shear stress (in kg/ cm^{2}) for rolled beam section, is

**Options:**

**1)** 845

**2)** 945

**3)** 1025

**4)** 1500

**Answer:** 945

**Q 60:** Web crippling generally occurs at the point where

**Options:**

**1)** Bending moment is maximum

**2)** Shearing force is minimum

**3)** Concentrated loads act

**4)** Deflection is maximum

**Answer:** Concentrated loads act

**Q 61:** The strength and quality of concrete, depends upon:

**Options:**

**1)** Grading of aggregates

**2)** Surface area of aggregates

**3)** Shape of aggregates

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 62:** The process of adding water to lime to convert it into a hydrated lime is termed as :

**Options:**

**1)** Watering

**2)** Baking

**3)** Hydration

**4)** Slaking

**Answer:** Slaking

**Q 63:** If aggregates completely pass through a sleve of size 75 mm and are retained on a sleve of size 60 mm, the aggregates will be known as elongated aggregate if its length is not less than

**Options:**

**1)** 81.5 mm

**2)** 91.5 mm

**3)** 101.5 mm

**4)** 121.5 mm

**Answer:** 121.5 mm

**Q 64:** The calcinations of pure lime result in:

**Options:**

**1)** Quick lime

**2)** Hydraulic lime

**3)** Hydrated lime

**4)** Fat lime

**Answer:** Quick lime

**Q 65:** Pick up the correct statement from the following

**Options:**

**1)** An increase in water content must be accompanied by an increase in cement content

**2)** Angular and rough aggregates reduce the workability of the concrete

**3)** Large size aggregates increase the workability due to lesser surface area

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 66:** According to I.S. 456, the number of grades of standard concrete mixes are

**Options:**

**1)** 3

**2)** 5

**3)** 6

**4)** 7

**Answer:** 7

**Q 67:** Curing a concrete for long period ensures better

**Options:**

**1)** Volume stability

**2)** Strength

**3)** Water resistance

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 68:** The main object of compaction of concrete is

**Options:**

**1)** To eliminate air holes

**2)** To achieve maximum density

**3)** To provide intimate contact between the concrete and embedded materials.

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 69:** Construction joints are provided

**Options:**

**1)** Where B.M and S.F are small

**2)** Where the member is supported by other member

**3)** At 18 m apart in huge structures

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 70:** Pick up the correct statement from the following

**Options:**

**1)** Construction Joints are necessarily planned for their locations

**2)** Expansion joints are provided to accommodate thermal expansion

**3)** Construction joints are provided to control shrinkage cracks

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 71:** Grading of sand causes great variation in

**Options:**

**1)** Workability of concrete

**2)** Strength of concrete

**3)** Durability of concrete

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 72:** The light weight aggregates are obtained from

**Options:**

**1)** Sedimentary rocks

**2)** Metamorphic rocks

**3)** Igneous rocks

**4)** Volcanic source

**Answer:** Volcanic source

**Q 73:** The bulk density of aggregates depends upon its

**Options:**

**1)** Shape

**2)** Grading

**3)** Compaction

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 74:** Batching error means inaccuracy in the quantity of

**Options:**

**1)** Aggregates

**2)** Cement

**3)** Water

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 75:** The center needle of the attachment of the Vicat plunger projects the circular cutting edge by

**Options:**

**1)** 0.2 mm

**2)** 0.5 mm

**3)** 1 mm

**4)** 5 mm

**Answer:** 0.5 mm

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers**

**Q 76:** The flakiness index of aggregates is the percentage by weight of particles in it whose thickness is less than______.

**Options:**

**1)** 2/5th of mean length

**2)** 3/5th of mean length

**3)** 4/5th of mean length

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** 3/5th of mean length

**Q 77:** The field test for the quality of cement consists in putting a small quantity of cement in a bucket containing water. A good quality cement will:

**Options:**

**1)** Immediately dissolve in the water

**2)** Float on the water surface

**3)** Sink to the bottom of the bucket

**4)** Produce the steam

**Answer:** Float on the water surface

**Q 78:** For the repair of roads

**Options:**

**1)** Low-heat cement is used

**2)** Rapid-hardening cement is used

**3)** High-alumina cement is used

**4)** Sulphate-resisting cement is used

**Answer:** Rapid-hardening cement is used

**Q 79:** The advantage of reinforced concrete, is due to

**Options:**

**1)** Monolithic character

**2)** Fire-resisting and durability

**3)** Economy because of less maintenance cost

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 80:** By over-reinforcing a beam, the moment of resistance can be increased not more than

**Options:**

**1)** 10%

**2)** 15%

**3)** 20%

**4)** 25%

**Answer:** 25%

**Q 81:** Spacing of stirrups in a rectangular beam, is

**Options:**

**1)** Kept constant throughout the length

**2)** Decreased towards the centre of the beam

**3) **Increased at the ends

**4) **Increased at the center of the beam

**Answer:** Increased at the center of the beam

**Q 82:** The radius of a bar bend to form a hook should not be less than

**Options:**

**1)** Twice the diameter

**2)** Thrice the diameter

**3)** Four times the diameter

**4)** Five times the diameter

**Answer:** Twice the diameter

**Q 83:** Steel bars are generally connected together to get greater length than the standard length by providing

**Options:**

**1)** Straight bar splice

**2)** Hooked splice

**3)** Dowel splice

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 84:** The diameter of longitudinal bars of a column should never be less than

**Options:**

**1)** 6 mm

**2)** 8 mm

**3)** 10 mm

**4)** 12 mm

**Answer:** 12 mm

**Q 85:** The maximum ratio of span to depth of a slab simply supported and spanning in two directions is

**Options:**

**1)** 25

**2)** 30

**3)** 35

**4)** 40

**Answer:** 35

**Q 86:** For a continuous slab supported at ends and carried over intermediate beams

**Options:**

**1) **Max. sagging B.M. for the end spans = +(wl^{2})/10

**2)** Max. hogging B.M. over penultimate supports is equal to –(wl^{2})/10

**3)** Max. sagging B.M. for the interior spans = + (wl^{2})/12

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 87:** The advantage of a concrete pile over a timber pile is

**Options:**

**1)** No decay due to termites

**2)** No restriction on length

**3)** Higher bearing capacity

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 88:** A raft foundation is provided if its area exceeds the plan area of the building by

**Options:**

**1)** 10%

**2)** 20%

**3)** 30%

**4)** 50%

**Answer:** 50%

**Q 89:** The forces in the members of simple trusses may be analysed by

**Options:**

**1)** Graphical method

**2)** Method of joints

**3)** Method of sections

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 90:** A rolled steel joist is simply supported at its end and carries a uniformly distributed load which causes a maximum deflection of 10 mm and slope at the ends of 0.002 radian. The length of the joist will be

**Options:**

**1)** 10 m

**2)** 12 m

**3)** 14 m

**4)** 16 m

**Answer:** 16 m

**Q 91:** A lift of weight W is lifted by a rope with an acceleration f. If the area of cross-section of the rope is A, the stress in the rope is

**Options:**

**1)** w (1+f/g)/A

**2)** (1-g/f)/A

**3)** w (2+f/g)/A

**4)** w (2+g /f)/A

**Answer:** w (1+f/g)/A

**Q 92:** A material which obey’s Hooke’s law is subjected to direct stress σ_{o}. At its elastic limit, which of the following statements is true ?

**Options:**

**1)** Strain is equal to σ_{o}/E

**2)** Maximum shear stress = σ_{o}/2

**3)** Strain energy = (σ_{o}^{2}/2E) x volume

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 93:** Keeping the depth **d** constant, the width of a cantilever of length **l** of uniform strength loaded with a uniformly distributed load w varies from zero at the free end and

**Options:**

**1)** (2w/σd^{2}) * l^{2} at the fixed end

**2)** (3w/σd^{2}) * l^{2} at the fixed end

**3)** (3w/σd) * l^{2} at the fixed end

**4)** (5w/σd^{2}) * l^{2} at the fixed end

**Answer:** (3w/σd) * l^{2} at the fixed end

**Q 94:** The force in EC of the truss shown in the figure below is

**Options:**

**1)** Zero

**2)** 5t tension

**3)** 5t Compression

**4)** 4t tension

**Answer:** 5t Compression

**Q 95:** In the cable shown in the figure below, the minimum tension occurs at

**Options:**

**1)** A

**2)** B

**3)** C

**4)** Between A and C

**Answer:** C

**Q 96:** A shaft is subjected to a bending moment M and a torque T simultaneously. The ratio of the maximum bending stress to maximum shear stress developed in the shaft is

**Options:**

**1)** M/T

**2)** T/M

**3)** 2M/T

**4)** 2T/M

**Answer:** 2M/T

**Q 97:** The shape factor of standard rolled beam section varies from

**Options:**

**1)** 1.10 to 1.20

**2)** 1.20 to 1.30

**3)** 1.30 to 1.40

**4)** 1.40 to 1.50

**Answer:** 1.10 to 1.20

**Q 98:** In plastic analysis, the shape factor for a triangular section is

**Options:**

**1)** 1.5

**2)** 1.34

**3)** 2.34

**4)** 25

**Answer:** 2.34

**Q 99:** Shear center of a half circular section of radius r and of constant thickness, lies at a distance of x from the center, where **x** is

**Options:**

**1)** r/π

**2)** 2r/ π

**3)** 3r/ π

**4)** 4r/ π

**Answer:** 4r/ π

**Q 100:** A three hinged arch is generally hinged at its supports and

**Options:**

**1)** At one quarter span

**2)** At the crown

**3)** Anywhere in the rib

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Anywhere in the rib

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers**

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]]>**Q1:** The defect that is caused by falling of rain water on the hot surfaces of the bricks is known as______.

**Options:**

1) Bloating

2) chuffs

3) Cracks

4) lamination

**Answer: **chuffs

**Q2:** Which of the following property of bitumen is related to the Pensky-Marten test?

**Options:**

1) Ductility

2) Softening point

3) Flash and fire point

4) Viscosity

**Answer: **Flash and fire point

**Q3:** The defect in timber that arises due to the swelling caused by growth of layers of sap wood over the wounds after branch is cut off is called as_______.

**Options:**

1) checks

2) knots

3) shakes

4) rind gall

**Answer: **rind gall

**Q4:** Which of the following is the measure of ease with which the wood may split?

**Options:**

1) Cleavability

2) Shearing strength

3) Stiffness

4) Toughness

**Answer: **Cleavability

**Q5: **The get space ratio of a concrete sample is given as 0.589.

What is the theoretical strength (N/mm^{2}) of that concrete sample ?

**Options:
**1) 49.04

2) 65.71

3) 104.03

4) 116.8

**Options:**

**1)**

**2)**

**3)**

**4)**

**Answer: **

**Q7:** The aggregate which is obtained from the seashore or rivers and produces minimum voids in the concrete is known as_______.

**Options:**

1) angular aggregates

2) flaky aggregates

3) irregular aggregates

4) rounded aggregates

**Answer: **rounded aggregates

**Q8:** The detachment of the paint film from the surface is known as _____.

**Options:**

1) chalking

2) cracking

3) flaking

4) wrinkling

**Answer: **flaking

**Q9:** Which of the following is the homogeneous solution of resins in the alcohol?

**Options:**

**1)** Distemper

**2)** Enamel paint

**3)** Plastic paint

**4)** Varnish

**Answer: **Varnish

**Q10:** In the softening point test of the bitumen with the help of ring and ball apparatus, what is the diametre (cm) of the steel ball?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.35

**2)** 0.65

**3)** 0.95

**4)** 1.25

**Answer: **0.95

**Q11:** Which of the following is the CORRECT statement for length of the short wall, as one move from earthwork to brick work in super structure in long and short wall method?

**Options:**

1) Its value decreases

2) Its value depends upon the length of the wall.

3) Its value increases.

4) Its value remains same.

**Answer: **Its value increases.

**Q12:** Which of the following is the unit of measurement for rivets?

**Options:**

1) Bags

2) Cubic meter

3) Numbers

4) Quintal

**Answer: **Quintal

**Q13:** Which of the following statement is CORRECT for units of measurement?

**Options:**

1) Bands of specified width are measured in running meter.

2) Work consists of the linear measurement and is measured in square meter.

3) Single units are measured in meter.

4) Work consists of areal surface and is measured in cubic meter.

**Answer: **Work consists of areal surface and is measured in cubic meter.

**Q14:** Which of the following area is NOT included in the plinth area of the building?

**Options:**

1) Area of the lofts.

2) Area of Barsati at terrace level.

3) Area of walls at floor level.

4) Porches of non-cantilever type.

**Answer: **Area of the lofts.

**Q15:** Which of the following multiplying factor is used for the estimation of lead for Cartze tracks?

**Options:**

1) 0.8

2) 1

3) 1.1

4) 1.2

**Answer: **1.1

** **

**Q16:** Threading in the iron is measured in _____.

**Options:**

1) centimeter

2) kilogram

3) number

4) square centimeter

**Answer: **centimeter

**Q17:** Calculate the cost (Rs.) of 100 mm thick brick lining of a septic tank of size 5 m x 3 m x 1.5 m, if the rate of lining is Rs. 200 per square meter.

**Options:**

1) 4500

2) 4800

3) 5400

4) 7800

**Answer: **7800

**Q18:** Calculate the annual percentage depreciation of a machine using the constant percentage method, if purchasing cost is Rs. 12,000 and scrap value is Rs 3,000 and the life of the machine is 8 years.

**Options:**

1) 9.37

2) 16

3) 26.67

4) 33.33

**Answer: **16

**Q19:** The number of the bricks delivered by an unskilled labour to a distance of 10 m in a working day is approximately _____.

**Options:**

1) 1500

2) 2200

3) 4200

4) 5500

**Answer: **4200

**Q20:** Calculate the quantity (cubic meter) of fine aggregate required for construction of a circular water tank of 3.5 m diameter and 5 m height, if M 25 cement concrete is used.

**Options:**

1) 12

2) 18.5

3) 37

4) 48

**Answer: **37

**Q21:** Which type of error is represented by a closed traverse, if the algebraic sum of latitude of all the lines is zero?

**Options:**

1) Compensating error

2) Negative error

3) No error

4) Positive error

**Answer: **No error

**Q22:** The difference between the fore bearing and back bearing for any station is equal to _____.

**Options:**

1) external angle

2) either external or internal angle

3) internal angle

4) right angle

**Answer: **either external or internal angle

**Q23:** Which of the following statement is CORRECT when the theodolite is properly adjusted?

**Options:**

1) Horizontal line passes through the centre of the horizontal circle.

2) Tangent to plate bubble must be perpendicular to horizontal axis.

3) Tangent to plate bubble must be perpendicular to vertical axis.

4) Vertical line passes through the centre of the vertical circle.

**Answer: **Tangent to plate bubble must be perpendicular to vertical axis.

**Q24:** Which of the following test is used to make the horizontal axis perpendicular to the vertical axis?

**Options:**

1) Azimuth test

2) Cross hair ring test

3) Spire test

4) Vertical arc test

**Answer: **Spire test

**Q25:** For more precise prediction of the terrain relief, the contour interval should_____.

**Options:**

1) decrease continuously

2) increase continuously

3) be larger

4) be smaller

**Answer: **be smaller

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers**

**Q26:** The areas included by contour lines for a proposed dam are given as,

Contour (m) |
410 | 420 | 430 | 440 | 450 |

Area (hectares) |
205 | 120 | 145 | 95 | 135 |

**Options:**

1) 42000000

2) 53000000

3) 70000000

4) 80000000

**Answer: **53000000

**Q27:** Which of the following statement is CORRECT for estimating the corrected area from a map of shrunk factor ‘F’?

**Options:**

1) It is directly proportional to F.

2) It is directly proportional to square of F.

3) It is inversely proportional to F.

4) It is inversely proportional to square of F

**Answer: **It is inversely proportional to square of F

**Q28:** Which of the following leveling method is used to determine the difference of elevation of two points that are quite apart?

**Options:**

1) Check leveling

2) Fly leveling

3) Reciprocal leveling

4) Simple leveling

**Answer: **Reciprocal leveling

**Q29:** A level is set on a station at a distance of 500 m from point A and 800 m from point B. The staff readings on the staffs kept at point A and B are 1.55 m and 1.95 m respectively. Calculate the true difference in elevation of the point A and B.

**Options:**

1) 0.348

2) 0.374

3) 0.4

4) 0.426

**Answer: **0.374

**Q30:** Which of the following method estimates the best volume of earthwork of an irregular embankment?

**Options:**

1) Average ordinate method

2) Mid-ordinate method

3) Simpson’s method

4) Trapezoidal method

**Answer: **Simpson’s method

**Q31:** Which of the following represents the void ratio of soil sample whose porosity is 0.452?

**Options:**

1) 0.264

2) 0.561

3) 0.729

4) 0.825

**Answer: **0.825

**Q32:** The moisture content in a soil sample is 18.2% and specific gravity of the soil particles is given by 2.65. What is the void ratio for sample, if the soil is fully saturated?

**Options:**

1) 0.157

2) 0.291

3) 0.482

4) 0.634

**Answer: **0.482

**Q33:** If the degree of saturation of soil is given by 67.89%, what is the percentage of air content of the soil?

**Options:**

1) 10.5

2) 20.25

3) 32.11

4) 40.43

**Answer: **32.11

**Q34:** Which of the following expression represent the relative compaction of soil, where variables have their standard meanings?

**Options:**

**1)**

**2)**

**3)**

**4)** None of these

**Answer: **

**Q35:** The type of fluid in which flow and fluid properties does not change with time at any given location, is known as______.

**Options:**

1) non-uniform flow

2) rotational flow

3) steady flow

4) unsteady flow

**Answer: **steady flow

**Q36: **For a flow, the velocity components are given by u = (λxy^{2} – x^{3}y^{2}) and v = (x^{2}y^{3} – 3y^{3}). What is the value of** λ **for the possible flow field which includes steady incompressible flow ?

**Options:**

1) 3

2) 5

3) 7

4) 9

**Answer: **9

**Q37:** What is the value of angle (degree) between stream lines and equipotential lines at the point of intersection in the flow net?

**Options:**

1) 0

2) 45

3) 60

4) 90

**Answer: **90

**Q38:** What is the cross-sectional area (sq. m) of the channel, if its hydraulic radius and wetted perimeter is given as 300 cm and 860 cm respectively?

**Options:**

1) 10.5

2) 15.6

3) 25.8

4) 32.4

**Answer: **25.8

**Q39:** The flow in a channel is laminar and Reynolds number is given by 1200. What is the friction factor for the channel?

**Options:**

1) 0.001

2) 0.008

3) 0.023

4) 0.053

**Answer: **0.053

**Q40:** A circular pipe of diameter 0.5 m carries the discharge of 50 liters/s. The head loss due to friction in pipe is 0.15 m and friction factor for the pipe is given as 0.01. What is the length (m) of pipe?

**Options:**

1) 1150

2) 1860

3) 2263

4) 2785

**Answer: **2263

**Q41:** The Froude number for a hydraulic jump is 3.2, the type of jump is________.

**Options:**

1) oscillating jump

2) steady jump

3) strong jump

4) weak jump

**Answer: **oscillating jump

**Q42:** At a certain point, the absolute pressure and atmospheric pressure is given by 850 mm of Hg and 700 mm of Hg respectively. What is the value of gauge pressure (mm of Hg) at that point?

**Options:**

1) 50

2) 100

3) 150

4) 200

**Answer: **150

**Q43:** The head produced by a liquid of relative density 1.62 is equal to the pressure of 250 kPa. What is the head (m) produced by the liquid?

**Options:**

1) 5.04

2) 7.53

3) 15.73

4) 25.21

**Answer: **15.73

**Q44: **Which of the following expression represents the energy dissipated in the hydraulic jump ? y_{1} and y_{2} are the flow depth at supercritical flow and subcritical flow respectively.

**Q45:** Which of the following statement is CORRECT for duty of the water?

**Options:**

1) It increases with an increase in temperature.

2) It increases with an increase in wind speed.

3) It increases with an increase in humidity

4) It is not affected by climatic conditions.

**Answer: **It increases with an increase in humidity

**Q46:** Which of the following process includes spreading of an external material on the soils to increase infiltration and reduce evaporation?

**Options:**

1) Mulching

2) Paleo irrigation

3) Ploughing

4) Tillage

**Answer: **Mulching

**Q47:** The value of rigidity factor for design purpose, if the tyre pressure is greater than 0.7 MPa is ______.

**Options:**

1) greater than 1.

2) less than 1.

3) equal to 1

4) zero

**Answer: **less than 1.

**Q48:** Calculate the design rate of super elevation on a 3 degree horizontal curve for a narrow gauge track, if design velocity on the curve is 70 km/h.

**Options:**

1) 0.051

2) 0.07

3) 0.067

4) 0.112

**Answer: **0.051

**Q49:** The path taken by the continuous discharge of gaseous effluents emitted from chimney is commonly known as_____.

**Options:**

1) lapse rate

2) inversion

3) plume

4) None of these

**Answer: **plume

**Q50:** The measure of absorption or scattering of light by the suspended materials present in the water is known as______.

**Options:**

1) alkalinity

2) color

3) hardness

4) turbidity

**Answer: **turbidity

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers**

**Q51:** Number of rivets required in a joint is

**Options:**

1) load /shear strength of a rivet

2) load/bearing strength of a rivet

3) load/tearing strength of a rivet

4) None of these

**Answer: **None of these

**Q52:** Effective length of a column effectively held in position and restrained in direction at one end but neither held in position nor restrained in direction at the other end is

**Options:**

1) L

2) 0.67 L

3) 0.85 L

4) 2 L

**Answer: **2 L

**Q53:** A compression member consisting of angle sections may be a

**Options:**

1) continuous member

2) discontinuous single angle strut

3) discontinuous double angle strut

4) All option are correct

**Answer: **All option are correct

**Q54:** If the area of cross-section of a single angle discontinuous strut is 30 cm^{2} and allowable working stress corresponding to its slenderness ratio is 625 kg/cm2, the safe load carrying capacity of the member is

**Options:**

1) 10 tonnes

2) 12 tonnes

3) 15 tonnes

4) 18 tonnes

**Answer: **15 tonnes

**Q55:** If the depth of two column sections are equal, then the column splice is provided

**Options:**

1) with filler plates

2) with bearing plates

3) with filler and bearing plates

4) None of these

**Answer: **None of these

**Q56:** When a tension member is made of four angles with a plate as web, the allowance for holes is made as

**Options:**

1) two holes for each angle and one hole for the web

2) one hole for each angle and one hole for the web

3) one hole for each angle and two holes for the web

4) None of these

**Answer: **one hole for each angle and two holes for the web

**Q57:** The beam outside a wall up to floor level above it, is known as

**Options:**

1) rafter

2) lintel

3) spandrel beam

4) None of these

**Answer: **spandrel beam

**Q58:** For a rectangular section, the ratio of the maximum and average shear stresses is

**Options:**

1) 1.5

2) 2

3) 2.5

4) 3

**Answer: **1.5

**Q59:** For a cantilever beam of length L continuous at the support and unrestrained against torsion at the support and free at the end, the effective length ‘l’ is equal to

**Options:**

1) l = L

2) l = 2L

3) l = 0.5L

4) l = 3L

**Answer: **l = 3L

**Q60:** Spans of continuous fillers are considered approximately equal if the longest span does not exceed the shortest span by more than

**Options:**

1) 0.05

2) 0.1

3) 0.15

4) 0.2

**Answer: **0.15

**Q61:** Pick up the incorrect statement from the following

**Options:**

1) Admixtures accelerate hydration

2) Admixtures make concrete water proof

3) Admixtures make concrete acid proof

4) Admixtures give high strength

**Answer: **Admixtures accelerate hydration

**Q62:** Pick up the correct statement from the following

**Options:**

1) Calcium chloride acts as a retarder

2) Gypsum (calcium sulphate) acts as an accelerator

3) Gypsum (calcium sulphate) acts as a retarder

4) None of these

**Answer: **Gypsum (calcium sulphate) acts as a retarder

**Q63:** High temperature

**Options:**

1) increases the strength of concrete

2) decreases the strength of concrete

3) has no effect on the strength of concrete

4) None of these

**Answer: **decreases the strength of concrete

**Q64:** Reciprocal levelling eliminates:-

**Options:**

1) Collimation error

2) Collimation, curvature and refraction error

3) curvature and refraction error

4) curvature error fully and refraction error partly

**Answer: **curvature error fully and refraction error partly

**Q65:** Proper proportioning of concrete, ensures

**Options:**

1) desired strength and workability

2) desired durability

3) water tightness of the structure

4) All option are correct

**Answer: **All option are correct

**Q66:** Curing

**Options:**

1) reduces the shrinkage of concrete

2) preserves the properties of concrete

3) prevents the loss of water by evaporation

4) All option are correct

**Answer: **All option are correct

**Q67:** If the effective working time is 7 hours and per batch time of concrete is 3 minutes, the output of a concrete mixer (in litres) of 150-liter capacity is

**Options:**

1) 15900

2) 16900

3) 17900

4) 18900

**Answer: **18900

**Q68:** The operation of removing humps and hollows of uniform concrete surface is known as

**Options:**

1) floating

2) screeding

3) troweling

4) finishing

**Answer: **screeding

**Q69:** According to the recommendations of IS: 456 – 1978, the expansion joints

**Options:**

1) are provided where plane changes abruptly

2) are provided to ensure minimum resistance

3) are supported on separate columns

4) All option are correct

**Answer: **All option are correct

**Q70:** An aggregate is said to be flaky if its least dimension is less than

**Options:**

1) 1/5th of the mean dimension

2) 2/5th of the mean dimension

3) 3/5th of the mean dimension

4) 4/5th of the mean dimension

**Answer: **3/5th of the mean dimension

**Q71:** The most useless aggregate is one whose surface texture is

**Options:**

1) smooth

2) granular

3) glassy

4) honey combed & porous

**Answer: **glassy

**Q72:** A beam curved in plan is designed for

**Options:**

1) bending moment and shear

2) bending moment and torsion

3) shear and torsion

4) bending moment, shear and torsion

**Answer: **bending moment, shear and torsion

**Q73:** Pick up the correct statement from the following

**A.** The free water is the amount of water added while mixing and the amount of water held on the surface of the aggregates prior to mixing

**B.** The total water is the free water and the amount actually absorbed by the aggregates

**Options:**

1) Only A

2) Only B

3) Neither A nor B

4) Both A and B

**Answer: **Both A and B

**Q74:** The size of fine aggregates does not exceed

**Options:**

1) 2.75 mm

2) 3.00 mm

3) 3.75 mm

4) 4.75 mm

**Answer: **4.75 mm

**Q75:** Which one of the following tests, is used to test aggregate for tis abrasion resistance

**Options:**

1) Deval attrition test

2) Dorry abrasion test

3) Los Angeles test

4) All option are correct

**Answer: **Deval attrition test

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers**

**Q76:** The flange splice in plate girder is subjected to:-

**Options:**

1) axial force only

2) shear and axial force

3) bending moment and axial force

4) shear force and bending moment

**Answer: **axial force only

**Q77:** Initial setting time of rapid-hardening Portland cement is nearly

**Options:**

1) half a minute

2) 5 minutes

3) 30 minutes

4) 45 minutes

**Answer: **5 minutes

**Q78:** Which of the following statements is true?

**Options:**

1) Addition of pozzolana to cement decreases workability

2) Addition of pozzolana to cement increases strength

3) Addition of pozzolana to cement increases heat of hydration

4) None of these

**Answer: **None of these

**Q79:** With usual notations the depth of the neutral axis of a balanced section, is given by

**Options:**

1) mc/t= (d-n )/n

2) t/mc= (d-n)/n

3) t/mc=(d+n)/n

4) mc/t= n/(d-n )

**Answer: **mc/t= n/(d-n )

**Q80:** Distribution of shear intensity over a rectangular section of a beam, follows:

**Options:**

1) a circular curve

2) a straight line

3) a parabolic curve

4) an elliptical curve

**Answer: **a parabolic curve

**Q81:** The correct hook for mild steel reinforcement bars, according to specifications is shown in which of the following figures ?

**Options**:

1) (a)

2) (b)

3) (c )

4) (d)

**Answer: **(a)

**Q82: **The bar carrying positive bending moment is bent up to resist negative bending moment is shown in which of the following figures ?

**Options**:

1) (a)

2) (b)

3) (c )

4) None of these

**Answer: **(c )

**Q83:** Columns may be made of plain concrete if their unsupported lengths do not exceed their least lateral dimension

**Options:**

1) two times

2) three times

3) four times

4) five times

**Answer: **four times

**Q84:** The effective span of a simply supported slab is

**Options:**

1) distance between the centers of the bearings

2) clear distance between the inner faces of the walls plus twice the thickness of the wall

3) clear span plus effective depth of the slab

4) None of these

**Answer: **clear distance between the inner faces of the walls plus twice the thickness of the wall

**Q85:** The weight of reinforced concrete is generally taken as

**Options:**

1) 2200 kg/m^{3}

2) 2300 kg/m^{3}

3) 2400 kg/m^{3}

4) 2500 kg/m^{3}

**Answer: **2400 kg/m^{3}

**Q86:** Bottom bars under the columns are extended into the interior of the footing slab to a distance greater than

**Options:**

1) 42 diameters from the center of the column

2) 42 diameters from the inner edge of the column

3) 42 diameters from the outer edge of the column

4) 24 diameters from the center of the column

**Answer: **42 diameters from the outer edge of the column

**Q87:** A pile of length L carrying a uniformly distributed load W per meter length is suspended at the center and from other two points 0.15 L from either end, the maximum hogging moment will be

**Options:**

1) WL^{2} /15

2) WL^{2} /30

3) WL^{2} /60

4) WL^{2} /90

**Answer: **WL^{2} /90

**Q88:** Cantilever retaining walls can safely be used for a height not more than

**Options:**

1) 3 m

2) 4 m

3) 5 m

4) 6 m

**Answer: **6 m

**Q89:** A simply supported uniform rectangular bar breadth b, depth d and length L carries an isolated load W at its mid-span. The same bar experiences an extension e under same tensile load. The ratio of the maximum deflection to the elongation is

**Options:**

1) L/d

2) L/2d

3) (L/2d)^{2}

4) (L/3d)^{2}

**Answer: **(L/2d)^{2}

**Q90:** The maximum deflection due to a load W at the free end of a cantilever of length L and having flexural rigidity EI is

**Options:**

1) WL^{2} /2EI

2) WL^{2} /3EI

3) WL^{3} /2EI

4) WL^{3} /3EI

**Answer: **WL^{3} /3EI

**Q91:** If normal stresses due to longitudinal and transverse loads on a bar are σ_{1} and σ_{2} respectively, the normal component of the stress on an inclined plane θ^{o} to the longitudinal load is

**Options:**

1) (σ_{1} sinθ)* (σ_{2} cosθ)

2) σ_{1} sin^{2}θ+ σ_{2} cos^{2}θ

3) (σ_{1} – σ_{2})(sin2θ)/2

4) (σ_{1} + σ_{2})(sin2θ)/2

**Answer: **σ_{1} sin^{2}θ+ σ_{2} cos^{2}θ

**Q92:** For beams of uniform strength, if depth is constant, then

**Options:**

1) width is directly proportional to bending moment

2) width is directly proportional to square root of bending moment

3) width is directly proportional to three times the square root of bending moment

4) width is inversely proportional to bending moment

**Answer: **width is directly proportional to bending moment

**Q93: **To determine the force in BD of the truss shown in the figure below, a section is passed through BD, CD and CE and the moments are taken about

**Options:**

1) joint A

2) joint B

3) joint C

4) joint D

**Answer: **joint C

**Q94: **The degree of indeterminacy of the frame shown in the figure below is

**Options**:

1) 0

2) 1

3) 2

4) 3

**Answer: **1

**Q95:** For permissible shear stress f_{s}, the torque transmitted by a thin tube of mean diameter D and wall thickness t is

**Options:**

1) {(πd^{2})/2} t f_{s}

2) {(πD)/2} t f_{s }

3) {(πD^{2})} t f_{s}

4) {(πD^{2}t^{2})/4} f_{s}

**Answer: **{(πd^{2})/2} t f_{s}

**Q96:** The strain energy stored in a spring when subjected to greatest load without being permanently distorted is called

**Options:**

1) stiffness

2) proof resilience

3) proof stress

4) proof load

**Answer: **proof resilience

**Q97:** Pick up the correct statement from the following:

**Options:**

1) In a loaded beam, the moment at which the first yield occurs is called yield moment

2) In a loaded beam, the moment at which the entire section of the beam becomes fully plastic, is called plastic moment

3) In a fully plastic stage of the beam, the neutral axis divides the section in two sections of equal area

4) All option are correct

**Answer: **All option are correct

**Q98:** A concentrated load P is supported by the free end of a quadrantal ring AB whose end B is fixed. The ratio of the vertical to horizontal deflections of the end A is

**Options:**

1) π

2) π/2

3) π/3

4) π/4

**Answer: **π/2

**Q99:** An isolated load W is acting at a distance ‘a’ from the left-hand support of a three-hinged arch of span ‘2l’ and rise ‘h’ hinged at the crown. The vertical reaction of the arch is

**Options:**

1) Wa/2l

2) Wl/a

3) Wa/l

4) (W^{2})/2l

**Answer: **Wa/2l

**Q100:** Slenderness ratio of a long column is

**Options:**

1) area of cross-section divided by radius of gyration

2) area of cross-section divided by least radius of gyration

3) radius of gyration divided by area of cross-section

4) length of column divided by least radius of gyration

**Answer: **length of column divided by least radius of gyration

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers**

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]]>**Q1:** Which of the following represent the crushing strength (MPa) for the good quality stone that are used in the construction of buildings?

**Options:**

1) Less than 20

2) 20 to 60

3) 60 to 80

4) Greater than 100

**Answer:**** **Greater than 100

**Q2:** Which of the following is examined to determine the age of timber?

**Options:**

1) Annular ring

2) Sapwood

3) Pith

4) Timber defects

**Answer:** Annular ring

**Q3:** Which of the following is determined with the help of Le Chatelier’s device?

**Options:**

1) Abrasion resistance

2) Chemical resistance

3) Soundness

4) Strength

**Answer:** Soundness

**Q4:** The type of mortar which is used for the construction works carried out in water-logged area is _____.

**Options:**

1) cement mortar

2) loose mortar

3) mortar of very low consistency

4) mortar having high w/c ratio

**Answer: **cement mortar

**Q5:** For M 25 grade concrete, the split tensile strength in terms of percentage of its compressive strength is _____.

**Options:**

1) 7 to 11%

2) 18 to 28%

3) 28 to 38%

4) 38 to 48%

Answer: 7 to 11%

**Q6:** Distempers are generally used to coat _____.

**Options:**

1) compound wall

2) external concrete surfaces

3) interior surface which are not exposed to environment

4) wood works

**Answer:** interior surface which are not exposed to environment

**Q7:** Which of the following is commonly used as retarder in cement?

**Options:**

1) Calcium sulphate

2) Gypsum

3) Potassium carbide

4) Sodium chloride

Answer: Gypsum

**Q8:** In the process of hydration of OPC, to complete all chemical reaction, the water requirement (expressed as the percentage of cement) is _____.

**Options:**

1) 5 to 8%

2) 8 to 16%

3) 20 to 25%

4) 35 to 45%

**Answer:** 20 to 25%

**Q9:** The slump test is performed to check the _____.

**Options:**

1) presence of water in cement

2) ratio of concrete ingredients

3) temperature resistance

4) workability of concrete

**Answer:** workability of concrete

**Q10:** The reason behind the low expansion and shrinkage of the plywood is _____.

**Options:**

1) plies are placed at the right angles with each other

2) they are glued under the high pressure

3) they are held in the position with the help of adhesives

4) they are prepared with the help of veneers

**Answer:** plies are placed at the right angles with each other

**Q11:** Which one of the following method is used for the approximate estimation?

**Options:**

1) Both central line and short wall and long wall method

2) Central line method

3) Plinth area method

4) Short wall and long wall method

**Answer:** Plinth area method

**Q12:** Accuracy in the measurement of the thickness of the slab or sectional dimension of column and beam (in centimetre) should be _____.

**Options:**

1) 0.5

2) 1

3) 5

4) 10

**Answer:** 0.5

**Q13:** Deduction at T-junction of the wall for total length of the central line is _____.

**Options:**

1) half of thickness of wall

2) no deduction

3) thickness of wall

4) twice of the thickness of wall

**Answer:** half of thickness of wall

**Q14:** For estimation of painted area of semi corrugated asbestos cement sheets, percentage increase in area above plain area is _____.

**Options:**

1) 0.1

2) 0.14

3) 0.2

4) 0.25

**Answer:** 0.1

**Q15:** Scrap value of a property may be _____.

**Options:**

1) both negative or positive

2) constant

3) negative

4) positive

**Answer:** both negative or positive

**Q16:** What is the unit of measuring cornice?

**Options:**

1) Cubic metre

2) Number

3) Running metre

4) Square metre

**Answer:** Running metre

**Q17:** Calculate the number of bricks in 20 cubic metres brick works.

**Options:**

1) 500

2) 1000

3) 10000

4) 100000

**Answer:** 10000

**Q18:** Calculate the area (square metre) of the formwork required for a beam of 2 m span and cross section dimension of 400 mm x 200 mm.

**Options:**

1) 0.8

2) 0.16

3) 1.2

4) 2

**Answer:** 2

**Q19:** The cross section areas of three sections of an embankment at an interval of 40 m are 10 square metres, 15 square metres and 35 square metres. Calculate the quantity of earthwork for the embankment. Use prismoidal method.

**Options:**

1) 1200

2) 1400

3) 1500

4) 2400

**Answer:** 1400

**Q20:** Calculate the annual depreciation (Rs.) of a machine having initial cost of Rs. 10,000. The scrap value is Rs. 1,000 and useful life of 30 years.

**Options:**

1) 300

2) 367

3) 1333

4) 333333

**Answer:** 300

**Q21:** What is the difference between the sum of interior angles of plane triangle and spherical triangle for area of triangle 195 square kilometre on the Earth’s surface?

**Options:**

1) one degree

2) one minute

3) one second

4) one radian

**Answer: **one second

**Q22:** Which one of the following is the largest scale?

**Options:**

1) 1 :500

2) 1 :1000

3) 1 :2500

4) 1 :50000

**Answer:** 1 :500

**Q23:** The quadrantal bearing of the line lies in the third quadrant making angle in clockwise with the north is ______.

**Options:**

1) N(θ – 180)^{o}E

2) N(θ – 180)^{o}W

3) S(θ – 180)^{o}E

4) S(θ – 180)^{o}W

**Answer: **S(θ – 180)^{o}W

** **

**Q24:** Calculate the volume of the embankment (in cubic metre) using trapezoidal method, if the cross section areas of the three sections of an embankment at an interval of 30 m are 20 square metres, 40 square metres and 50 square metres.

**Options:**

1) 1100

2) 1150

3) 2250

4) 2350

**Answer:** 2250

**Q25:** Which one is the CORRECT order of the tapes based on their accuracy?

**Options:**

1) Linen tape > invar tape > metallic tape > steel tape

2) Invar tape > steel tape > metallic tape > linen tape

3) Metallic tape > steel tape > linen tape > invar tape

4) Metallic tape > steel tape > Invar tape > linen tape

**Answer:** Invar tape > steel tape > metallic tape > linen tape

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers**

**Q26:** In the leveling between two points A and B on the opposite sides of a pond, the level is first set up near the point A and staff reading on A and B are 2.5 m and 2.0 m respectively. Then the level is moved and set near the point B, staff reading on points A and B are 1.2 m and 1.7 m respectively. Calculate the difference of heights between the two points A and B (in metre).

**Options:**

1) 0

2) 0.5

3) 1

4) 1.85

**Answer:** 0

**Q27:** Calculate the combined correction for curvature and refraction (in m) for a distance of 2 km.

**Options:**

1) 0.045

2) 0.135

3) 0.269

4) 3.14

**Answer:** 0.269

**Q28:** In transit theodolite, the line of the sight can be reversed by revolving the telescope through _____.

**Options:**

1) 90° in horizontal plane

2) 90° in vertical plane

3) 180° in horizontal plane

4) 180° in vertical plane

**Answer: **180° in vertical plane

**Q29:** Which one is the CORRECT sequence for the temporary adjustment of the theodolite?

**Options:**

1) Centering, elimination of parallax, leveling, and setting

2) Centering, setting, elimination of parallax and leveling

3) Setting, centering, leveling and elimination of parallax

4) Setting, leveling, elimination of parallax and centering

**Answer:** Setting, centering, leveling and elimination of parallax

**Q30:** Which of the following is used for determining the location of station occupied by the plane table?

**Options:**

1) Both intersection and radiation

2) Intersection method

3) Radiation method

4) Two point problem

**Answer:** Two point problem

**Q31:**– Which of the following is responsible for the formation of residual soil?

**Options:**

1) Glaciers

2) Water

3) Wind

4) None of these

**Answer:** None of these

**Q32:** The coefficient of gradation and the coefficient of uniformity of a given soil sample is 1.0 and 4.0 respectively. The ratio of effective size to the diameter through which 30% of the total mass is passed is ______.

**Options:**

1) 1.25

2) 1.5

3) 1.75

4) 2

**Answer:** 2

**Q33:** Which of the following shows the CORRECT order of increasing surface areas of the given soil?

**Options:**

1) Clay < silt < sand < colloids

2) Gravel < silt < colloids < clay

3) Sand < silt < clay < colloids

4) Silt < gravel < colloids < clay

**Answer:** Sand < silt < clay < colloids

**Q34: **What is the assumption made about back of wall, in the Rankine’s theory of earth pressure?

**Options:**

1) Plane and rough

2) Plane and smooth

3) Vertical and rough

4) Vertical and smooth

**Answer:** Vertical and smooth

**Q35:** Which of the following is CORRECT about the viscosity of gas?

**Options:**

1) Inversely proportional to the temperature

2) Increases with an increase in the temperature

3) Independent of pressure

4) Independent of temperature

**Answer: **Increases with an increase in the temperature

**Q36:** Pressure of 200 kPa is equivalent to the head of z metre of liquid having relative density 1.59. The value of z (m) is _____.

**Options:**

1) 11.6

2) 11.82

3) 12.82

4) 13.14

**Answer:** 12.82

**Q37:** Which one of the following statement is CORRECT about the center of buoyancy?

**Options:**

1) It is the point where buoyant force act.

2) It coincides with the centroid of volume of water displaced

3) It is the point where buoyant force act. and It coincides with the centroid of volume of water displaced

4) It acts outside the body.

**Answer: **It is the point where buoyant force act. and It coincides with the centroid of volume of water displaced

**Q38:** A longitudinal rectangular surface is hanged into the water such that its top and bottom points are at depth of 1.5 m and 6.0 m respectively. The depth of center of pressure (m) from the top surface is _____.

**Options:**

1) 3.8

2) 4.2

3) 4.6

4) 4.8

**Answer: **4.2

**Q39:** The velocity potential which follow the equation of continuity is _____.

**Options:**

1) x^{2}y

2) x^{2} – y^{2}

3) cos x

4) x^{2} + y^{2}

**Answer: **x^{2} – y^{2}

**Q40:** At what distance from the boundary layer, the value of the wall shear is three times of the turbulent shear?

**Options:**

1) 1/3 R

2) 1/2 R

3) 2/3 R

4) 3/4 R

**Answer:** 2/3 R

**Q41:** Which of the following statement is CORRECT about the stream lines and equipotential lines?

**Options:**

1) Both can be drawn graphically for viscous flow around any boundary.

2) Meshes formed by them are always squares.

3) They always meet orthogonally.

4) They can be calculated for all boundary conditions.

**Answer:** They always meet orthogonally.

**Q42:** The Rankine half oval body MM is subjected to the two-dimensional flow having velocity V. The typical stream line is shown in the following diagram. The point A in diagram shows________.

**Options:**

1) point at which velocity is maximum

2) separation point

3) stagnation point

4) stall point

**Answer:** stagnation point

**Q43:**Which of the following is CORRECT ratio for Froude number?

**Options:**

1) Compressive force to inertia force.

2) Inertia force to gravity force.

3) Inertia force to tension force.

4) Viscous force to inertia force.

**Answer:** Inertia force to gravity force.

**Q44:** For the most economical triangular channel section, the angle of sloping sides from the vertical is _____.

**Options:**

1) 30^{o}

2) 45^{o}

3) 60^{o}

4) 75^{o}

**Answer: ** 45^{o}

**Q45:** Method of applying water directly to the root zone of the plant is called _____.

**Options:**

1) check flooding

2) drip method

3) furrow method

4) sprinkler irrigation

**Answer:** drip method

**Q46:** A field of 500 hectares is to be irrigated for a particular crop having 100 days base period. The total depth of water required by the crop is 100 cm. Calculate the duty of the water (in hectares per cubic metre).

**Options:**

1) 8.64

2) 57.87

3) 86.4

4) 864

**Answer:** 864

**Q47:** The traffic volume of a roadway is defined as the multiplication of _____.

**Options:**

1) speed and time headway

2) speed and distance way

3) traffic density and speed

4) time head way and distance headway

**Answer:** traffic density and speed

**Q48:** Calculate the equivalent radius (cm) of the resisting section of 20 cm slab, if the ratio of radius of wheel load distribution to the thickness of the slab is 2.

**Options:**

1) 20

2) 35.6

3) 40

4) 40.9

**Answer:** 40

**Q49:** On peak hourly demand, what is the maximum daily consumption for the city which have average daily consumption of 100,000 m3 ?

**Options:**

1) 140000

2) 170000

3) 200000

4) 270000

**Answer:** 270000

**Q50:** For which of the following, distribution mains is designed?

**Options:**

1) Average daily demand

2) Annual peak demand

3) Monthly peak demand

4) Maximum hourly demand on maximum day

**Answer:** Maximum hourly demand on maximum day

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers **

**Q51:** Which of the following statements is true?

**A.**Most of the loads applied to a building are environmental load.

**B.** Most of the loads are dead followed by live loads.

**Options:**

1) Only A

2) Only B

3) Both A and B

4) Neither A nor B

**Answer:** Only B

**Q52:** How does an increase in the pitch of the roof affects the amount of load that can be placed on it?

**Options:**

1) It increases

2) It decreases

3) Remains constant

4) Depends upon case

**Answer:** It decreases

**Q53:** What will be the rain load (in psf) if ds is 2 inches and dh is 1 inches?

**Options:**

1) 5.2

2) 10.4

3) 15.6

4) 20.8

**Answer: **15.6

**Q54:** Concrete is:-

**Options:**

1) Good in compression, good in tension

2) Good in compression, weak in tension

3) Weak in compression, weak in tension

4) Weak in compression, good in tension

**Answer:** Good in compression, weak in tension

**Q55:** If in planar system, X parts/members are there with Y no. of forces, then condition for statically determinacy is:-

**Options:**

1) Y < 3X

Y < 3X

2) Y > 3X

Y > 3X

3) Y= 3X

Y= 3X

4) None of these

**Answer: **Y= 3X

Y=3X

**Q56:** If a system has more equations of equilibrium than no. of forces, then the system is:-

**Options:**

1) Improperly constrained

2) Partially constrained

3) Stable

4) None of these

**Answer:** Partially constrained

**Q57:** Which of the following material is not used in making trusses?

**Options:**

1) Wooden struts

2) Metal bars

3) Channel

4) Concrete

**Answer:** Concrete

**Q58:** In a truss it is assumed that the members are joined by____________.

**Options:**

1) Rough pins

2) Smooth pins

3) Either rough or smooth pins

4) None of these

**Answer:** Smooth pins

**Q59:** What is the major difference between truss and beam?

**Options:**

1) Beam can’t transmit load in vertical direction while truss can

2) Truss can’t transmit load in vertical direction while beam can

3) Beam can’t transmit load in axial direction while truss can

4) Truss can’t transmit load in axial direction while beam can

**Answer:** Truss can’t transmit load in vertical direction while beam can

**Q60:** Given that J is no. of joints. B and R are no. of members and no. of reactions.

If B = 4, R = 3 and J = 4, then the truss is:-

**Options:**

1) Statically determinate

2) Statically indeterminate and stable

3) Stable

4) Unstable

**Answer:** Unstable

**Q61:** Which IS code gives details regarding water to be used in concrete?

**Options:**

1) IS 456

2) IS 383

3) IS 565

4) IS 3012

**Answer:** IS 456

**Q62:** Which of the below is an example of plasticizer?

**Options:**

1) Hydroxylated carboxylic acid

2) Fluoro-silicate

3) Gypsum

4) Surkhi

**Answer:** Hydroxylated carboxylic acid

**Q63:** How many methods of batching of concrete are there?

**Options:**

1) 2

2) 3

3) 5

4) 6

**Answer:** 2

**Q64:** Concrete is generally placed on a:

**Options:**

1) Form work

2) Stand

3) Mould

4) Platform

**Answer:** Form work

**Q65:** The effective width of a column strip of a flat slab is taken as

**Options:**

1) one-fourth the width of the panel

2) half the width of the panel

3) half the diameter of the column

4) the diameter of the column

**Answer:** half the width of the panel

**Q66:** Permanent dimension changes due to loading of concrete is termed as:

**Options:**

1) Strain

2) Extent

3) Creep

4) Ambit

**Answer:** Creep

**Q67:** In design of R.C.C. structures, the tensile strength of concrete is taken as:

**Options:**

1) 5N/mm2

2) 2N/mm2

3) 0.3N/mm2

4) None of these

**Answer:** None of these

**Q68:** Flexure strength of concrete is determined as:

**Options:**

1) Modulus of rigidity

2) Modulus of rupture

3) Modulus of plasticity

4) Modulus of elasticity

**Answer:** Modulus of rupture

**Q69:** Properties of concrete can broadly be divided into:

**Options:**

1) 1

2) 4

3) 2

4) 3

**Answer:** 2

**Q70:** Which IS code gives specifications about cement plaster?

**Options:**

1) IS 1500

2) IS 1221

3) IS 1400

4) IS 1661

**Answer:** IS 1661

**Q71:** In a lime-cement plaster, ratio 1:1:6 corresponds to:

**Options:**

1) Lime:cement:sand

2) Cement:Lime:sand

3) Lime:sand:gravel

4) Cement:sand:gravel

**Answer:** Cement:Lime:sand

**Q72:** On which of the following does the correct proportion of ingredients of concrete depend upon?

**Options:**

1) bulking of sand

2) water content

3) absorption and workability

4) All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q73: **If X, Y and Z are fineness moduli of coarse fine and combined aggregates, the percentage (P) of fine aggregates to combined aggregates is

**Options: **

**1)** P = (z-x / z-y) x 100

**2)** P = (x-z / z-y) x 100

**3)** P = (x-z / z+y) x 100

**4)** P = (x+z / z-y) x 100

**Answer:** P = (x-z / z-y) x 100

**Q74:** Which of the following statements is false?

**Options:**

1) Workability of the concrete mix decreases with an increase in the moisture content

2) Concrete for which preliminary tests are conducted, is called controlled concrete

3) Bulking of sand depends upon the fineness of grains

4) All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q75:** Which of the following statements is false?

**Options:**

1) Space between the exterior walls of a warehouse and bag piles should be 30 cm

2) Cement bags should preferably be piled on wooden planks

3) Cement bags should be placed such that bags of one layer does not touch the bags of the adjacent layer

4) None of these

**Answer:** None of these

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers**

**Q76:** Which of the following statements is false?

**Options:**

** 1)** With passage of time, the strength of cement increases

** 2)** With passage of time, the strength of cement decreases

** 3)** After a period of 24 months, the strength of cement reduces to 50%

** 4)** The concrete made with storage deteriorated cement gains strength with time

**Answer:** With passage of time, the strength of cement increases

**Q77: **For a concrete mix 1:3:6 and water cement ratio 0.6 both by weight, what is the quantity of water required per bag?

**Options:**

** 1)** 10 kg

** 2)** 12 kg

** 3)** 14 kg

** 4)** None of these

**Answer:** 14 kg

**Q78:** Transport of concrete by pumps, is done for a distance of

**Options:**

1) 100 m

2) 200 m

3) 300 m

4) 400 m

**Answer:** 400 m

**Q79:** The compression in PSC is done by _________ of high-strength tendons.

**Options:**

1) Compression

2) Tensioning

3) Shearing

4) Bending

**Answer:** Tensioning

**Q80:** In which beam tension capacity of steel is greater than combined compression capacity of steel and concrete?

**Options:**

1) Over-reinforced

2) Under-reinforced

3) Singly reinforced

4) Doubly reinforced

**Answer:** Over-reinforced

**Q81:** A simply support beam carries a varying load from zero at one end and w at the other end. If the length of the beam is a, the maximum bending moment will be

**Options:**

**1)** wa / 27

**2)** wa^{2} / 27

**3)** w^{2}a / √27

**4)** wa^{2} / 9√3

**Answer:** w^{2}a / √27

**Q82:** For a circular slab carrying a uniformly distributed load, the ratio of the maximum negative to maximum positive radial moment is

**Options:**

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

**Answer:** 2

**Q83:** If W is total load per unit area on a panel, D is the diameter of the column head, L is the span in two directions, then the sum of the maximum positive bending moment and average of the negative bending moment for the design of the span of a square flat slab, should not be less than

**Options:**

**1)** (WL / 12) (L – 2D/3)^{2}

**2)** (WL / 10) (L + 2D/3)^{2}

**3)** (WL / 10) (L – 2D/3)^{2}

**4)** (WL /12) (L – D/3)^{2}

**Answer:** (WL / 10) (L – 2D/3)^{2}

**Q84:** The breadth of a ribbed slab containing two bars must be between

**Options:**

** 1)** 6 cm to 7.5 cm

** 2)** 8 cm to 10 cm

** 3)** 10 cm to 12 cm

** 4)** None of these

**Answer:** 8 cm to 10 cm

**Q85:** A foundation rests on which of the following?

**Options:**

** 1)** base of the foundation

** 2)** sub grade

** 3)** foundation soil

** 4)** Both Sub grade and foundation soil

**Answer:** Both Sub grade and foundation soil

**Q86:** Which of the following statements is true?

**Options:**

** 1)** To ensure uniform pressure distribution, the thickness of the foundation is kept uniform throughout

** 2)** To ensure uniform pressure distribution, the thickness of the foundation is increased gradually towards the edge

** 3)** To ensure uniform pressure distribution, the thickness of the foundation is decreased gradually towards the edge

** 4)** To ensure uniform pressure distribution, the thickness of the foundation is kept zero at the edge

**Answer:** To ensure uniform pressure distribution, the thickness of the foundation is decreased gradually towards the edge

**Q87:** The weight of a foundation is assumed as which of the following?

**Options:**

** 1)** 5% of wall weight

** 2)** 7% of wall weight

** 3)** 10% of wall weight

** 4)** 12% of wall weight

**Answer:** 10% of wall weight

**Q 88:** If the width of the foundation for two equal columns is restricted, the shape of the footing generally adopted is

**Options:**

** 1)** Square

** 2)** rectangular

** 3)** trapezoidal

** 4)** triangular

**Answer:** rectangular

**Q89:** Maximum shear stress theory for the failure of a material at the elastic limit is known as

**Options:**

** 1)** Guest’s or Trecas’ theory

** 2)** St.Venant’s theory

** 3)** Rankine’s theory

** 4)** Haig’s theory

**Answer:** Guest’s or Trecas’ theory

**Q90: **If permissible compressive stress in concrete is 50 kg/cm^{2}, tensile stress in steel is 1400 kg/cm^{2} and modular ratio is 18, the depth of the beam is

**Q91:** When not specified, the volume of steel in R.C.C. work is taken as:-

**Options:**

** 1)** 1% to 1.6% of R.C.C. volume

** 2)** 2% to 4% of R.C.C. volume

** 3)** 4% to 6% of R.C.C. volume

** 4)** 0.6% to 1% of R.C.C. volume

**Answer:** 0.6% to 1% of R.C.C. volume

**Q92:** The ratio of maximum shear stress to average shear stress of a circular beam is:

**Options:**

** A.** 2/3

** B.** 3/2

** C.** 3/4

** D.** 4/3

**Answer:** 4/3

**Q93:** The property of a material by which it can be beaten or rolled into plates, is called

**Options:**

1) ductility

2) plasticity

3) elasticity

4) None of these

Answer: None of these

**Q94:** What is the limit to Poisson’s ratio?

**Options:**

1) 0.1

2) 0.2

3) 0.3

4) None of these

**Answer:** None of these

**Q95:** Among the following, which is least elastic?

**Options:**

1) Iron

2) Copper

3) Both Copper and Silver

4) Rubber

**Answer:** Rubber

**Q96:** Two bars of different materials are of the same size and are subjected to same tensile forces. If the bars have unit elongations in the ratio of 4 : 7, then the ratio of modulius of elasticity of the two materials is

**A.** 4:7

** B.** 4:10

** C.** 16:49

**Options:**

1) A Only

2) B Only

3) C Only

4) None of these

**Answer:** None of these

**Q97:** If a composite bar of steel and copper is heated, then the copper bar will be under:

**Options:**

1) tension

2) shear

3) torsion

4) None of these

**Answer:** None of these

**Q98:** Pick up the incorrect statement from the following : The torsional resistance of a shaft is directly proportional to

**Options:**

1) modulus of rigidity

2) angle of twist

3) reciprocal of the length of the shaft

4) moment of inertia of the shaft section.

**Answer:** moment of inertia of the shaft section.

**Q99:** Net sectional area of a tension member, is equal to its cross section area_______.

**Options:**

1) plus the area of the rivet holes

2) divided by the area of rivet holes

3) multiplied by the area of the rivet holes

4) minus the area of the rivet holes

**Answer:** minus the area of the rivet holes

**Q100:** When a tension member consists of two channel sections, the allowance for rivet hole is made for two holes from

**Options:**

1) each web

2) each flange

3) each web or one hole from each flange whichever is more

4) each web or one hole from each flange whichever is less

**Answer:** each web or one hole from each flange whichever is less

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**SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper – 2018 “held on 27 January 2018” Morning Shift (Electrical Engineering)**

**Q 1:** Why are same types of cells connected in parallel?

**Options:**

1) To decrease the voltage rating

2) To increase the voltage rating

3) To decrease the current rating

4) To increase the current rating

**Answer:** To increase the voltage rating

**Q 2:** There are N resistances, each are connected in parallel having value R with equivalent resistance of X. What will be the total resistance when these N resistances are connected in series?

**Options:**

1) NX

2) RNX

3) X / N

4) N^{2}X

**Answer:**

**Q 3:** Which of the following is equivalent to 0.5 kWh?

**Options:**

1) 1800000 W

2) 1800000 J

3) 18000000 J

4) 36000000 J

**Answer:** 1800000 J

**Q 4:** What is the conductivity (in Mhos/m) of a 2 Ohm circular wire, when the length and the diameter of the wire are 10 m and 0.8 m respectively?

**Options:**

1) 10

2) 1

3) 0.1

4) 5

**Answer:** 10

**Q 5:** ‘Erg’ is a unit of measurement for ________.

**Options:**

1) Energy

2) Power

3) Voltage

4) Impedance

**Answer:** Energy

**Q 6: **What is the equivalent capacitance (in μF) between the terminals A and B in the circuit given below ?

**Options:
**1) 4.56

2) 5.67

3) 18.58

4) 51

2) 1.42

3) 3.2

4) 7

1) Capacitance

2) Charge

3) Energy of the capacitor

4) Potential

1) 400

2) 200

3) 300

4) 100

1) Ceramic

2) Electrolytic

3) Film

4) Wire wound

1) The initial condition of the rest of the circuit changes, if a network element is replaced by a voltage source having an equal voltage as the voltage across the element at every instant of time.

2) The initial condition of the rest of the circuit changes, if a network element is replaced by a voltage source having an equal current as the voltage across the element at every instant of time.

3) The initial condition of the rest of the circuit remains same, if a network element is replaced by a voltage source having an equal voltage as the voltage across the element at every instant of time.

4) The initial condition of the rest of the circuit changes, if a network element is replaced by a voltage source having an equal voltage as the current across the element at every instant of time.

1) Compensation

2) Maximum power transfer

3) Superposition

4) Tellegen’s

1) Conservation of charge

2) Conservation of energy

3) Conservation of force

4) Conservation of momentum

2) 10

3) 12

4) 16

2) 5 – j 2

3) 2 + j 5

4) 2 – j 5

2) 45

3) 60

4) 75

2) 25

3) 125

4) 156.25

1) 3

2) 4

3) 5

4) 6

1) 18

2) 30

3) 45

4) 90

1) 1.167, 12

2) 2.345, 14

3) 4.434, 16

4) 2.346, 10

1) Henry

2) Coulomb

3) Tesla

4) Weber

1) Aluminium

2) Oxygen

3) Lead

4) Nickel

1) Copper

2) Iron

3) Titanium

4) Silver

1) φ

2) φ

3) φ

4) φ

1) 4.98

2) 3.65

3) 2.53

4) 1.43

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1) Hysteresis constant

2) Magnetic flux density

3) Frequency

4) Reluctivity

1) 2

2) 3

3) 4

4) 5

1) 5.54

2) 6.94

3) 7.85

4) 8.64

1) 0.5

2) 0.75

3) 1

4) 2

1) 0.5

2) 0.75

3) 1

4) 1.25

1) 21.2

2) 30

3) 42.4

4) 51.9

1) 50

2) 60

3) 40

4) 30

2) 7.87

3) 8.66

4) 4.42

1) zero

2) maximum

3) infinite

4) minimum

1) 60

2) 30

3) 90

4) 45

1) 16.32

2) 14.45

3) 15.59

4) 16.69

2) 1.26

3) 12.6

4) 126.1

1) 14.4

2) 15.8

3) 18.7

4) 19.6

1) 0.5

2) 0.4

3) 0.8

4) 1.3

1) 0.2

2) 0.6

3) 0.4

4) 0.8

1) ML

2) ML

3) T

4) ML

1) MI type Instruments are suitable for both AC and DC circuits.

2) Frictional error in MI type instruments is very less.

3) The torque weight ratio of MI type instruments is high.

4) The instrument cost is much higher as compared to PMMC type instruments.

1) Multimeter can be used for the measurement of voltage.

2) Multimeter can be used for the measurement of power.

3) Multimeter can be used for the measurement of resistance.

4) Multimeter can be used for the measurement of current.

1) Variation in the resistance of the moving coil

2) Quality of spring

3) Aging of the spring

4) Aging of the magnets

2) 1

3) 0

4) 4

1) 80

2) 75

3) 60

4) 55

1) 512

2) 252

3) 756

4) 504

1) 4, 2

2) 5, 1

3) 3, 3

4) 6, 0

1) 86.8

2) 93.6

3) 84.6

4) 96.8

1) 200

2) 150

3) 100

4) 250

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers (www.newtondesk.com)**

**Q 51:** The brush contact losses in a d.c. machine is

**Options:**

1) Inversely proportional to the square of current

2) Directly proportional to the square of current

3) Inversely proportional to the current

4) Directly proportional to the current

**Answer:** Directly proportional to the current

**Q 52:** In which transformer, the tertiary winding is used

**Options:**

1) Star – delta

2) Star – star

3) Delta – delta

4) Delta – star

**Answer:** Star – star

**Q 53:** Secondary winding of an auto transformer is also called_____.

**Options:**

1) compensating winding

2) common winding

3) tertiary winding

4) damping winding

**Answer:** common winding

**Q 54:** The maximum allowable voltage between adjacent segment is

**Options:**

1) 10-20V

2) 20-30V

3) 40-50V

4) 30-40V

**Answer:** 30-40V

**Q 55:** The field control of a DC shunt motor gives_____.

**Options:**

1) constant torque drive

2) constant kW drive

3) constant speed drive

4) variable load speed drive

**Answer:** constant kW drive

**Q 56:** The no load current in a transformer is

**Options:**

1) Sinusoidal

2) nonSinusoidal

3) Trapezoidal

4) stepped

**Answer:** nonSinusoidal

**Q 57:** Transformer cooling and insulation oil must be of

**Options:**

1) low viscosity

2) high viscosity

3) low BDV

4) low resistivity

**Answer:** low viscosity

**Q 58:** Single Phase transformers can be used in parallel only when their voltages are

**Options:**

1) Equal

2) Unequal

3) Zero

4) None of these

**Answer:** Equal

**Q 59:** When the phase sequence of supply currents are reversed, then the direction of rotation of the resultant magnetic field wave

**Options:**

1) not unchanged

2) to and fro

3) reversed

4) None of these

**Answer:** reversed

**Q 60:** The availability of full -rated torque at starting is obtained from induction motor is

**Options:**

1) rotor resistance control

2) stator voltage control

3) slip ring control

4) line current control

**Answer:** rotor resistance control

**Q 61:** The starting torque of a 1-phase induction motor is

**Options:**

1) High

2) Moderate

3) Low

4) Zero

**Answer:** Zero

**Q 62:** In a shaded pole single-phase motor, the revolving field is produced by the use of

**Options:**

1) inductor

2) capacitor

3) resistor

4) shading coils

**Answer:** shading coils

**Q 63:** The repulsion-start induction-run motor is used because of______.

**Options:**

1) good power factor

2) high efficiency

3) minimum cost

4) high starting torque

**Answer:** high starting torque

**Q 64:** The rotor slots, in an induction motor, are usually not quite parallel to the shaft because it

**Options:**

1) improves the efficiency

2) helps the rotor teeth to remain under the stator teeth

3) helps in reducing the tendency of the rotor teeth to remain under the stator teeth

4) improves the power factor

**Answer:** helps in reducing the tendency of the rotor teeth to remain under the stator teeth

**Q 65:** A shaded pole motor can be used for

**Options:**

1) toys

2) hair dryers

3) circulators

4) any of the options

**Answer:** any of the options

**Q 66:** The rotor of a hysteresis motor is made of

**Options:**

1) aluminium

2) cast iron

3) chrome steel

4) copper

**Answer:** chrome steel

**Q 67:** The main advantage of AC transmission system over DC transmission system is

**Options:**

1) easy transformation

2) less losses in transmission over long distances

3) less insulation problems

4) less problem of instability

**Answer:** less losses in transmission over long distances

**Q 68:** Next lower voltage line feeding areas on either side of the main transmission line is called

**Options:**

1) secondary distribution

2) secondary transmission

3) primary transmission

4) primary distribution

**Answer:** secondary transmission

**Q 69:** ACSR stands for

**Options:**

1) All Copper Standard Reinforced Conductor

2) Aluminium Conductor Steel Reinforced Conductor

3) Aluminium Copper Steel Reinforced Conductor

4) All Copper Steel Reinforced Conductor

**Answer:** Aluminium Conductor Steel Reinforced Conductor

**Q 70:** The insulating material for cables should have

**Options:**

1) high dielectric strength

2) high mechanical strength

3) low cost

4) all options are correct

**Answer:** all options are correct

**Q 71:** The main source of hydro-electric power station is

**Options:**

1) coal

2) generator

3) water

4) nuclear

**Answer:** water

**Q 72:** The function of circuit breaker is

**Options:**

1) to safe guard the circuit

2) to On and Off the circuit

3) to safe human life

4) None of these

**Answer:** to safe guard the circuit

**Q 73:** Wiring clips are usually made of

**Options:**

1) copper

2) steel

3) Brass

4) aluminium

**Answer:** steel

**Q 74: **The switch unit need not be on the what type of wire

**Options:**

1) Phase

2) Neutral

3) earth

4) any of the options

**Answer:** Neutral

**Q 75:** One unit of electrical energy equals

**Options:**

1) 1Kwh

2) 1Wh

3) 10 Wh

4) 100 Wh

**Answer:** 1Kwh

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers (www.newtondesk.com)**

**Q 76:** Filaments of electric bulbs are usually made of

**Options:**

1) Nichrome

2) carbon

3) copper

4) tungsten

**Answer:** tungsten

**Q 77:** Insulation resistance is expressed by

**Options:**

1) ohm

2) milli ohm

3) mega ohm

4) micro ohm

**Answer:** mega ohm

**Q 78:** In which of the following equipments, current rating is not necessary?

**Options:**

1) circuit breaker

2) relay

3) Isolator

4) load break switch

**Answer:** Isolator

**Q 79:** which type of fan used between dust collector and chimney in thermal power plant

**Options:**

1) Forced draft

2) Induced draft

3) Ceiling fan

4) Table fan

**Answer:** Induced draft

**Q 80:** Who invented the electric bulb?

**Options:**

1) Tesla

2) Marconi

3) Edison

4) Benjamin

**Answer:** Edison

**Q 81:** Incandescent lamp is filled by

**Options:**

1) argon gas

2) oxygen gas

3) carbon di oxide

4) Sulphur oxide

**Answer:** argon gas

**Q 82:** In house wiring which type of insulation is used?

**Options:**

1) rubber

2) P.V.C

3) V.I.R

4) Paper

**Answer:** rubber

**Q 83:** The unit of solid angle is

**Options:**

1) Solid angle

2) Radian

3) Steradian

4) Candela

**Answer:** Steradian

**Q 84:** In case of frosted GLS lamps, frosting of shell is done by_____.

**Options:**

1) Acid etching

2) ammonia

3) ozone

4) salt water

**Answer:** Acid etching

**Q 85:** The resistance of arc

**Options:**

1) Decreases with increase of the current

2) Increases with increase of the current

3) Does not depend on current

4) None of these

**Answer:** Decreases with increase of the current

span style=”color: #000000; font-size: 10pt;”>

**Q 86:** For welding duty the rectifier commonly used are

**Options:**

1) Mercury arc rectifier

2) Selenium metal rectifier

3) Both Mercury arc rectifier and Selenium metal rectifier

4) None of these

**Answer:** Selenium metal rectifier

**Q 87:** The device necessarily used for automatic temperature control in a furnace is

**Options:**

1) Thermostat

2) Auto-transformer

3) Thermo-couple

4) Any of the options

**Answer:** Thermo-couple

**Q 88:** The ideal method of heating plastics is

**Options:**

1) Coal/oil fired furnace

2) Dielectric heating

3) Induction heating

4) Resistance heating

**Answer:** Dielectric heating

**Q 89:** Which of the following element belongs to the same group of periodic tables as that of silicon and lead?

**Options:**

1) Phosphorous

2) Carbon

3) Arsenic

4) Mercury

**Answer:** Arsenic

**Q 90:** The merging of a free electron and a hole is known as

**Options:**

1) recombination

2) extrusion

3) absorption

4) adsorption

**Answer:** recombination

**Q 91:** The circuit that would be used for 455 kHz, if amplifier is

**Options:**

1) resistance loaded

2) double tuned transformer

3) video amplifier

4) class C

**Answer:** double tuned transformer

**Q 92:** A transistor is a combination of two p-n junction with their

**Options:**

1) p region connected together

2) n region connected together

3) n region connected to other p region

4) p region connected together and n region connected together

**Answer:** p region connected together and n region connected together

**Q 93:** What are the ON/OFF terminals of a transistor when it is operated as a switch?

**Options:**

1) Collector to base

2) Collector to emitter

3) Base to collector

4) Emitter to base

**Answer:** Collector to emitter

**Q 94:** If negative feedback is used in the amplifier circuit, it______.

**Options:**

1) increases distortion

2) increases gain

3) reduces distortion

4) no effect on distortion

**Answer:** reduces distortion

**Q 95:** The power factor of a synchronous motor ,When the field is under-excited

**Options:**

1) leading

2) unity

3) lagging

4) zero

**Answer:** lagging

**Q 96:** To limit the operating temperature of synchronous motor, it should have proper

**Options:**

1) current rating

2) voltage rating

3) power factor

4) speed

**Answer:** current rating

**Q 97:** A synchronous machine with large air gap has_______.

**Options:**

1) a higher value of stability limit

2) a higher synchronizing power

3) a small value of regulation

4) all options are correct

**Answer:** all options are correct

**Q 98:** synchronous motors peed

**Options:**

1) decreases as the load decreases

2) increases as the load increases

3) always remains constant

4) None of these

**Answer:** always remains constant

**Q 99:** The magnitude of field flux in a 3-phase synchronous machine

**Options:**

1) varies with speed

2) remains constant at all loads

3) varies with power factor

4) varies with the load

**Answer:** remains constant at all loads

**Q 100:** In a synchronous motor, the magnitude of back e.m.f depends on______.

**Options:**

1) speed of the motor

2) d.c. excitation only

3) load on the motor

4) both the speed and rotor flux

**Answer:** d.c. excitation only

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**SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper – 2018 “held on 24 January 2018” Evening Shift (Electrical Engineering)**

**Q 1:** Which of the following material does not allow the current to flow in it?

**Options:**

1) Conductor

2) Insulator

3) Semiconductor

4) Superconductor

**Answer:** Insulator

**Q 2:** How much power (in W) will be dissipated by a 5 Ohm resistor in which the value of current is 2 A?

**Options:**

1) 10

2) 30

3) 20

4) 40

**Answer:** 20

**Q 3:** Which property of an electrical conductor opposes a change in the current?

**Options:**

1) Resistance

2) Capacitance

3) Conductance

4) Inductance

**Answer:** Inductance

**Q 4:** What is the resistivity (in Ohms-m) of a 2 Ohm cylindrical wire when the length and the diameter of the wire are 10 m and 0.4 m respectively?

**Options:**

1) 0.025

2) 0.0025

3) 0.25

4) 0.05

**Answer:** 0.025

**Q 5:** Farad is the S.I unit of ________.

**Options:**

1) Inductance

2) Resistance

3) Capacitance

4) Reluctance

**Answer:** Capacitance

**Q 6: **What is the equivalent capacitance (in μF) for the circuit given below ?

**Options:**

1) 4.56

2) 4.32

3) 54.65

4) 54.28

**Answer:** 4.32

**Q 7:** What will be the resistance (in Ohms) of a lamp rated at 220 V, 200 W?

**Options:**

1) 220

2) 224

3) 244

4) 242

**Answer:** 242

**Q 8: **What will be the equivalent resistance (in Ω) for the circuit given below ?

**Options:
**1) 5

2) 7

3) 10

4) 4

1) 40

2) 20

3) 30

4) 10

1) 4.65

2) 2.35

3) 3.3

4) 1.33

1) Norton’s theorem is same as superposition theorem.

2) Norton’s theorem is the converse of superposition theorem.

3) Norton’s theorem is same as Thevenin’s theorem.

4) Norton’s theorem is the converse of Thevenin’s theorem.

1) Infinity

2) Zero

3) One

4) Negative

1) Kirchhoff’s Current Law

2) Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law

3) Ohm’s Law

4) Coulomb’s Law

1) 4

2) -4

3) 6

4) -6

2) 4

3) 4.66

4) 5.6

1) -2, -1.5

2) 2, 1.5

3) -2, 1.5

4) 2, -1.5

1) 4, 32

2) -4, 32

3) 6, 30

4) -6, 30

2) 50, 32, 1.11

3) 60, 22, 2.22

4) 60, 32, 1.50

2) 25

3) 20

4) 35

2) 2.34, 3.45

3) 4.43, 3.26

4) 2.34, 2.55

1) Henry

2) Coulomb

3) Tesla

4) Weber

1) Greater than 1

2) Greater than 10

3) Less than 1

4) Greater than 100

1) Permeability

2) Susceptibility

3) Permeance

4) Reluctivity

1)

2) B / H

3) φ / F

4) F

1) 9

2) 4

3) 6

4) 3

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1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

1) 4.23

2) 5.15

3) 3.18

4) 2.34

1) 0.011

2) 0.045

3) 0.132

4) 0.645

2) 20

3) 50

4) 60

1) 6

2) 3.6

3) 4.8

4) 5

2) 10

3) 14.14

4) 17.32

1) 254.59

2) 282.57

3) 333.34

4) 359.96

1) 50

2) 60

3) 75

4) 125

2) 0.5

3) 1

4) 2

1) 15

2) 30

3) 45

4) 60

1) 0

2) 10

3) 100

4) ∞

1) 0.02

2) 0.05

3) 0.1

4) 0.5

1) The phase current is equal to the line current.

2) The phase voltage is less than the line voltage.

3) The system does not contain a neutral point.

4) It is a four wire system.

1) 16.8

2) 42

3) 67.2

4) 84

1) 13.856 kW

2) 13.856 kVA

3) 17.32 kW

4) 17.32 kVA

1) ML

2) Q

3) ML

4) ML / QT

1) 186.67

2) 373

3) 560

4) 746.67

1) 0

2) Greater than 0 but less than 0.5

3) 0.5

4) Greater than 0.5 but less than 1

1) Frictional error is low.

2) Single instrument can be used for multi range measurements of voltage and current.

3) Uniformly divided scale.

4) Stray magnetic field error is small.

1) AC Voltage

2) DC Current

3) Phase Angle

4) Resistance

1) Kelvin’s Double Bridge

2) Megger

3) Multimeter

4) Wheatstone Bridge

1) Zinc Sulfide with copper as impurity

2) Zinc Sulfide with silver as impurity

3) Yttrium Oxide

4) Pure Zinc Sulfide

1) 2.75

2) 3.55

3) 4.54

4) 9.09

1) Incorrect position of brake magnets.

2) Incorrect adjustment of the position of shading bands.

3) Slow but continuous rotation of aluminum disc.

4) Temperature variations

1) 10

2) 15

3) 20

4) 25

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers (www.newtondesk.com)**

**Q 51:** During plugging, external resistance is also introduced into a circuit to limit the flowing_____.

**Options:**

1) current

2) voltage

3) current and voltage both

4) none of these

**Answer:** current

**Q 52:** A Transformer

**Options:**

1) Changes AC to DC.

2) Changes DC to AC.

3) Steps up or down DC Voltages & Current.

4) Steps up or down AC Voltages & Current.

**Answer:** Steps up or down AC Voltages & Current.

**Q 53:** The overall power factor of an On-load transformer_____,.

**Options:**

1) depends on the power factor of the load.

2) is always lagging.

3) is always unity.

4) is always leading.

**Answer:** depends on the power factor of the load.

**Q 54:** Dynamic braking can be used for which of the following?

**Options:**

1) Shunt motors

2) Series motors

3) Compound motors

4) All options are correct

Candidate Answer: [ NOT ANSWERED ]

**Q 55:** The parts of the armature electric circuit which take active part in e.m.f. generation are _____.

**Options:**

1) The coil sides inside the slots

2) The overhangs

3) both the coil sides inside the slots and the overhangs

4) the commutator segments

**Answer:** The coil sides inside the slots

**Q 56:** The interpoles in dc machines have a tapering shape in order to

**Options:**

1) reduce the overall weight

2) reduce the saturation in the interpole

3) economise on the material required for interpoles

4) increase the acceleration of commutation

**Answer:** reduce the saturation in the interpole

**Q 57:** Maximum efficiency will occur, when copper loss and iron loss are

**Options:**

1) unity

2) zero

3) unequal

4) equal

**Answer:** equal

**Q 58:** The higher the voltage in the transmission line, the current which will flow through the transmission line for a given power to be transmitted will be

**Options:**

1) higher

2) equal

3) lower

4) Unity

**Answer:** lower

**Q 59:** No-load test on induction motor is conducted to find which of the following losses?

**Options:**

1) stator core loss

2) rotational loss

3) Stator copper loss

4) All options are correct

**Answer:** All options are correct

**Q 60:** If the torque of the induction motor decreases, the________.

**Options:**

1) speed of rotor increases

2) speed of rotor decreases

3) current of the rotor decreases

4) power of the motor decreases

**Answer:** speed of rotor increases

**Q 61:** Reduction in the capacitance of a capacitor- start motor results in reduced_____.

**Options:**

1) Noise

2) Speed

3) Starting torque

4) Armature reaction

**Answer:** Starting torque

**Q 62:** A single-phase induction motor with only the main winding excited would exhibit the following response at synchronous speed

**Options:**

1) Rotor current is zero

2) Rotor current is non-zero and is at slip frequency

3) Forward and backward rotating fields are equal

4) Forward rotating field is more than the backward rotating field

**Answer:** Forward rotating field is more than the backward rotating field

**Q 63:** The electric motor used in portable drills is_____.

**Options:**

1) capacitor run motor

2) hysteresis motor

3) universal motor

4) repulsion motor

**Answer:** universal motor

**Q 64:** In which single-phase motor, the rotor has no teeth or winding ?

**Options:**

1) Split phase motor

2) Reluctance motor

3) Hysteresis motor

4) Universal motor

**Answer:** Hysteresis motor

**Q 65:** The range of efficiency for shaded pole motors is

**Options:**

1) 95% to 99%

2) 80% to 90%

3) 50% to 75%

4) 5% to 35%

**Answer:** 5% to 35%

**Q 66:** The direction of rotation of universal motor can be reversed by reversing the flow of current through_______.

**Options:**

1) armature winding

2) field winding

3) either armature winding or field winding

4) None of these

**Answer:** either armature winding or field winding

**Q 67:** Which of the following statement is incorrect?

**Options:**

1) As the temperature rises, the tension in the transmission line decreases

2) As temperature rises, the sag in transmission lines reduces

3) Tension and sag in transmission lines are complementary to each other

4) None of these

**Answer:** As temperature rises, the sag in transmission lines reduces

**Q 68:** Series capacitors in transmission lines are of little use when

**Options:**

1) the load VAR requirement is small

2) the load VAR requirement is large

3) the load VAR requirement is fluctuating

4) None of these

**Answer:** the load VAR requirement is small

**Q 69:** Stability of a system is not affected by____.

**Options:**

1) reactance of line

2) losses

3) reactance of generator

4) output torque

**Answer:** losses

**Q 70:** Which of the following is not a constituent for making porcelain insulators?

**Options:**

1) Silica

2) Kaolin

3) Feldspar

4) Quartz

**Answer:** Silica

**Q 71:** Name the generating station where electrical energy is generated through steam.

**Options:**

1) Thermal power station

2) Diesel power station

3) Hydro power station

4) Nuclear power station

**Answer:** Thermal power station

**Q 72:** In a 3-phase 4-wire cable, the cross-sectional area of neutral conductor is

**Options:**

1) equal to phase conductor

2) more than phase conductor

3) half the phase conductor

4) None of these

**Answer:** half the phase conductor

**Q 73:** Fuse is always made up of alloys and metals having

**Options:**

1) high resistance and high melting points

2) High resistance and low melting points

3) low resistance and low melting points

4) low resistance and high melting points

**Answer:** High resistance and low melting points

**Q 74:** In case of stair case wiring which type of switch is used?

**Options:**

1) 2 one way switches

2) 1 one way switch

3) 2 two way switch

4) 1 two way switch

**Answer:** 2 two way switch

**Q 75:** Two incandescent lamps of wattage 40W, 60W are connected in series with voltage of 230 V. Which out of the two lamps will glow brighter?

Options:

1) 40W

2) 60W

3) both brightly

4) both dim

**Answer:** 40W

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**Q 76:** Rating of fuse wire is expressed in terms of____.

**Options:**

1) ohms

2) mhos

3) amperes

4) watts

**Answer:** amperes

**Q 77:** If a live wire comes in contact with metal casing, excess current moves to______.

**Options:**

1) power house

2) dynamos

3) earth

4) transformers

**Answer:** earth

**Q 78:** A 3-phase, 4 wire system is commonly used on____.

**Options:**

1) primary transmission

2) secondary transmission

3) primary distribution

4) Secondary distribution

**Answer:** Secondary distribution

**Q 79:** Insulator that is used in low voltage distribution lines is known as_____.

**Options:**

1) shackle

2) strain

3) pin

4) suspension

**Answer:** shackle

**Q 80:** Which of the following type of lamp gives more illumination from low wattage ?

**Options:**

1) Incandescent lamp

2) Fluorescent lamp

3) Compact fluorescent lamp

4) LED lamp

**Answer:** LED lamp

**Q 81:** The fuse is installed in which of the following wire?

**Options:**

1) Neutral

2) Phase

3) earth

4) All options are correct

**Answer:** Phase

**Q 82:** The wave form of the armature m.m.f. in DC machine is _____.

**Options:**

1) square

2) rectangular

3) triangular

4) sinusoidal

**Answer:** triangular

**Q 83:** Light waves travel with a velocity of____.

**Options:**

1) 3X1010cm/s

2) 3X1012cm/s

3) 3X1015cm/s

4) 3X1018cm/s

**Answer:** 3X1010cm/s

**Q 84:** Light is produced in electric discharge lamps by_____.

**Options:**

1) Heating effect of current

2) Magnetic effect of current

3) Ionisation in a gas or vapour

4) Carbon electrodes

**Answer:** Ionisation in a gas or vapour

**Q 85:** A DC generator can be termed as________.

**Options:**

1) rotating amplifier

2) prime mover

3) power pump

4) None of these

**Answer:** rotating amplifier

**Q 86:** Arc blow is a welding defect which is encountered in

**Options:**

1) Arc welding using DC current

2) Arc welding using AC current

3) Gas welding

4) Thermit welding

**Answer:** Arc welding using DC current

**Q 87:** Which of the following has the highest value of thermal conductivity?

**Options:**

1) Aluminium

2) Brass

3) Copper

4) Iron

**Answer:** Copper

**Q 88:** During resistance welding heat produced at the joint is proportional to_____.

**Options:**

1) Current

2) Voltage

3) I2R

4) Volt-amperes

**Answer:** I2R

**Q 89:** Which of the following is tetravalent?

**Options:**

1) Quartz

2) Diamond

3) Germanium

4) Antimony

**Answer:** Germanium

**Q 90:** The acceptor type of impurity is_____.

**Options:**

1) phosphorous

2) aluminium

3) boron

4) iron

**Answer:** boron

**Q 91:** The reverse bias characteristics of a semiconductor diode is shown in

**Options:**

**Answer:** (b)

**Q 92:** The peak inverse voltage, in case of a bridge rectifier, for each, diode is: (where, Em = Peak value of input voltage)

**Options:**

1) Em

2) 2Em

3) 3Em

4) 4Em

**Answer:** Em

**Q 93:** In an electronic circuit transistor is used for switching ON and OFF a relay, when the transistor switches OFF the relay, a higher voltage appears across the transistor. How can a transistor be protected from this voltage?

**Options:**

1) A capacitor in series to the relay

2) A resistor in series to the relay

3) An inductor parallel to the relay

4) A diode parallel to the relay

**Answer:** A diode parallel to the relay

**Q 94:** The efficiency of the class B amplifier is approximately:

**Options:**

1) 10% to 30%

2) 30% to 50%

3) 50% to 60%

4) 70% to 100%

**Answer:** 70% to 100%

**Q 95:** The oscillations in a synchronous motor can be damped out by

**Options:**

1) maintaining constant excitation

2) providing damper bars in the rotor pole faces

3) running the motor on leading power factors

4) oscillations cannot be damped

**Answer:** providing damper bars in the rotor pole faces

**Q 96:** An over excited synchronous motor is used for_______.

**Options:**

1) variable speed loads

2) low torque loads

3) power factor corrections

4) high torque loads

**Answer:** power factor corrections

**Q 97:** Synchronous motors are_____.

**Options:**

1) essentially self-starting

2) not-self starting

3) self-starting

4) None of these

**Answer:** not-self starting

**Q 98:** When any one-phase of a 3-phase synchronous motor is short-circuited, the motor_____.

**Options:**

1) will overheat in spots

2) will refuse to start

3) will not come upto speed

4) will fail to pull into step

**Answer:** will overheat in spots

**Q 99:** Which of the following can be measured by conducting insulation resistance test on a synchronous motor ?

**Options:**

1) Phase to phase winding resistance

2) Rotor winding to earthed shaft

3) Stator winding to earthed frame

4) All options are correct

**Answer:** All options are correct

**Q 100:** The under-excited synchronous motor takes______.

**Options:**

1) leading current

2) lagging current

3) both leading current and lagging current

4) None of these

**Answer:** lagging current

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**SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper – 2018 “held on 24 January 2018” Morning Shift (Mechanical Engineering)**

**Q 1:** What kind of contact can be established for a lower pair?

**Options:**

1) Point contact

2) Surface contact

3) No contact

4) None of these

**Answer:** Surface contact

**Q 2:** How many degrees of rotational freedom exists in a free body in space ?

Options:

1) 3

2) 4

3) 5

4) 6

**Answer:** 3

**Q 3:** Kinematic chain is known as mechanism when _________.

**Options:**

1) none of the link is fixed

2) one link is fixed

3) two links are fixed

4) all of the links are fixed

**Answer:** one link is fixed

**Q 4:** Which of the following is TRUE for a flywheel which is retarding, if T is the torque on the crankshaft at any instant and Tmean is the mean resisting torque?

**Options:**

1) Tmean-T>0

2) T -Tmean >0

3) Tmean-T<0

4) T -Tmean <0

**Answer:** T -Tmean <0

**Q 5:** Which term defines the fluctuation of speed of a flywheel in terms of linear speeds?

**Options:**

1) 2(v_{1} – v_{2}) / (v_{1} + v_{2})

2) 2(v_{1} + v_{2}) / (v_{1} – v_{2})

3) v_{1} + v_{2} / 2(v_{1} – v_{2})

4) v_{1} – v_{2} / 2(v_{1} + v_{2})

**Answer:** 2(v_{1} – v_{2}) / (v_{1} + v_{2})

**Q 6: **What is the velocity ratio for creep in the belt drive system for σ_{1} being the stress in tight side, σ_{2} being the stress on slack side and E is the young’s modulus of elasticity of the belt material ?

**Options:**

**1) **

**2) **

**3) **

**4) **

**Answer:**

**Q 7:** Which kind of pair can attachment of a car mirror be classified into?

**Options:**

1) Rolling pair

2) Sliding pair

3) Spherical pair

4) Screw pair

**Answer:** Sliding pair

**Q 8:** Which of the following can said to be equivalent with the frictional torque transmitted by a cone clutch?

**Options:**

1) Flat pivot bearing

2) Flat collar bearing

3) Conical pivot bearing

4) Trapezoidal pivot bearing

**Answer:** Trapezoidal pivot bearing

**Q 9: **Which equation represents the frictional torque transmitted in a conical pivot bearing with radius R of shaft and α as the semi-angle of the cone ?

**Options:**

1) 1/2 x μ.W.R cosec α

2) 2/3 x μ.W.R cosec α

3) 3/4 x μ.W.R cosec α

4) μ.W.R cosec α

**Answer:** 1/2 x μ.W.R cosec α

**Q 10: **How the normal pitch (P_{N}) and axial pitch (P_{C}) related to a helical gear with helix angle α ?

**Options:**

1) P_{C }= P_{N}·cos α

2) P_{C }= P_{N} / cos α

3) P_{N} = P_{C}·cos α

4) P_{N} = P_{C} / cos α

**Answer:** P_{C }= P_{N} / cos α

**Q 11:** Which of the following is CORRECT for the train value of a gear train?

**Options:**

1) Speed of driver/speed of driven

2) Speed of driven/speed of driver

3) Number of teeth on driven/number of teeth on driver

4) None of these

**Answer:** Speed of driven/speed of driver

**Q 12:** What will be the change in the vertical height (in m) of a watt governor, when the speed is decreased from 50 rpm to 25 rpm?

**Options:**

1) 0.358

2) 1.074

3) 1.432

4) 1.79

**Answer:** 1.074

**Q 13:** How is sensitivity and stability related to governor?

**Options:**

1) Directly proportional

2) Inversely proportional

3) Not related

4) Cannot be determined

**Answer:** Inversely proportional

**Q 14:** Which ratio defines the height of a watt governor to that of the porter governor for equal arm and link lengths, where m is the mass of the ball and M is the mass of the sleeve?

**Options:**

1) m / (M + m)

2) M / (M + m)

3) (M + m) / m

4) (M + m) / M

**Answer:** m / (M + m)

**Q 15:** Which of the following cam follower has the highest wear rate?

**Options:**

1) Knife edge follower

2) Roller follower

3) Flat face follower

4) Spherical faced follower

**Answer:** Knife edge follower

**Q 16:** When the friction comes into action between the two running parts of a machine, it results in the production of ________.

**Options:**

1) light

2) oil

3) energy

4) heat

**Answer:** heat

**Q 17:** When the position of the body is either in rest or in uniform velocity, then the body is said to be in the ________.

**Options:**

1) rest

2) uniform motion

3) rotational motion

4) equilibrium

**Answer:** equilibrium

**Q 18:** The beam which has one ________ end and other ________ end is known as cantilever beam.

**Options:**

1) fixed, free

2) fixed, hinged

3) hinged, free

4) None of these

**Answer:** fixed, free

**Q 19:** Calculate the value of modulus of rigidity (N/mm2) if the Poisson’s ratio is 0.25 and modulus of elasticity for the material is 200 N/mm2?

**Options:**

1) 50

2) 80

3) 100

4) 150

**Answer:** 80

**Q 20:** Choose the INCORRECT option for the Hooke’s law.

**Options:**

1)

2)

3)

4) and both

**Answer:** and both

**Q 21: **A steel rod whose diameter is 2 cm and is 2 m long, experiences heating of temperature 30^{o}C to 150^{o}C. The coefficient of thermal expansion is α = 12 x 10^{-6} / ^{o}C and Young’s modulus is 200 GPa. If the rod has been restricted to its original position, then the thermal stress (MPa) developed will be ________.

**Options:**

1) 234

2) 256

3) 288

4) 300

**Answer:** 288

**Q 22:** The conditions for the thermal stress in a body are given below.

(1) It is the function of coefficient of thermal expansion.

(2) It is the function of temperature rise.

(3) It is the function of modulus of elasticity.

Which of the following is the CORRECT answer?

**Options:**

1) 1 and 2 only

2) 1 and 3 only

3) 2 and 3 only

4) All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 23:** If the stress acting on a point is in the three dimensions, then what is the number of components in a stress tensor required for defining that stress?

**Options:**

1) 3

2) 4

3) 6

4) 9

**Answer:** 9

**Q 24:** If the equivalent torque in a shaft is 500 Nm and the bending moment is 300 Nm. Calculate the magnitude of the required torque and the equivalent bending moment.

**Options:**

1) 500 Nm and 400 Nm

2) 400 Nm and 400 Nm

3) 400 Nm and 500 Nm

4) 300 Nm and 400 Nm

**Answer:** 400 Nm and 400 Nm

**Q 25:** What will be the change in length (mm) of a steel bar having a square cross section of dimension 40 mm x 40 mm, which is subjected to an axial compressive load of 250 kN. If the length of the bar is 4 m and modulus of elasticity is E = 250 GPa?

**Options:**

1) 2.5

2) 1.25

3) 2

4) 1.5

**Answer:** 2.5

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**Q 26:** Choose the INCORRECT option for the equation of elongation of a uniform rod having length L due to the self weight W.

**Options:**

1) δ = WL / 2AE

2) δ = 2WL / AE

3) δ = WL / AE

4) δ = 2WL / AE and δ = WL / AE both

**Answer:** δ = 2WL / AE and δ = WL / AE both

**Q 27:** Consider the loaded beam as shown in the figure below. Determine the portion of the beam which is subjected to pure bending.

Options:

1) DE

2) CD

3) BD

4) AE

**Answer:** BD

**Q 28: **Calculate the total angle of twist for a stepped shaft which is subjected to the torque (T) as shown in the figure below.

**Options:**

1) TI / πGd^{4}

2) 66TI / πGd^{4}

3) TI / 66Gd^{4}

4) 36TI / πGd^{4}

**Answer:** 36TI / πGd^{4}

**Q 29: **A cross sectional bar of area 700 mm^{2} is subjected to an axial load as shown in the figure below. What is the value of stress (MPa) in the section RS?

**Options:**

1) 30

2) 40

3) 50

4) 60

**Answer:** 30

**Q 30:** If the diameter of the column is reduced by 30%, then what will be the change in the Euler’s buckling load (in %)?

**Options:**

1) 25

2) 50

3) 75

4) 100

**Answer:** 75

**Q 31:** What is the value of latent heat of vapourization at critical point?

**Options:**

1) Zero

2) Greater than zero

3) Less than zero

4) Insufficient data

**Answer:** Zero

**Q 32:** What happens to the specific volume of water when it is heated at 0oC?

**Options:**

1) Decreases steadily

2) Increases steadily

3) First increases then decreases

4) First decreases then increases

**Answer:** First decreases then increases

**Q 33:** Which of the following is the other name of isentropic process?

**Options:**

1) a reversible isothermal process

2) a reversible adiabatic process

3) a reversible isobaric process

4) a reversible isochoric process

**Answer:** a reversible adiabatic process

**Q 34:** Which of the following represents an impossible cycle?

**Options:**

1)

2)

3)

4) None of these

**Answer:**

**Q 35:** Which of the following is INCORRECT for reversible adiabatic process?

**Options:**

1) dS=0

2) S is constant.

3) dQ=0

4) Q is not constant.

**Answer:** Q is not constant.

**Q 36:** Which of the following method of fuel ignition is used in diesel engine?

**Options:**

1) Spark plug

2) Fuel injector

3) Combustion chamber

4) Heat from compressed air

**Answer:** Heat from compressed air

**Q 37:** How self ignition temperature of petrol be compared to that of diesel?

**Options:**

1) Higher

2) Lower

3) Same

4) Insufficient data

**Answer:** Higher

**Q 38:** Which of the following is TRUE for supercharging?

**Options:**

1) Supplying higher density of air at intake than the surrounding.

2) Providing forced cool air at intake.

3) Raising exhaust pressure

4) Supplying excess fuel for raising load

**Answer:** Supplying higher density of air at intake than the surrounding.

**Q 39:** Which term best represents the calorific value of gaseous fuel?

**Options:**

1) kcal

2) kcal/kg

3) kcal/m2

4) kcal/n

**Answer:** kcal/kg

**Q 40:** Which of the substance can be classified as pure substance?

**Options:**

1) Humid air

2) Soil

3) Sand in water

4) Baking soda

**Answer:** Baking soda

**Q 41:** Which of the following statement is INCORRECT for work output of an ideal Otto cycle?

**Options:**

1) Decreases with an increase in adiabatic index.

2) Decreases with an increase in compression ratio.

3) Increases with an increase in pressure ratio.

4) Both Decreases with an increase in adiabatic index and Decreases with an increase in compression ratio.

**Answer:** Both Decreases with an increase in adiabatic index and Decreases with an increase in compression ratio.

**Q 42:** A reversible engine, which operates between temperature range of 1200 K and 600 K, rejects 30% of heat to the sink comes under the classification of?

**Options:**

1) Carnot Engine

2) Petrol engine

3) Diesel engine

4) None of these

**Answer:** None of these

**Q 43:** Which relation clearly depicts the absolute thermodynamic temperature scale?

**Options:**

1) Q_{1} / Q_{2} = T_{1} / T_{2}

2) Q_{2} / Q_{1} = T_{1} / T_{2}

3) Q_{1} / Q_{2} = T_{1} / T_{2 } and Q_{2} / Q_{1} = T_{1} / T_{2} both

4) None of these

**Answer:** Q_{1} / Q_{2} = T_{1} / T_{2 }

**Q 44:** At triple point for water, which of the following term is not equal to zero?

**Options:**

1) Enthalpy

2) Entropy

3) Internal energy

4) None of these

**Answer:** Enthalpy

**Q 45:** What does the term ‘quality’ indicate?

**Options:**

1) Mass fraction of liquid in a liquid vapour mixture

2) Mass fraction of vapour in a liquid vapour mixture

3) Both Mass fraction of liquid in a liquid vapour mixture and Mass fraction of vapour in a liquid vapour mixture

4) None of these

**Answer:** Mass fraction of vapour in a liquid vapour mixture

**Q 46:** A gas is compressed frictionless from an initial state of y m3 and 1 MPa to a final state of 0.2 m3 and 1 MPa. There is a transfer of 40 kJ of heat from the gas and a drop of 20kJ in internal energy. What is the initial state volume of the gas?

**Options:**

1) 0.2

2) 0.22

3) 19.8

4) 20.2

**Answer:** 0.22

**Q 47:** What is the drop in enthalpy (in kJ/kg) for a steam whistle which is perfectly insulated and does not work has an exit velocity of steam at 40 m/sec?

**Options:**

1) 0.8

2) 8

3) 80

4) 800

**Answer:** 0.8

**Q 48:** Two Carnot engines are connected in a series with working extreme temperatures as 2000 K and 200 K respectively. What is the efficiency of the first Carnot engine (in %)?

**Options:**

1) 0

2) 50

3) 68

4) 90

**Answer:** 0

**Q 49: **What the region (3) in the p-V diagram given below is called ?

**Options:**

1) Compressed liquid region

2) Saturated liquid vapour region

3) Solid-liquid region

4) Superheated region

**Answer:** Saturated liquid vapour region

**Q 50:** Which formula is the CORRECT depiction of slope of adiabatic curve?

**Options:**

1) dP / dV = -γ(P/V)

2) dP / dV = P/V

3) dP / dV = -(P/V)

4) dP / dV = γ(P/V)

**Answer:**

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**Q 51:** ______ surface hardening process gives maximum hardness to the surface.

**Options:**

1) Pack hardening

2) Nitriding

3) Cyaniding

4) Induction hardening

**Answer:** Nitriding

**Q 52:** ______ is not a ceramic material

**Options:**

1) Glass

2) Bakelite

3) Clay

4) Aluminium oxide

**Answer:** Bakelite

**Q 53:** To which of the following is the proof stress related?

**Options:**

1) Elongation

2) Necking

3) Yielding

4) Fracture

**Answer:** Elongation

**Q 54:** Mechanical seals are used

**Options:**

1) to prevent vibrations

2) to prevent leakage

3) to reduce friction

4) to balance the equipment

**Answer:** to prevent leakage

**Q 55:** Noise level in case of an aircraft is

**Options:**

1) generally less than 100 db

2) generally more than 100 db

3) always more than 100 db

4) in the range of 60-80 db

**Answer:** always more than 100 db

**Q 56:** The tool life of a tool is said to be over if

**Options:**

1) the tool has failed and a poor surface finish is obtained

2) sudden increase in power and cutting forces takes place and chatter appears in machining

3) overheating and fuming due to friction occurs in addition to dimensional instability

4) All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 57:** Graphite moulds are generally used for continuous casting method because

**Options:**

1) the metals wet the mould slightly

2) only a small film of lubricating oil is required

3) they are self-lubricating

4) they are comparatively cheaper

**Answer:** they are self-lubricating

**Q 58:** Ceramic tools are fixed to tool by the following process

**Options:**

1) soldering

2) brazing

3) welding

4) clamping

**Answer:** brazing

**Q 59:** Gear tooth Vernier is used

**Options:**

1) to measure the addendum

2) to measure the addendum and dedendum

3) to measure the circular pitch

4) to measure the pitch line thickness of both

**Answer:** to measure the pitch line thickness of both

**Q 60: **Which one of the following is the steady flow energy equation for a boiler ?

**Options:**

1) A only

2) B only

3) C only

4) D only

**Answer:**D only

**Q 61:** The major constituents of a fuel are

**Options:**

1) carbon, hydrogen and oxygen

2) carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen

3) carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen, phosphorus and sulphur

4) Carbon and hydrogen

**Answer:** Carbon and hydrogen

**Q 62:** The general gas equation is given as

**Options:**

1) pv = mT

2) p/V=mT

3) pT =mRT

4) p/V = mRT

**Answer:** pT =mRT

**Q 63:** Molar volume is equal to

**Options:**

1) 22.41 m3 at NTP

2) 2.241 m3 at NTP

3) 29.27 m3 at NTP

4) 1.03 m3 at NTP

**Answer:** 22.41 m3 at NTP

**Q 64:** Internal combustion engine works on

**Options:**

1) first law of thermodynamics

2) second law of thermodynamics

3) zeroth law of thermodynamics

4) None of these

**Answer:** first law of thermodynamics

**Q 65:** The first and second laws of thermodynamics help to derive the following properties, respectively.

**Options:**

1) pressure and temperature

2) temperature and entropy

3) pressure and entropy

4) temperature and enthalpy

**Answer:** temperature and entropy

**Q 66:** Constant volume process is

**Options:**

1) isopiestic process

2) hyperbolic process

3) isometric process

4) polytropic process

**Answer:** isometric process

**Q 67:** Stream and velocity potential functions for a two-dimensional flow field given by u = 2x and v = -2y are

**a)** Ψ = 2xy, φ = x^{2} – y^{2}

**b)** Ψ = x^{2} – y^{2} , φ = 2xy

**c)** Ψ = x^{2} y^{2}, φ = x^{2} + y^{2}

**d)** Ψ = x^{2} + y^{2}, φ = x^{2} y^{2}

**Options:**

1) (a) Only

2) (b) Only

3) (c ) Only

4) (d) Only

**Answer:** (b) Only

**Q 68:** The internal energy of a gas obeying van der Waals, equation (p + a/V2)(V-b)= RT depends on its

**Options:**

1) temperature

2) temperature and pressure

3) temperature and specific volume

4) pressure and specific volume

**Answer:** temperature and specific volume

**Q 69:** Consider the following properties:

(1) Entropy

(2) Viscosity

(3) Temperature

(4) Specific heat at constant volume

Which of the above properties of a system is/are extensive?

**Options:**

1) Only 1

2) Only 1 and 2

3) Only 2, 3 and 4

4) Only 1, 2 and 4

**Answer:** Only 1

**Q 70:** In cooling tower, water is cooled by the process of:

**Options:**

1) condensation

2) fusion

3) evaporation

4) sublimation

**Answer:** evaporation

**Q 71:** While starting the centrifugal pump

**Options:**

1) delivery valve is kept wide open

2) delivery valve is kept closed

3) inlet valve is kept closed

4) delivery valve is opened slightly

**Answer:** delivery valve is kept closed

**Q 72:** In the centrifugal pump, maximum efficiency is obtained when the blades are

**Options:**

1) bent backward

2) bent forward

3) straight

4) berit to have aerofoil section

**Answer:** straight

**Q 73:** One dimension flow is one

**Options:**

1) involving zero transverse components of flow

2) in uniform flow

3) in steady uniform flow

4) None of these

**Answer:** involving zero transverse components of flow

**Q 74:** The hydraulic mean depth for a rectangular section is: Where, b = Width of rectangular section d = Depth of water

**Options:**

1) bd / (2d+b)

2) bd / (d+b)

3) 2bd / (d+b)

4) bd / 2(d+b)

**Answer:** bd / (2d+b)

**Q 75:** The branch of Engineering Science, which deals with water at rest or in motion is called

**Options:**

1) hydraulics

2) fluid mechanics

3) applied mechanics

4) kinematics

**Answer:** hydraulics

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**Q 76:** Pressure inside a water droplet is given by the relation

**Options:**

1) ρ=4σ/d

2) ρ=3σ/d

3) ρ=8σ/d

4) ρ=16σ/d

**Answer:** ρ=4σ/d

**Q 77:** Vertical distribution of velocity in an open channel for laminar flow can be assumed as

**Options:**

1) offer no resistance to change of shape

2) offer resistance to change of shape

3) offer least resistance to compression

4) None of these

**Answer:** offer least resistance to compression

**Q 78:** A manometer is used to measure

**Options:**

1) velocity of flow in channel

2) atmospheric pressure

3) pressure in pipes

4) None of these

**Answer:** pressure in pipes

**Q 79:** The length of mouthpiece as-compared to diameter is

**Options:**

1) 5 to 6 times

2) 6 to 8 times

3) 2 to 3 times

4) 1 to 1.5 times

**Answer:** 2 to 3 times

**Q 80:** The lower critical Reynolds number is approximately equal to

**Options:**

1) 100

2) 200

3) 1000

4) 2000

**Answer:** 2000

**Q 81:** If a thin plate is held normal to the flow, the viscous drag on it is

**Options:**

1) maximum

2) minimum

3) zero

4) None of these

**Answer:** zero

**Q 82:** The cross section of cippoletti weir is

**Options:**

1) rectangular

2) triangular

3) trapezoidal

4) None of these

**Answer:** trapezoidal

**Q 83:** When there is no air left blow the nappe, it is known as

**Options:**

1) free nappe

2) depressed nappe

3) adhering nappe

4) All option are correct

**Answer:** adhering nappe

**Q 84:** In case of reaction turbine

**Options:**

1) P1 = P2

2) P1 > P2

3) P1 < P2

4) None of these

**Answer:** P1 > P2

**Q 85:** The overall efficiency of Pelton wheel is about

**Options:**

1) 0.55

2) 0.65

3) 0.85

4) 0.99

**Answer:** 0.85

**Q 86:** If α is the rake angle of the cutting tool, Ψ is the shear angle and ϑ is the cutting velocity, then the velocity of chip sliding along the shear plane is given by

**a)** ϑcos α / sin(Ψ – α)

**b)** ϑsin α / sin(Ψ – α)

**c)** ϑsin α / cos(Ψ – α)

**d)** ϑcos α / cos(Ψ – α)

**Options:**

1) (a)

2) (b)

3) (c )

4) (d)

**Answer:** (a)

**Q 87:** Which one of the statements is correct for a forced vortex?

**Options:**

1) Turns in an opposite direction to a free vortex

2) Always occurs in conjunction with a free vortex

3) Has the linear velocity directly proportional to the radius

4) Has the linear velocity inversely proportional to the radius

**Answer:** Has the linear velocity directly proportional to the radius

**Q 88:** Why is multi-staging in centrifugal pumps used?

**Options:**

1) For high flow rate

2) For high head

3) For high speed

4) For high efficiency

**Answer:** For high head

**Q 89:** The overall efficiency of a Pelton turbine is 70%. If the mechanical efficiency is 85%, what is its hydraulic efficiency?

**Options:**

1) 0.824

2) 0.595

3) 0.723

4) 0.815

**Answer:** 0.824

**Q 90:** Which of the following water turbines does not require a draft tube?

**Options:**

1) Propeller turbine

2) Pelton Turbine

3) Kaplan turbine

4) Francis turbine

**Answer:** Pelton Turbine

**Q 91:** Which phenomenon will occur when the value at the discharge end of a pipe connected to a reservoir is suddenly closed?

**Options:**

1) Cavitation

2) Erosion

3) Hammering

4) Surging

**Answer:** Hammering

**Q 92:** The pressure drop for a relatively low Reynolds number flow in a 600 mm, 30 m long pipeline is 70 kPa. What is the wall shear stress?

**Options:**

1) 0

2) 350 Pa

3) 700 Pa

4) 1400 Pa

**Answer:** 350 Pa

**Q 93:** Uniform flow occurs when

**Options:**

1) the flow is steady

2) the flow is streamline

3) size and shape of the cross section in a particular length remain constant

4) size and cross section change uniformly along length

**Answer:** size and shape of the cross section in a particular length remain constant

**Q 94:** General energy equation holds for

**Options:**

1) steady flow

2) turbulent flow

3) laminar flow

4) non-uniform flow

**Answer:** non-uniform flow

**Q 95:** Two pipe systems can be said to be equivalent, when the following quantities are same

**Options:**

1) friction loss and flow

2) length and diameter

3) flow and length

4) friction factor and diameter

**Answer:** friction loss and flow

**Q 96:** Water, by evaporative cooling, can theoretically be cooled down to:-

**Options:**

1) atmospheric temperature

2) air’s dry bulb temperature

3) air’s wet bulb temperature

4) air’s dew point temperature

**Answer:** air’s dew point temperature

**Q 97:** Any change in load is adjusted by adjusting following parameter on turbine

**Options:**

1) net head

2) absolute velocity

3) blade velocity

4) flow

**Answer:** flow

**Q 98:** A turbine pump is basically a centrifugal pump equipped additionally with

**Options:**

1) adjustable blades

2) backward curved blades

3) vaned diffusion casing

4) inlet guide blades

**Answer:** vaned diffusion casing

**Q 99:** A Pelton wheel is

**Options:**

1) impulse turbine

2) radial flow impulse turbine

3) inward flow impulse turbine

4) outward flow impulse turbine

**Answer:** impulse turbine

**Q 1****00:** Guide angle as per the aerofoil theory of Kaplan turbine blade design is defined as the angle between

**Options:**

1) lift and resultant force

2) drag and resultant force

3) lift and tangential force

4) lift and drag

**Answer:** lift and resultant force

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**SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper – 2018 “held on 23 January 2018” Evening Shift (Mechanical Engineering) **

**Q 1:** The number of joints (j) which constitutes a kinematic chain can be expressed in terms of number of links (l) as_________.

**Options:**

**1)** j = (3/4)l – 2

**2)** j = (3/2)l + 2

**3)** j = (3/2)l – 2

**4)** j = l – (2/3)

**Answer:** j = (3/2)l – 2

**Q 2:** Which of the following will lead to the formation of higher pair ?

**Options:**

**1)** Sliding pair

**2)** Turning pair

**3)** Rolling pair

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Rolling pair

**Q 3:** What is the degree of freedom of the mechanism shown below ?

**Options:**

**1)** 1

**2)** 2

**3)** 3

**4)** 4

**Answer:** 1

**Q 4:** Which of the following statement is **TRUE** regarding work done per cycle ?

**Options:**

**1)** Work done per cycle is directly proportional to the mean torque

**2)** Work done per cycle is directly proportional to the angle turned in one revolution

**3)** Work done per cycle is inversely proportional to the angle turned in one revolution

**4)** Both Work done per cycle is directly proportional to the mean torque and Work done per cycle is directly proportional to the angle turned in one revolution

**Answer:** Both Work done per cycle is directly proportional to the mean torque and Work done per cycle is directly proportional to the angle turned in one revolution

**Q 5:** The angular acceleration and the moment of inertia of the flywheel is 0.6 rad/s^{2} and 2500 kg.m^{2} respectively. What is the kinetic energy (in kN-m) of the flywheel after 10 seconds from the start ?

**Options:**

**1)** 45

**2)** 450

**3)** 4.5

**4)** 4500

**Answer:** 45

**Q 6:** The power transmission takes place from a pulley of diameter 1 m running at the speed of 250 rpm to a pulley of 2.50 m diameter by means of a belt.

**Options:**

**1)** 110

**2)** 150

**3)** 100

**4)** 625

**Answer:** 100

**Q 7:** The scotch yoke mechanism is the inversion of _______.

**Options:**

**1)** Four bar link chain

**2)** Double slider crank chain

**3)** Single slider crank chain

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Double slider crank chain

**Q 8:** Which of the following is **NOT** the inversion of single slider crank chain ?

**Options:**

**1)** Pendulum pump

**2)** Whitworth quick return motion mechanism

**3)** Oscillating cylinder engine

**4)** Eliptical trammel

**Answer:** Eliptical trammel

**Q 9:** Which of the following is **NOT** the inversion of single slider crank chain ?

**Options:**

**1)** Uniform pressure theory

**2)** Uniform wear theory

**3)** Uniform friction theory

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Uniform wear theory

**Q 10:** The equation for the calculation of torque transmitting capacity in the conical clutch as per uniform wear theory is _______.

**Options:**

**1)** M_{t} = (μP / 4sin α) (D + d)

**2)** M_{t} = (μP / 4sin α) (D – d)

**3)** M_{t} = (μP / sin α) (D – d)

**4)** M_{t} = (2μP / sin α) (D – d)

**Answer:** M_{t} = (μP / 4sin α) (D + d)

**Q 11:** Which of the following statement is TRUE about the length of arc of contact ?

**Options:**

**1)** Inversely proportional to the module

**2)** Varies directly to the length of the path of contact

**3)** Inversely proportional to the circular pitch

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** Varies directly to the length of the path of contact

**Q 12:** The profile of gears having module of 12 mm and length of arc of contact is 60 mm. What is the contact ratio of the gear profile ?

**Options:**

**1)** 2

**2)** 1.2

**3)** 1.6

**4)** 5

**Answer:** 1.6

**Q 13:** Which of the following is NOT the type of loaded type governor ?

**Options:**

**1)** Dead weight governor

**2)** Spring controlled governor

**3)** Watt governor

**4)** Porter governor

**Answer:** Watt governor

**Q 14:** The types of failure involved in the analysis of the riveted joints are ?

**1)** Shear failure of rivet

**2)** Tensile failure of the plate

**3)** Crushing failure of the plate

**Options:**

**1)** (1) and (2) only

**2)** (2) and (3) only

**3)** (1) (2) and (3)

**4)** (1) and (3) only

**Answer:** (1) (2) and (3)

**Q 15:** Which of the following options is correct about the motion of the follower ?

**Options:**

**1)** Uniform velocity

**2)** Simple harmonic motion

**3)** Uniform acceleration

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 16:** When a body is said to be in dynamic equilibrium ?

**Options:**

**1)** When the body is moving with non uniform accelerations.

**2)** When the body is in uniform motion along a circular path.

**3) **When the body is in uniform motion along a straight line.

**4)** When the body is moving with instantaneous velocity.

**Answer:** When the body is in uniform motion along a straight line.

**Q 17:** Which of the following term can also be used to state the dynamic equilibrium ?

**Options:**

**1)** Translatory equilibrium

**2)** Static equilibrium

**3)** Kinetic equilibrium

**4)** Rotational equilibrium

**Answer:** Kinetic equilibrium

**Q 18:** What is the direction of application of friction force with respect to the direction of motion of an object ?

**Options:**

**1)** Same

**2)** Perpendicular

**3)** Opposite

**4)** Downward

**Answer:** Opposite

**Q 19:** What is the S.I unit of Poisson’s ratio ?

**Options:**

**1)** kN/mm^{2}

**2)** N/mm^{2}

**3)** mm

**4)** Unitless

**Answer:** Unitless

**Q 20:** Maximum principal stress theory was postulated by _______.

**Options:**

**1)** ST Venant

**2)** Mohr

**3)** Rankine

**4)** Tresca

**Answer:** Rankine

**Q 21:** The equivalent length of the column, when both the ends are hinged is ______.

**Options:**

**1)** l

**2)** l / 2

**3)** l / 4

**4)** 2l

**Answer:** l

**Q 22:** The expression for the slenderness Ratio of the columns is given as ______.

**Options:**

**1)** (l_{e} / k_{min})^{2}

**2) **(2l_{e} / k_{min})^{2}

**3)** (l_{e} / k_{min})

**4)** (2l_{e} / k_{min})

**Answer:** (l_{e} / k_{min})

**Q 23:** The expression for the Rankine’s crippling load is given as _______.

**Options:**

**1)**

**2) **

**3) **

**4) **

**Answer: **

** **

**Q 24:** What is the ratio of the Euler’s buckling loads of column having (i) both ends fixed and (ii) one end fixed and other end free is ?

**Options:**

**1)** 4:1

**2)** 16:1

**3)** 1:4

**4)** 2:1

**Answer:** 16:1

**Q 25:** The thin walled cylindrical vessel has the wall thickness t and diameter d is subjected to the gauge pressure of p. If the diameter of the vessel is doubled, then what is the ratio of hoop stress as compared to initial value ?

**Options:**

**1)** 1:1

**2)** 2:1

**3)** 1:2

**4)** 1:4

**Answer:** 1:2

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**Q 26:** A metal pipe is subjected to internal pressure of 10 kgf /cm^{2}. If the permissible tensile stress in the metal is 200 kgf/cm^{2} and the thickness of the pipe is 2.5 cm. What is the diameter of the metal pipe ?

**Options:**

**1)** 10

**2)** 100

**3)** 200

**4)** 20

**Answer:** 100

**Q 27:** A power transmission shaft of diameter d rotating at the speed of N rpm. The power P is related to diameter d and N as_______.

**Options:**

**1)**

**2)**

**3)**

**4)**

**Answer:**

** **

**Q 28:** Which is the correct option for the stress experienced by the shaft when the power transmission in shaft takes place through the gears ?

**Options:**

**1)** Varying bending and constant torsional stresses

**2)** Constant bending and varying torsional stresses

**3)** Torsional stress.

**4)** Bending stress only

**Answer:** Varying bending and constant torsional stresses

**Q 29:** A beam of diameter 75 mm has a span length of 10 m is subjected to uniform distributed load of w kN/m. The maximum value of bending stress produced is 6.75 kN-m. What is the value of distributed load, if the beam is simply supported ?

**Options:**

**1)** 1.5

**2)** 0.54

**3)** 2

**4)** 5.4

**Answer:** 0.54

**Q 30:** A steel bar of dimension 10 mm **x** 1 mm **x** 1 mm is free to expand is heated from 15 ^{o}C to 25 ^{o}C. What stress shall be developed ?

**Options:**

**1)** Tensile stress

**2)** No stress

**3)** Shear stress

**4)** Compressive stress

**Answer:** No stress

**Q 31:** For a pure substance in gaseous phase to be liquefied, the gas has to undergo initial cooling below the_____.

**Options:**

**1)** Critical state

**2)** Saturated liquid line

**3)** Saturated vapor line

**4)** Triple point line

**Answer:** Critical state

**Q 32:** What is the CORREET order of decrease in entropy ?

**a)**Solid phase**b)**Liquid phase**c)**Gaseous phase

**Options:**

**1)** (a) > (b) > (c)

**2)** (c) > (b) > (a)

**3)** (c) > (a) > (b)

**4)** (a) > (c) > (b)

**Answer:** (c) > (b) > (a)

**Q 33:** The entropy always increases for an isolated system and when the equilibrium is reached, it is_______.

**Options:**

**1)** Maximum

**2)** Same as the Initial starting state

**3)** More than initial starting state

**4)** Zero

**Answer:** Maximum

**Q 34:** A Carnot engine operates between T_{1} and T_{2}. If there is an increase in source temperature by t and a decrease in sink temperature b t. How is the efficiency in both cases is related ?

**Options:**

**1)** η_{1} > η_{2}

**2)** η_{1} < η_{2}

**3)** η_{1} = η_{2}

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** η_{1} < η_{2 }

**Q 35:** In a surrounding, the amount of irreversibility of a process undergone by a system is determined by_____.

**Options:**

**1)** Entropy change of the system

**2)** Entropy change of the surrounding

**3)** Entropy increase of the universe

**4)** Entropy decrease of the universe.

**Q 36:** In Otto cycle, r is the compression ratio and γ is the adiabatic index. Which relation defines the air standard efficiency ?

**Options:**

**1)** η = 1 – (1 / r^{γ-1})

**2)** η = 1 – (1 / r^{γ})

**3)** η = 1 – (1 / r^{γ}+1)

**4)** η = 1 – (1 / r^{γ / γ-1})

**Answer:** η = 1 – (1 / r^{γ-1})

**Q 37:** For the same operating maximum pressure and temperature, which cycle will have the highest efficiency ?

**Options:**

**1)** Diesel cycle

**2)** Dual cycle

**3)** Otto cycle

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Diesel cycle

**Q 38:** The mean effective pressure of Otto cycle is given by______.

**Options:**

**1)** P_{m} = {p_{1}r_{k}(r_{p} – 1)(r_{k}^{γ-1} – 1) / (γ – 1) (r_{k} – 1)}

**2)** P_{m} = {p_{1}r_{k}(r_{p} – 1)(r_{k}^{γ+1} – 1) / (γ + 1) (r_{k} – 1)}

**3)** P_{m} = {p_{1}r_{k}(r_{p} + 1)(r_{k}^{γ-1} – 1) / (γ – 1) (r_{k} + 1)}

**4)** P_{m} = {p_{1}r_{k}(r_{p} – 1)(r_{k}^{γ-1} + 1) / (γ – 1) (r_{k} – 1)}

**Answer:** P_{m} = {p_{1}r_{k}(r_{p} – 1)(r_{k}^{γ-1} – 1) / (γ – 1) (r_{k} – 1)}

**Q 39:** What is the state at which phase change occurs without a change in pressure and temperature is known as ?

**Options:**

**1)** Critical state

**2)** Saturation state

**3)** Equilibrium state

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Critical state

**Q 40:** What value of the dryness fraction (in %) represents the dry saturated state of vapour ?

**Options:**

**1)** 0

**2)** 25

**3)** 50

**4)** 100

**Answer:** 100

** **

**Q 41:** Which factor contributes to the efficiency of the Otto cycle ?

**Options:**

**1)** Compression ratio

**2)** Operating pressure

**3)** Operating temperature

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Compression ratio

**Q 42:** If a Carnot refrigerator has a COP of 6. What is the ratio of the lower to the higher absolute temperature ?

**Options:**

**1)** 1-6

**2)** 7-8

**3)** 6-7

**4)** 1-7

**Answer:** 6-7

**Q 43:** Which of the below stated are properties of a PMM-2 ?

**1)** When net work is equal to the heat absorbed and work efficiency is 100%.

**2)** Heat is exchanged from one heat reservoir only

**3)** It violates Kelvin-Planck statement.

**4)** It is hypothetical machine.

**Options:**

**1)** (1), (2) and (4)

**2)** (1), (3) and (4)

**3)** (2), (3) and (4)

**4)** (1), (2), (3) and (4)

**Answer:** (1), (2), (3) and (4)

**Q 44:** Tonnes of refrigeration mean_______.

**Options:**

**1)** The weight of the machine is one tonne.

**2)** The weight of the refrigerant is one tonne.

**3)** The rate of the heat extraction is one tone.

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** The rate of the heat extraction is one tone.

**Q 45:** What is the ratio W/Q (W=work transfer from cycle, Q = heat transfer to the cycle) known as ?

**Options:**

**1)** Air standard efficiency

**2)** Specific consumption

**3)** Specific work transfer

**4)** Work ratio

**Answer:** Air standard efficiency

**Q 46:** What processes does Carnot cycle consist of ?

**Options:**

**1)** Two isothermal and two adiabatic processes

**2)** Two isothermal and two constant volume processes

**3)** Two isothermal and two constant pressure processes

**4)** Two constant pressure and two constant volume processes.

**Answer:** Two isothermal and two adiabatic processes

**Q 47:** What is the temperature at which a system goes under a reversible isothermal process without heat transfer ?

**Options:**

**1)** Absolute zero temperature

**2)** Critical temperature

**3)** Reversible temperature

**4)** Boiling temperature

**Answer:** Absolute zero temperature

**Q 48:** How is the thermal efficiency of an I.C engine related to compression ratio ?

**Options:**

**1)** Increase

**2)** Decrease

**3)** May increase or decrease

**4)** Remains same

**Answer:** Increase

**Q 49:** All the processes in an air standard cycle are assumed to be______.

**Options:**

**1)** Adiabatic

**2)** Irreversible

**3)** Isothermal

**4)** Reversible

**Answer:** Reversible

**Q 50:** Water flows through a turbine in which due to friction there is a temperature rise from 30^{o}C to 35^{o}C. If there is no heat transfer taking place during the process. What is the change in the entropy of water ?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.077

**2)** 0.079

**3)** 0.406

**4)** 0.496

**Answer:** 0.079

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**Q 51:** 1151 – In 18-4-11 HSS (High speed steel) the percentage of chromium is

**Options:**

**1)** 1%

**2)** 4%

**3)** 18%

**4)** 20%

**Answer:** 4%

**Q 52:** The pH value of neutral solution is

**Options:**

**1)** Equal to 7

**2)** Less than 7

**3)** Greater than 7

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Equal to 7

**Q 53:** _______is better suited for lighter duty bearings.

**Options:**

**1)** Phosphor Bronze

**2)** Plastics

**3)** White metal

**4)** Monel metal

**Answer:** Phosphor Bronze

**Q 54:** ______is not the neutral refractory material.

**Options:**

**1)** Graphite

**2)** Karnelite

**3)** Chromite

**4)** Dolomite

**Answer:** Karnelite

**Q 55:** ________structure has maximum hardness.

**Options:**

**1)** Troostile

**2)** Pearlite

**3)** Martensite

**4)** Sorbite

**Answer: **Troostile

**Q 56:** ______has least coefficient of expension

**Options:**

**1)** Manganin

**2)** Invar

**3)** Constantan

**4)** Duralumin

**Answer:** Invar

**Q 57:** ________is the essential gradient of any hardened steel.

**Options:**

**1)** Carbon

**2)** Pearlite

**3)** Austenite

**4)** Martensite

**Answer:** Carbon

**Q 58:** ______structure can be studied by naked eye.

**Options:**

**1)** Atomic

**2)** Grain

**3)** Micro

**4)** Macro

**Answer:** Grain

**Q 59:** _______is used for bearing liner.

**Options:**

**1)** Brass

**2)** Bronze

**3)** Gun metal

**4)** Babbitt metal

**Answer:** Babbitt metal

**Q 60:** _______is the most Important element which controls the physical properties of steel.

**Options:**

**1)** Carbon

**2)** Chromium

**3)** Vanadium

**4)** Tungsten

span style=”color: #000000; font-size: 10pt;”>**Answer:** Carbon

**Q 61:** Practical fluids

**Options:**

**1)** Are viscous

**2)** Possess surface tension

**3)** Are compressible

**4)** Possess all the above properties

**Answer:** Possess all the above properties

**Q 62:** Property of a fluid by which its own molecules are attracted is called

**Options:**

**1)** Adhesion

**2)** Cohesion

**3)** Viscosity

**4)** Compressibility

**Answer:** Cohesion

**Q 63:** For very great pressures, viscosity of most gases and liquids

**Options:**

**1)** Remains same

**2)** Increases

**3)** Decreases

**4)** Shows erratic behavior

**Answer:** Increases

**Q 64:** The bulk modulus of elasticity

**Options:**

**1)** Has the dimensions of 1/pressure

**2)** Increases with pressure

**3)** Is large when fluid is more compressible

**4)** Is independent of pressure and viscosity

**Answer:** Increases with pressure

**Q 65:** Which of the following statements is not true ?

**Options:**

**1)** Fluids are capable of flowing

**2)** Fluids conform to the shape of the containing vessels

**3)** When in equilibrium, fluids cannot sustain tangential forces

**4)** When in equilibrium, fluids can sustain shear forces

**Answer:** When in equilibrium, fluids can sustain shear forces

**Q 66:** The conditions of the stable equilibrium of a floating body are

**Options:**

**1)** The meta-centre should lie above the centre of gravity

**2)** The centre of buoyancy and the centre of gravity must lie on the same vertical line

**3)** A righting couple should be formed

**4)** All options are correct

**Answer:** All options are correct

**Q 67:** A piece of metal of specific gravity 13.6 is placed in mercury of specific gravity 13.6, what fraction of it volume is under mercury ?

**Options:**

**1)** The metal piece will simply float over the mercury

**2)** The metal piece will be immersed in mercury by half

**3)** Whole of the metal piece will be immersed with its top surface just at mercury level

**4)** Metal piece will sink to the bottom

**Answer:** Whole of the metal piece will be immersed with its top surface just at mercury level

**Q 68:** If the surface of the liquid is convex, then

**Options:**

**1)** Cohesion pressure is negligible

**2)** Cohesion pressure is decreased

**3)** Cohesion pressure is increased

**4)** None of these

**Answer: **Cohesion pressure is increased

**Q 69:** Liquids transmit pressure equally in all the directions. This is according to

**Options:**

**1)** Boyle’s law

**2)** Archimedes law

**3)** Pascal’s law

**4)** Newton’s formula

**Answer:** Pascal’s law

**Q 70:** Mercury is often used in barometer because:

- It is the best liquid
- The height of barometer will be less
- Its vapor pressure is so low that it may be neglected

**Options:**

**1)** Only A

**2)** Only B

**3)** Both A and B

**4)** Neither A nor B

**Answer:** Both A and B

**Q 71:** The losses due to sudden contraction are expressed by

**A)**(v_{1}^{2}– v_{2}^{2}) / 2g**B)**(v_{2}^{2}– v_{1}^{2}) / 2g**C)**(v_{1}– v_{2})^{2}/ g**D)**(v_{1}– v_{2})^{2}/ 2g

**Options:**

**1)** Only A

**2)** Only B

**3)** Only C

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** None of these

**Q 72:** Cipolletti notch is designed as trapezoid with Its sides sloping at 1 horizontal and

**Options:**

**1)** 1 vertical

**2)** 2 vertical

**3)** 3 vertical

**4)** 4 vertical

**Answer:** 4 vertical

**Q 73: **The flow in venture flame takes place at

**Options:**

**1)** Atmospheric pressure

**2)** At pressure greater than atmospheric pressure

**3)** Vacuum

**4)** High pressure

**Answer:** Atmospheric pressure

**Q 74:** A hydraulic ram acts like

**Options:**

**1)** A centrifugal pump

**2)** A rotary pump

**3)** A reciprocating pump

**4)** An impulse pump

**Answer:** An impulse pump

**Q 75:** The rise of liquid along the walls of a revolving cylinder as compared to depression at the centre with respect to initial level s

**Options:**

**1)** Same

**2)** More

**3)** Less

**4)** More or less depending on speed

**Answer:** Same

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**Q 76:** The most economical section of a rectangular channel for maximum discharge is obtained when its depth is equal to

**Options:**

**1)** Half the breadth

**2)** Twice the breadth

**3)** Same as the breadth

**4)** Three-fourth of the breadth

**Answer: **Half the breadth

**Q 77:** In case of a two dimensional flow the components of velocity are given by u=ax; v= by, the point where no motion occurs, is known as

**Options:**

**1)** Critical point

**2)** Neutral point

**3)** Stagnation point

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** None of these

**Q 78:** The head loss in case of hot water flow through a pipe compared to cold water flow will be

**Options:**

**1)** Same

**2)** More

**3)** Less

**4)** More or less depending on range of temperatures

**Answer:** Less

**Q 79:** Maximum efficiency of transmission of power through a pipe is

**Options:**

**1)** 0.25

**2)** 0.3333

**3)** 0.5

**4)** 0.6667

**Answer:** 0.6667

**Q 80:** In the case of turbulent flow

**Options:**

**1)** It occurs in open channel

**2)** Losses are proportional to square of velocity

**3)** Velocity at boundary is zero

**4)** Shear stresses are more compared to laminar flow

**Answer:** Shear stresses are more compared to laminar flow

**Q 81:** Hydraulic grade line for any flow system as compared to energy line is

**Options:**

**1)** Above

**2)** Below

**3)** At same level

**4)** May be below or above depending upon velocity of flow

**Answer:** Below

**Q 82:** For maximum discharge through a circular open channel, the ratio of depth of flow to diameter of channel should be

**Options:**

**1)** 0.7

**2)** 0.5

**3)** 0.65

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** None of these

**Q 83: **A triangular section in open channel flow will be most economical when the vertex angle at the triangle base point is

**Options:**

**1)** 30 degree

**2)** 50 degree

**3)** 20 degree

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** None of these

**Q 84:** The value of coefficient of velocity depends upon

**Options:**

**1)** Slope of orifice

**2)** Size of orifice

**3)** Head of liquid above orifice

**4)** Friction at the orifice surface

**Answer:** Friction at the orifice surface

**Q 85:** The discharge through an orifice fitted in a tank can be increased by

**Options:**

**1)** Fitting a short length of pipe to the outside

**2)** Sharpening the edges of orifice

**3)** Fitting a long length of pipe to the outside

**4)** Fitting a long length of pipe to the inside

**Answer:** Fitting a short length of pipe to the outside

**Q 86:** Total pressure on the top of a closed cylindrical vessel completely filled with liquid is directly proportional to

**Options:**

**1)** Radius

**2)** Square of radius

**3)** cube of radius

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** None of these

**Q 87:** If flow in an open channel is gradually varied, then the flow will be

**Options:**

**1)** Steady uniform flow

**2)** Unsteady uniform flow

**3)** Steady non-uniform flow

**4)** Unsteady non-uniform flow

**Answer:** Steady non-uniform flow

**Q 88:** The energy loss in flow through nozzle as compared to venturimeter is

**Options:**

**1)** Same

**2)** More

**3)** Less

**4)** Unpredictable

**Answer:** More

**Q 89:** Orifice is an opening

**Options:**

**1)** With closed perimeter and of regular form through which water flows

**2)** With prolonged sides having length of 2 to 3 diameters of opening in thick wall

**3)** With partially full flow

**4)** In hydraulic structure with regulation provision

**Answer:** With closed perimeter and of regular form through which water flows

**Q 90:** The value of coefficient of discharge in comparison to coefficient of velocity is

**Options:**

**1)** More

**2)** Less

**3)** Same

**4)** Unpredictable

**Answer:** Less

**Q 91:** Heating of dry steam above saturation temperature is known as

**Options:**

**1)** Enthalpy

**2)** Superheating

**3)** Super saturation

**4)** Latent heat

**Answer:** Superheating

**Q 92:** The specific heat of superheated steam in kcal/kg is generally of the order of

**Options:**

**1)** 0.1

**2)** 0.3

**3)** 0.5

**4)** 0.8

**Answer:** 0.5

**Q 93:** Adiabatic process is

**Options:**

**1)** Essentially as isentropic process

**2)** Non-heat transfer process

**3)** Reversible process

**4)** Constant temperature process

**Answer:** Non-heat transfer process

**Q 94:** The diameter (in cm) of Cornish boiler is of the order of

**Options:**

**1)** 1 to 2

**2)** 1.5 to 2.5

**3)** 2 to 3

**4)** 2.5 to 3.5

**Answer:** 1 to 2

**Q 95:** Which of the following boilers is best suited to meet fluctuating demands ?

**Options:**

**1)** Babcock an and Wilcox

**2)** Locomotive

**3)** Lancashire

**4)** Cochran

**Answer:** Locomotive

**Q 96:** An engine indicator is used to determine the following

**Options:**

**1)** Speed

**2)** Temperature

**3)** Volume of cylinder

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** None of these

**Q 97:** Diesel fuel, compared to petrol is

**Options:**

**1)** Less difficult to ignite

**2)** Just about the same difficult to ignite

**3)** More difficult to ignite

**4)** Highly ignitable

**Answer:** More difficult to ignite

**Q 98:** The fuel air ratio in a petrol engine fitted with suction carburetor, operating with dirty air filter as compared to clean filter will be

**Options:**

**1)** Higher

**2)** Lower

**3)** Remain unaffected

**4)** Unpredictable

**Answer:** Unpredictable

**Q 99:** Which of the following is the lightest and most volatile liquid fuel ?

**Options:**

**1)** 6:1

**2)** 9:1

**3)** 12:1

**4)** 15:1

**Answer:** 15:1

**Q 100:** Ignition quality of petrol is expressed by

**Options:**

**1)** Octane number

**2)** Cetane number

**3)** Calorific value

**4)** Self-ignition temperature

**Answer:** Octane number

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**SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper – 2018 “held on 23 January 2018” Morning Shift (Mechanical Engineering) **

**Q 1:** How many types of ecological pyramids are present In ecosystem ?

**Options:**

**1)** Spring

**2)** Screw

**3)** Wedge

**4)** Pulley

**Answer:** Spring

**Q 2:** What are the numbers of binary and ternary links the following kinematic chain ?

**Options:**

**1)** 3 binary and 4 ternary joints

**2)** 3 binary and 3 ternary joints

**3)** 3 binary and 2 ternary joints

**4)** 4 binary and 2 ternary joints

**Answer:** 4 binary and 2 ternary joints

**Q 3:** How many degrees of freedom does the below mechanism have ?

**Options:**

**1)** 0

**2)** 1

**3)** 2

**4)** 3

**Answer:** 2

**Q 4:** Which of the following is TRUE for four bar mechanism ?

**Options:**

**1)** All sliding pairs

**2)** One is sliding pair and other is turning pair.

**3)** All turning pairs

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** All turning pairs.

**Q 5:** Which of the following is the **CORRECT** method for the conversation of spring controlled governor from unstable to stable ?

**Options:**

**1)** Increasing the ball weight

**2)** Decreasing the spring stiffness.

**3)** Decreasing the ball weight

**4)** Increasing the spring stiffness.

**Answer:** Increasing the spring stiffness.

**Q 6:** The power transmission takes place in shaft rotating at 400 rpm and this rotating shaft drives another shaft at 600 rpm. The smaller pulley has the diameter of 0.5 m. The centre distance between pulleys is 4m. If the angle of contact on the smaller pulley for the open belt drive is 1.8^{o} then calculate the diameter or larger pulley (in mm) and angle of contact (in rad) ?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.50 and 2.00

**2)** 0.75 and 2.00

**3)** 0.50 and 3.08

**4)** 0.75 and 3.08

**Answer:** 0.75 and 3.08

**Q 7: **Which of the following statement is CORRECT about the bull engine ?

**Options:**

**1)** Obtained by fixing the cylinder or sliding pair.

**2)** Obtained by fixing the crank.

**3)** Obtained by fixing the piston rod.

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Obtained by fixing the cylinder or sliding pair.

**Q 8:** Which of the following condition is **CORRECT** about the Inversion of a mechanism ?

**Options:**

**1)** Conversion of higher pair to lower pair

**2)** Turning it upside down.

**3)** Obtained by fixing different links in a kinematic chain.

**4)** Obtained by reversing the input and output motion of the mechanism.

**Answer:** Obtained by fixing different links in a kinematic chain.

**Q 9:** Which of the following statement is **INCORRECT** about the dry clutch and wet clutch ?

**Options:**

**1)** Heat dissipation is more difficult in dry clutch.

**2)** Rate of wear is very less in wet clutches as compared to dry clutches.

**3)** Torque transmitting capacity of dry clutch is less than wet clutch.

**4)** Engagement in wet clutch is smoother than dry clutch.

**Answer:** Torque transmitting capacity of dry clutch is less than wet clutch.

**Q 10:** Which of the following theory is/are used for the determination of torque quantities in cone clutch ?

**Options:**

**1)** Uniform pressure theory

**2)** Uniform strain theory

**3)** Uniform stress theory

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Uniform pressure theory **OR** Uniform strain theory

**Q 11:** Which of the following toothed wheels does not come under the classification according to the type of gearing ?

**Options:**

**1)** External gearing

**2)** Internal gearing

**3)** Rack and Pinion

**4)** Parallel gearing

**Answer:** Parallel gearing

**Q 12:** The profile of the gears is involute with 200. If the length of the path of approach and length of path of recess are 28 mm and 25 mm respectively. What is the length of arc of contact ? (cos20^{o} = 0.94)

**Options:**

**1)** 54

**2)** 54.4

**3)** 56

**4)** 56.4

**Answer:** 56.4

**Q 13:** The governor in which the displacement of the sleeve is high for the small change of speed is known as______.

**Options:**

**1)** Hunting

**2)** Sensitive

**3)** Stable

**4)** Isochronous

**Answer:** Sensitive

**Q 14:** The point of contact which is common between the two pitch circles is known as______.

**Options:**

**1)** Base point

**2)** Addendum

**3)** Dedendum

**4)** Pitch point

**Answer:** Pitch point

**Q 15:** The tensile strength for the plate per pitch length of the outer row of the rivet is______.

**Options:**

**1)** P_{t} = (p – d)tσ_{t} / 2

**2)** P_{t} = 2(p – d)tσ_{t}

**3)** P_{t} = (p – d)tσ_{t}

**4)** P_{t} = (p – d)t^{2}σ_{t}

**Answer:** P_{t} = (p – d)tσ_{t}

**Q 16:** Choose the option which is INCORRECT about the term friction.

**Options:**

**1)** Friction produces heat

**2)** It leads to the decrease in the velocity of object

**3)** It leads to the increase in the velocity of object

**4)** It can stop the moving object

**Answer:** It leads to the increase in the velocity of object

**Q 17:** Which of the given formula is CORRECT for calculating the angle of static friction ϕ** _{S} **?

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**Q 51:** With which of the following age hardening is related ?

**Options:**

**1)** Cast iron

**2)** Gun metal

**3)** Duralumin

**4)** German Silver

**Answer: **Duralumin

**Q 52:** Monel metal is an alloy of

**Options:**

**1)** Cu and Cr

**2)** Ni and Cu

**3)** Ni and Cr

**4)** Cu, Ni and Cr

**Answer:** Ni and Cu

**Q 53:** ______ Iron is the magnetic allotrope of iron.

**Options:**

**1)** α

**2)** β

**3)** γ

**4)** δ

**Correct Answer:** α

**Q 54:** The bonding of a rubber sheet with a metal is done by

**Options:**

**1)** Welding

**2)** High frequency dielectric heating

**3)** Induction welding

**4)** Adhesive bonding

**Answer:** Adhesive bonding

**Q 55:** Plain and butt welds may be used on materials upto approximately

**Options:**

**1)** 25 mm thick

**2)** 40 mm thick

**3)** 50 mm thick

**4)** 75 mm thick

**Answer:** 25mm thick

**Q 56:** An optical gauge works on the principle of

**Options:**

**1)** Reflection of light rays

**2)** Polarisation of light rays

**3)** Interference of light rays

**4)** Refraction of light rays

**Answer:** Interference of light rays

**Q 57:** Generally, the strongest from in which metals can be used as

**Options:**

**1)** Hot rolling

**2)** Cold rolling

**3)** Extrusion

**4)** Forging

**Answer:** Forging

**Q 58:** Thermite is a mixture of

**Options:**

**1)** Five aluminium and iron oxide in the ratio of 3:1

**2)** Five iron and aluminium oxide in the ratio of 3:1

**3)** Five aluminium and iron oxide in the ratio of 3:1, with traces of sulphur, phosphorus and manganese

**4)** Molten iron and aluminium, with the ratio depending upon the type of the surface to be welded

**Answer:** Five aluminium and iron oxide in the ratio of 3:1

**Q 59:** The process of enlarging a hole is known as

**Options:**

**1)** Counter boarding

**2)** Counter sinking

**3)** Boring

**4)** Drilling

**Answer:** Boring

**Q 60:** Which of the following statements is true ?

**Options:**

**1)** Crater wear is predominant In ceramic tools

**2)** Crater wear is predominant in carbon tool steel

**3)** Crater wear is predominant In tungsten carbide tools

**4)** Crater wear is predominant in high speed steel tools

**Answer:** Crater wear is predominant In tungsten carbide tools

**Q 61:** The bomb calorimeter is an apparatus to measure the

**Options:**

**1)** Calorific value of a gaseous fuel

**2)** Calorific value of solid and gaseous fuels

**3)** Calorimetric composition of any soli bomb material

**4)** Calorific value of a solid or liquid fuel

**Answer:** Calorific value of a solid or liquid fuel

**Q 62:** In metric system the unit of heat is given as

**Options:**

**1)** CHU

**2)** BTU

**3)** kcal

**4)** Kelvin

**Answer:** kcal

**Q 63:** Centrifugal pump is an example of

**Options:**

**1)** Isolated system

**2)** Closed system

**3)** Steady flow system

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Steady flow system

**Q 64:** A refrigeration system works on

**Options:**

**1)** Second law of thermodynamics

**2)** First law of thermodynamics

**3)** Zeroth law of thermodynamics

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Second law of thermodynamics

**Q 65:** Liquids have

**Options:**

**1)** No specific heat

**2)** Different values of specific heat at same temperature

**3)** Only one value of specific heat

**4)** Two distinct values of specific heat

**Answer:** Only one value of specific heat

**Q 66:** The volume of the universal gas constant (R_{u}) is equal to

**Options:**

**1)** 848 m kgf.kg.mol / K

**2)** 8.48 m kgf/kg-mol / K

**3)** 84.8 m kgf/kg-mol / K

**4)** 0.848 m kgf/kg-mol / K

**Answer:** 848 m kgf.kg.mol / K

**Q 67:** The solid fuel having the highest calorific value is

**Options:**

**1)** Wood

**2)** Lignite

**3)** Coke

**4)** Anthracite

**Answer:** Anthracite

**Q 68:** The heat transfer Q, the work done W and the change in Internal energy U are all zero in the case of

**Options:**

**1)** A rigid vessel containing steam at 150^{o}C left in the atmosphere which is at 25^{o}C

**2)** 1 kg of gas contained in an insulated cylinder expanding as the piston moves slowly outwards.

**3)** A rigid vessel containing ammonia gas connected through a value to an evacuated rigid vessel, the vessel, the value and the connecting pipes being well insulated and the valve being opened and after a time, condition through the two vessels becoming uniform

**4)** 1 kg of air flowing adiabatically from the atmosphere Into a previously evacuated bottle

**Answer:** A rigid vessel containing ammonia gas connected through a value to an evacuated rigid vessel, the vessel, the value and the connecting pipes being well insulated and the valve being opened and after a time, condition through the two vessels becoming uniform

**Q 69:** A reversible engine operates between temperatures T_{1} and T_{2}. The energy rejected by this engine is received by a second reversible engine at temperature T_{2} and rejected to a reservoir at temperature T_{3}. If the efficiencies of the engines are same then , the relationship between T_{1}, T_{2}, and T_{3} is given by

**Options:**

**1)** T_{2} = (T_{1} + T_{3}) / 2

span style=”color: #000000; font-size: 10pt;”>**2)** T_{2} = sqrt {(T_{1})^{2} + (T_{3})2}

**3)** T_{2} = sqrt (T_{1} * T_{3})

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** T_{2} = sqrt (T_{1}*T_{3})

**Q 70:** Efficiency of a Carnot engine is 75%. If the cycle direction is reversed, COP of the reversed Carnot cycle is

**Options:**

**1)** 1.33

**2)** 0.75

**3)** 0.33

**4)** 1.75

**Answer:** 0.33

**Q 71:** The channel section considered to have the highest efficiency is

**Options:**

**1)** Quadrant

**2)** Square

**3)** Trapezoid

**4)** Triangular

**Answer:** Trapezoid

**Q 72:** Any liquid flow, obeys the following

**Options:**

**1)** Capillary action

**2)** Bernoulli’s equation

**3)** Continuity equation

**4)** Newton’s law of viscosity

**Answer:** Continuity equation

**Q 73:** According to principle of floatation, the weight of liquid displaced as compared to the weight of the body is

**Options:**

**1)** More

**2)** Less

**3)** Same

**4)** Depending upon the shape of the body

**Answer:** Same

**Q 74:** The wetted perimeter for a pipe running full of water is equal to: Where d is the diameter of the pipe.

**Options:**

**1)** πd / 2

**2)** 2πd

**3)** πd

**4)** δ

**Answer:** πd

** **

**Q 75:** Metacentric height is the distance between

**Options:**

**1)** CG of body and centre of pressure

**2)** CG of body and the metacentre

**3)** CG of body and centre of buoyancy

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** CG of body and the metacentre

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**Q 76:** Surface tension is caused by the force of _______at the free surface.

**Options:**

**1)** Cohesion

**2)** Adhesion

**3)** Both cohesion and adhesion

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Cohesion

**Q 77:** The intensity of pressure in a liquid due its depth will, vary with depth.

**Options:**

**1)** Directly

**2)** Indirectly

**3)** Both directly and directly

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Directly

**Q 78:** The metacentric height of sailing ships is

**Options:**

**1)** 0.45 m to 1.25 m

**2)** 1.5m to 3.5m

**3)** 0.25 m to 0.35m

**4)** 5m to 7.5m

**Answer:** 0.45 m to 1.25 m

**Q 79:** The discharge through a pipe can be measured with

**Options:**

**1)** A venturimeter

**2)** An orificemeter

**3)** A flow nozzle

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 80:** According to Nikuradse’s the boundary behaves hydrodynamically smooth when

**Options:**

**1)** (k/δ) > 10

**2)** (k/δ) > 0.25

**3)** (k/δ) < 0.25

**4)** (k/δ) < 8

**Answer:** (k/δ) < 0.25

**Q 81:** The coefficient of friction in term or Reynold’s number is

**Options:**

**1)** 16/Re

**2)** 32/Re

**3)** 8/Re

**4)** 10/Re

**Answer:** 16/Re

**Q 82:** The maximum velocity of an airplane in steady level flight will occur at an angle of attack of

**Options:**

**1)** 20.5^{o}

**2)** 18.5^{o}

**3)** 22.5^{o}

**4)** 26.5^{o}

**Answer:** 20.5^{o}

**Q 83:** The wave produced due to surface tension in a shallow channel is known as

**Options:**

**1)** Gravity wave

**2)** Capillary wave

**3)** Elastic wave

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Capillary wave

**Q 84:** Which one of the following is an axial flow turbine ?

**Options:**

**1)** Pelton wheel

**2)** Francis turbine

**3)** Kaplan turbine

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Kaplan turbine

**Q 85:** The unit power of a turbine is equal to

**Options:**

**1)** P / H^{5/2}

**2)** P / H^{1/2}

**3)** P / H^{3/2}

**4)** P / H^{2/5+1/2}

**Answer:** P / H^{3/2}

**Q 86:** Pseudo plastic is a fluid for which

**Options:**

**1)** Dynamic viscosity decreases as the rate of shear increases

**2)** Newton’s law of viscosity holds good

**3)** Dynamic viscosity increases as the rate of shear increases

**4)** Dynamic viscosity increases with the time for which shearing forces are applied

**Answer:** Dynamic viscosity increases as the rate of shear increases

**Q 87:** Match List I with List II and Select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.

List – 1 |
List – 2 |
||

A | Lubrication | 1 | Capillary |

B | Rise of sap in trees | 2 | Vapour Pressure |

C | Formation of droplets | 3 | Viscosity |

D | Cavitation | 4 | Surface tension |

**Options:**

**1)** A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

**2)** A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

**3)** A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

**4)** A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

**Answer:** A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

**Q 88:** Centrifugal pumps have which of the following advantages ?

**1)** Low initial cost

**2)** Compact, occupying less floor space

**3)** Easy handling of highly viscous fluids

**Options:**

**1)** 1, 2 and 3

**2)** 1 and 2

**3)** 1 and 3

**4)** 2 and 3

**Answer:** 2 and 3

**Q 89:** What is the unit of dynamic viscosity of a fluid termed ‘poise’ equivalent to ?

**Options:**

**1)** Dyne / cm^{2}

**2)** gs / cm

**3)** dyne-s / cm^{2}

**4)** g-cm / sec

**Answer:** dyne-s / cm^{2}

**Q 90:** Which one of the following conditions will linearize the Navier – Stokes equations to make It amenable for analytical solutions ?

**Options:**

**1)** Low Reynolds number (Re << 1)

**2)** High Reynolds number (Re >> 1)

**3)** Low Mach Number (M << 1)

**4)** High Mach Number (M >> 1)

**Answer:** Low Mach Number (M << 1)

**Q 91:** Which of the following advantages is/are possessed by a Kaplan turbine over a Francis turbine ?

**1)** Low frictional losses

**2)** Part load efficiency is considerably high

**3)** More compact and smaller in size

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

**Options:**

**1)** Only 1

**2)** 1 and 2

**3)** 2 and 3

**4)** 1, 2 and 3

**Answer:** 1, 2 and 3

**Q 92:** The stream function Ψ=x^{3}-y^{3} is observed for a two dimensional flow field. What is the magnitude of the velocity at point (1, -1) ?

**Options:**

**1)** 4.24

**2)** 2.83

**3)** 0

**4)** -2.83

**Answer:** 4.24

**Q 93:** Non uniform flow occurs when

**Options:**

**1)** The direct and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical

**2)** The velocity of successive fluid particles, at any point, is the same at successive periods of time

**3)** The magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid

**4)** Velocity, depth, pressure etc, change from point to point in the fluid flow.

**Answer:** Velocity, depth, pressure etc, change from point to point in the fluid flow.

**Q 94:** The length of divergent portion of venturimeter in comparison to convergent portion is

**Options:**

**1)** Same

**2)** More

**3)** Less

**4)** More or less depending on capacity

**Answer:** More

**Q 95:** In order that flow takes place between two points in a pipeline, the differential pressure between these points must be more than

**Options:**

**1)** Frictional force

**2)** Viscosity

**3)** Surface friction

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 96:** Head developed by a centrifugal pump depends on________.

**Options:**

**1)** Impelier diameter

**2)** Speed

**3)** Fluid density

**4)** Both impeller diameter and speed

**Answer:** Both impeller diameter and speed

**Q 97:** Low specific speed of turbine implies it is

**Options:**

**1)** Propeller turbine

**2)** Francis turbine

**3)** Impulse turbine

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Impulse turbine

**Q 98:** The figure given below shows the relationship between power (P) and discharge (Q) for different vane exit angles of centrifugal pump. In the figure given below, curve B holds good for.

**Options:**

**1)** Vane exit angle of 90^{o}

**2)** Vane exit angle of less than 90^{o}

**3)** Vane exit angle of more than 90^{o}

**4)** Any vane exit angle

**Answer:** Vane exit angle of 90^{o}

**Q 99:** The specific speed of a turbine is the speed of such a turbine, Identical with a given turbine, which

**Options:**

**1)** Develops unit power under unit head

**2)** Develops unit power under unit discharge

**3)** Develops unit speed under unit head

**4)** Delivers unit discharge under unit head

**Answer:** Develops unit power under unit head

**Q 100:** In reaction turbine

**Options:**

**1)** Kinetic energy is appreciable as the fluid leaves the runner and enters draft tube

**2)** The vanes are partly filled

**3)** Total energy of fluid is converted to kinetic energy in the runner

**4)** It is not exposed to atmosphere

**Answer:** It is not exposed to atmosphere.

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