The post SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper 2018 Shift- 4 (Civil Engineering) appeared first on NewtonDesk.

]]>**Q 1:** Which of the following quality of timber can be improved using Abel’s process ?

**Options:**

**1)** Durability

**2)** Fire resistance

**3)** Chemical resistance

**4)** Strength

**Answer:** Fire resistance

**Q 2:** Which of the following shows the CORRECT decreasing order of rate of hydration of Portland cement compounds ?

**Options:**

**1)** C_{3}A > C_{4}AF > C_{3}S > C_{2}S

**2)** C_{3}A > C_{4}AF > C_{2}S > C_{3}S

**3)** C_{3}A > C_{3}S > C_{2}S > C_{4}AF

**4)** C_{4}AF > C_{3}S > C_{3}A > C_{2}S

**Answer:** C_{3}A > C_{4}AF > C_{3}S > C_{2}S

**Q 3:** The proportions of ingredients in concrete mix are given by 1:2:4, What will be the actual quantity of the sand per unit volume of cement, if it undergoes 20% of bulking ?

**Options:**

**1)** 1.5

**2)** 2.4

**3)** 4.6

**4)** 6.5

**Answer:** 2.4

**Q 4:** What is the range of slump (mm) of the concrete which is used as the mass concrete ?

**Options:**

**1)** 10 to 15

**2)** 20 to 50

**3)** 50 to 75

**4)** 75 to 110

**Answer:** 20 to 50

**Q 5:** In the symbol used to represent the concrete mix, MX. M stands for mix and numeric **X **represents the______.

**Options:**

**1)** 7 days compressive strength

**2)** 14 days compressive strength

**3)** 28 days compressive strength

**4)** 28 days tensile strength

**Answer:** 28 days compressive strength

**Q 6:** According to the IS code, at what moisture content, weight of the timber is noted ?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.05

**2)** 0.12

**3)** 0.23

**4)** 0.3

**Answer:** 0.12

**Q 7:** What is the recommended moisture content of timber, which is used as a structural element for windows ?

**Options:**

**1)** 5-10%

**2)** 10-16%

**3)** 16-26%

**4)** 26-36%

**Answer:** 10-16%

**Q 8:** Which of the following represents the smallest size (mm) of fine aggregate (sand)?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.01

**2)** 0.06

**3)** 1.5

**4)** 2

**Answer:** 0.06

**Q 9: **What is the percentage content of silica in a good quality brick earth ?

**Options:**

**1)** 20-30%

**2)** 30-40%

**3)** 40-50%

**4)** 50-60%

**Answer:** 50-60%

**Q 10:** When timber is burnt in the wood fire over a depth of about 15 mm, the process of treatment is known as______.

**Options:**

**1)** Charring

**2)** Rueping process

**3)** Bethel process

**4)** Boucherie process

**Answer:** Charring

**Q 11:** The plasticity index and plastic limit of a soil is given by 25% and 20% respectively. What will be the liquid limit of the soil ?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.15

**2)** 0.25

**3)** 0.35

**4)** 0.45

**Answer:** 0.45

**Q 12:** In the flow over length of 50 m, the head loss of 6 m occurred due to seepage. The hydraulic gradient is given by ______.

**Options:**

**1)** 0.01

**2)** 0.12

**3)** 0.29

**4)** 0.32

**Answer:** 0.12

**Q 13:** Which of the following expression represents the **CORRECT** value of coefficient of curvature ?

**Options:**

**1)** C_{c} = (D_{30})^{2} / (D_{60} x D_{10})

**2)** C_{c} = (D_{60})^{2} / (D_{30} x D_{10})

**3)** C_{c} = (D_{10})^{2} / (D_{60} x D_{30})

**4)** C_{c} = D_{30} / (D_{60} x D_{10})

**Answer:** C_{c} = (D_{30})^{2} / (D_{60} x D_{10})

** Q 14:** Which of the following apparatus is used to measure the liquid limit soil ?

**Options:**

**1)** Casagrande apparatus

**2)** Pycnometer

**3)** Ring and ball apparatus

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Casagrande apparatus

**Q 15:** The compressibility of the fluid is given as 5×10^{-11} Pa^{-1} What is the Bulk modulus (Gpa) of fluid ?

**Options:**

**1)** 10

**2)** 15

**3)** 20

**4)** 25

**Answer:** 20

**Q 16:** Which of the following is measured with the help of an orifice meter ?

**Options:**

**1)** Discharge

**2)** Discharge coefficient

**3)** Head of water

**4)** Pressure coefficient

**Answer:** Discharge

**Q 17:** Which of the following represents the **CORRECT** range of coefficient of discharge of venturimeter ?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.32 to 0.43

**2)** 0.45 to 0.52

**3)** 0.54 to 0.75

**4)** 0.96 to 0.98

**Answer:** 0.96 to 0.98

**Q 18:** A cube of dimension 2 m is floating in the water with immerging depth of 1 m. What is the weight (KN) of the cube ? (Consider unit weight of water as 10 kN/m^{3})

**Options:**

**1)** 10

**2)** 20

**3)** 30

**4)** 40

**Answer:** 40

**Q 19:** The Reynold number for the flow through smooth pipe is given by 10^{5}. The value of friction factor for smooth pipe is________.

**Options:**

**1)** 0.001

**2)** 0.018

**3)** 0.089

**4)** 0.125

**Answer:** 0.018

**Q 20:** At a particular point in the channel, the specific energy and velocity of flow is given by 1.5 m-kg/kg and 2.5 m/s respectively . What is the depth of flow in channel at that point ?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.5

**2)** 1.18

**3)** 2.32

**4)** 2.5

**Answer:** 1.18

**Q 21:** A circular pipe of diameter 60 cm carries a discharge of 2.5 m^{3}/s. What is the velocity of flow (m/s) through the pipe ?

**Options:**

**1)** 2.5

**2)** 5.67

**3)** 8.83

**4)** 12.32

**Answer:** 8.83

**Q 22:** Which of the following represents the **CORRECT** relationship between the Chezy’s coefficient, C and coefficient of roughness of channel, f ?

**Options:**

**1)** C ∝ 1/√f

**2)** C ∝ √f

**3)** C ∝ 1 / f^{3/2}

**4)** C ∝ 1/f

**Answer:** C ∝ 1/√f

**Q 23:** Which of the following is calculated with the help of Moody equation ?

**Options:**

**1)** Discharge

**2)** Friction factor

**3)** Pressure

**4)** Velocity of flow

**Answer:** Friction factor

**Q 24:** Which of the following is responsible for the separation of boundary layer ?

**Options:**

**1)** Positive pressure gradient

**2)** High viscosity of fluid

**3)** Low viscosity of fluid

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Positive pressure gradient

**Q 25:** The settling tank of surface over flow rate of 4.5×10^{-4} m^{3}/m^{2}/s is used for design discharge of 2 m^{3}/s. What is the surface area (m^{2}) of the settling tank ?

**Options:**

**1)** 1000

**2)** 2000

**3)** 3000

**4)** 4000

**Answer:** 4000

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers**

**Q 26:** The rain is called as acid rain, when its pH is less than______.

**Options:**

**1)** 3

**2)** 4.5

**3)** 7

**4)** 8.5

**Answer:** 4.5

**Q 27: **Using prismoidal method, what is the volume (cubic metre) of reathwork required for 10 m deep pit, if the top and bottom dimensions are 4 m x 8 m and 8 m x 16 m respectively ?

**Options:**

**1)** 678.34

**2)** 746.67

**3)** 800

**4)** 1493.33

**Answer:** 746.67

**Q 28:** For supply, lime is measured in_____.

**Options:**

**1)** Bags of 50 kg

**2)** Cubic metre

**3)** Kilograms

**4)** Quintals

**Answer:** Quintals

**Q 29:** What is the estimate (Rs.) for a building with a plinth area of 2000 sq. m with rate of 3800 per sq. m ? (Consider the acids of 15% of electric installation and 7% of miscellaneous)

**Options:**

**1)** 150000

**2)** 450080

**3)** 2423000

**4)** 9272000

**Answer:** 9272000

**Q 30:** What is the quality (sq. m) of plastering required for the 6 m length of wall which is 4 m high and 50 cm thick ?

**Options:**

**1)** 12

**2)** 24

**3)** 48

**4)** 56

**Answer:** 48

**Q 31:** The length, width and height of a wall are given as 800 cm, and 50 cm respectively. What will be the total cost (Rs.) of brickwork, if the rate of brickwork is Rs. 320 per cubic metre ?

**Options:**

**1)** 4000

**2)** 6400

**3)** 10500

**4)** 12860

**Answer:** 6400

**Q 32:** The plinth area rate and plinth area of a building is Rs 5500 per sq.m and 150 sq.m respectively. What is the total cost (Rs) of building considering cost of electrification as 7%, cost of sanitary fittings as 165 cost of roads and awns as 6.5% and cost of contingencies as 4.5%.

**Options:**

**1)** 50000

**2)** 825000

**3)** 982860

**4)** 1105500

**Answer:** 1105500

**Q 33:** Which of the following item is **NOT** a lump sum item ?

**Options:**

**1)** Architectural features

**2)** Contingencies and unforesees items

**3)** Electric installation

**4)** Plastering of wall

**Answer:** Plastering of wall

**Q 34:** What is the total cost (Rs.) according to approximate estimate of hostel building with capacity of 75 beds ? The altogether cost per bed is given as Rs. 20,000.

**Options:**

**1)** 500,000

**2)** 850,000

**3)** 1,500,000

**4)** 5,500,000

**Answer:** 1,500,000

**Q 35:** What is the volume of earthwork (cubic metre) in embankment of 10 m long and 7m wide with the side slope of 2.1 ?

**Options:**

**1)** 70

**2)** 150

**3)** 280

**4)** 390

**Answer:** 390

**Q 36:** Which of the following method is used to prepare the approximate estimate ?

**Options:**

**1)** Cubical contents method

**2)** Plinth area method

**3)** Unit base method

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 37:** In which of the following condition two contour lines intersect each other ?

**Options:**

**1)** Hills

**2)** Overhanging cliff

**3)** Steep slope

**4)** Uniform slope

**Answer:** Overhanging cliff

**Q 38:** In which of the following scale of the map is not affected due to shrinking of map ?

**Options:**

**1)** Engineer’s scale

**2)** Graphical scale

**3)** Representative fraction

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Graphical scale

**Q 39:** A surveyor measures a distance between two points on a map of representative fraction of 1:100 is 60 m. But later he found that he used wrong representative fraction of 1:50. What is the correct distance between the two points ?

**Options:**

**1)** 30

**2)** 45

**3)** 90

**4)** 120

**Answer:** 120

**Q 40:** Which one of the following is the CORRECT statement for a station that is affected by local attraction ?

**Options:**

**1)** Difference between the fore bearing and back bearing is always equal to 90 Degrees.

**2)** Difference between the fore bearing and back bearing is always equal to 180 Degrees.

**3)** Difference between the fore bearing and back bearing is not equal to 180 Degrees.

**4)** Difference between the fore bearing and back bearing is always equal to 360 Degrees.

**Answer:** Difference between the fore bearing and back bearing is not equal to 180 Degrees.

**Q 41:** Which of the following error is most likely to occur in the plane table surveying ?

**Options:**

**1)** Error in sighting

**2)** Error in orientation

**3)** Error in leveling

**4)** Error in measurement

**Answer:** Error in orientation

**Q 42:** Which of the following is the expression for the additive constant, if f is the focal length of objective and **i **is the stadia interval ?

**Options:**

**1)** f – i

**2)** f / i

**3)** f + d

**4)** f x i

**Answer:** f + d

**Q 43:** The staff reading taken on a staff held at a distance of 50 m from the instrument with the bubble central is 1.465 m. When the bubble is moved 4 divisions out of the centre, the staff reading is 1.472 m. What will be the radius of curvature (m) of the bubble tube, if the length of one division is 2 mm ?

**Options:**

**1)** 30

**2)** 43.7

**3)** 57.14

**4)** 66.34

**Answer:** 57.14

**Q 44:** Which of the following is the **CORRECT** ratio of refraction correction to curvature correction ?

**Options:**

**1)** 1/4

**2) **1/6

**3)** 1/7

**4)** 1/9

**Answer:** 1/7

**Q 45:** Which of the following Instrument is used for centering the theodolite in windy conditions ?

**Options:**

**1)** Cross staff

**2)** Optical plummet

**3)** Optical square

**4)** Spirit level

**Answer:** ** **Optical plummet

**Q 46:** Which of the following test is used to make the line of sight perpendicular to the horizontal axis ?

**Options:**

**1)** Azimuth test

**2)** Cross hair ring test

**3)** Spire test

**4)** Vertical arc test

**Answer:** Azimuth test

**Q 47:** Which of the following statement is **TRUE** for the linear reservoir ?

**Options:**

**1)** Storage is proportional to inflow discharge.

**2)** Storage is proportional to outflow discharge.

**3)** Storage is proportional to square of inflow discharge.

**4)** Storage is proportional to square of outflow discharge.

**Answer:** Storage is proportional to outflow discharge.

**Q 48:** A 45 cm diameter well penetrates aquifer of 30 m thick. Under the steady pumping rate for a long time, the drawdown’s at two observation wells 10 m and 20 m from the pumping well are 5 m and 3.5 m respectively. What will be the discharge (cubic metre), if the permeability of the aquifer is given as 20 m/day ?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.05

**2)** 0.067

**3)** 0.08

**4)** 1.12

**Answer:** 0.08

**Q 49:** What will be the cant deficiency (cm), if maximum safe speed on a 5 Degree curve of a broad gauge track is 110 km/h and average speed of train is 85 km/h ?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.011

**2)** 0.78

**3)** 0.89

**4)** 18.7

**Answer: **10

**Q 50:** What will be the shift of transition curve, if the length of transition curve is 80 m and radius of the curve is 300 m ?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.011

**2)** 0.78

**3)** 0.89

**4)** 21.33

**Answer:** 0.89

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers**

**Q 51:** Design of a riveted joint, is based on the assumption.

**Options:**

**1)** Load is uniformly distributed among all the rivets

**2)** Shear stress on a rivet is uniformly distributed over its gross area.

**3)** Bearing stress is uniform between the contact surfaces of the plate and the rivet.

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 52:** Effective length of a column effectively held in position and restrained in directions at both ends is

**Options:**

**1)** L

**2)** 0.67 L

**3)** 0.85 L

**4)** 1.5 L

**Answer:** 0.67 L

**Q 53:** The slenderness ratio of a column is zero when its length

**Options:**

**1)** Is zero

**2)** Is equal to its radius of gyration

**3)** Is supported on all sides throughout its length

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Is supported on all sides throughout its length

**Q 54:** Outstanding length of a compression member consisting of a channel is measured as

**Options:**

**1)** Half of the nominal width

**2)** Nominal width of the section

**3)** From the edge to the first row of rivets

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Nominal width of the section

**Q 55:** The equivalent axial load may be defined as the load which produces a stress equal to

**Options:**

**1)** Maximum stress produced by the eccentric load

**2)** Maximum stressed fiber

**3)** Bending stress

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Maximum stress produced by the eccentric load

**Q 56:** For the economical design of a combined footing to support two equal column loads the projections of beams in lower tier are kept such that bending moment under column is equal to

**Options:**

**1)** Bending moment at the center of the beam

**2)** Half the bending moment at the center of the beam

**3)** Twice the bending moment at the center of the beam

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Bending moment at the center of the beam

**Q 57:** A beam is defined as a structural member subjected to

**Options:**

**1)** Axial loading

**2)** Axial and transverse loading

**3)** Transverse loading

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Transverse loading

**Q 58:** The gross section of the web of a beam is defined as

**Options:**

**1)** Depth of the beam multiplied by its web thickness

**2)** Width of the flange multiplied by its web thickness

**3)** Sum of the flange width and depth of the beam multiplied by the web thickness

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Depth of the beam multiplied by its web thickness

**Q 59:** The effective length L of a simply supported beam with ends restrained against torsion and also the ends of compression flange partially restrained against lateral bending is given by

**Options:**

**1)** L = span

**2)** L = 0.85 span

**3)** L = 0.75 span

**4)** L = 0.7 span

**Answer:** L = 0.85 span

**Q 60:** The connection of one beam to another beam by means of an angle at the bottom and an angle at the top, is known as

**Options:**

**1) ** Unstiffened seated connection

**2) **Stiffened seated connection

**3) **Seated connection

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Seated connection

**Q 61:** Separation of water or water sand cement from a freshly mixed concrete is known

**Options:**

**1)** Bleeding

**2)** Creeping

**3)** Segregation

**4)** Flooding

**Answer:** Bleeding

**Q 62:** For road pavements, the cement generally used is

**Options:**

**1)** Ordinary Portland cement

**2)** Rapid hardening cement

**3)** Low heat cement

**4)** Blast furnace slag cement

**Answer: **Rapid hardening cement

**Q 63:** Hydration of cement is due to chemical action of water with

**Options:**

**1)** Tricalcium silicate and dicalcium silicate

**2)** Dicalcium silicate and tricalcium aluminate

**3)** Tricalcium aluminate and tricalcium alumin ferrite

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 64:** Internal friction between the ingredients of concrete, is decreased by using

**Options:**

**1)** Less water

**2)** Fine aggregates

**3)** Rich mix

**4)** More water and coarse aggregates

**Answer:** More water and coarse aggregates

**Q 65:** In a slump test, each layer of concrete is compacted by a steel rod 60 cm long and of 16 mm diameter for

**Options:**

**1)** 20 times

**2)** 25 times

**3)** 30 times

**4)** 40 times

**Answer:** 25 times

**Q 66:** To prevent segregation, the maximum height of placing concrete is

**Options:**

**1)** 100 cm

**2)** 125 cm

**3)** 150 cm

**4)** 200 cm

**Answer:** 100 cm

**Q 67:** The shuttering of a hall measuring 4 m x 5 m, can be removed after

**Options:**

**1)** 5 days

**2)** 7 days

**3)** 10 days

**4)** 14 days

**Answer:** 7 days

**Q 68:** For compacting plain concrete road surface of thickness less than 20 cm, we use

**Options:**

**1)** Internal vibrator

**2)** Screed vibrator

**3)** form vibrator

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Screed vibrator

**Q 69:** Pick up the correct statement from the following

**Options:**

**1) **Construction joints in columns are provided a few cm below the junction of beam

**2)** Construction Joints in columns are provided at the bottom haunching

**3)** Construction joint in beams and slabs are provided within middle third

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 70:** An excess of flaky particles in concrete aggregates

**Options:**

**1)** Decreases the workability

**2)** Increases the quantity of water and sand

**3)** Affects the durability of concrete

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 71:** For the construction of cement concrete dams, the maximum permissible size of the aggregates is

**Options:**

**1)** Greatest surface area for the given cement and aggregates

**2)** Least surface area for the given cement and aggregates

**3)** Least weight for the given cement and aggregates

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Greatest surface area for the given cement and aggregates

**Q 72:** For given workability the grade requiring the least amount of water is one that gives

**Options:**

**1)** Greatest surface area for the given cement and aggregates

**2)** Least surface area for the given cement and aggregates

**3)** Least weight for the given cement and aggregates

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Greatest surface area for the given cement and aggregates

**Q 73:** The type of aggregates same nominal size, which contains less voids when compacted are

**Options:**

**1)** Rounded spherical

**2)** Irregular

**3)** Flaky

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Rounded spherical

**Q 74:** For quality control of Portland cement the test essentially done is

**Options:**

**1)** Setting time

**2)** Soundness

**3)** Tensile strength

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 75:** Pick up the correct statement from the following

**Options:**

**1)** The percentage of voids in the aggregate after proper compaction is called the angularity number

**2)** Angular aggregate are superior to rounded aggregate

**3)** The surface texture depends upon the hardness, grain size, free structure and the structure of the rock

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers**

**Q 76:** No shrinkage occurs if the concrete is placed in a relative humidity of

**Options:**

**1)** 1

**2)** 0.85

**3)** 0.7

**4)** 0.5

**Answer:** 1

**Q 77:** Argillaceous materials are those

**Options:**

**1)** Which have alumina as the main constituent

**2)** Which have lime as the main constituent

**3)** Which evolve heat on the addition of water

**4)** Which easily break when hammered lightly

**Answer:** Which have alumina as the main constituent

**Q 78:** Spot the odd statement:

**Options:**

**1)** Rounded aggregate

**2)** Irregular or partly rounded aggregate

**3)** Angular flaky aggregate

**4)** Single-size aggregate

**Answer:** Single-size aggregate

**Q 79:** If **d** and **n** are the effective depth and depth of the neutral axis respectively of a singly reinforced beam, the lever arm of the beam, is

**Options:**

**1)** d

**2)** n

**3)** d + n/3

**4)** d – n/3

**Answer:** d – n/3

**Q 80:** Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. The intensity of horizontal shear stress at the element part of a beam section, is directly proportional to

**Options:**

**1)** Shear force

**2)** Area of the section

**3)** Distance of the C.G. of the area from its neutral axis

**4)** Moment of the beam section about its neutral axis

**Answer:** Moment of the beam section about its neutral axis

**Q 81:** If the average stress 6 kg/cm^{2} for M 150 grade concrete, the length of embedment of a bar of diameter d according to I.S. 456 specifications is

**Options:**

**1)** 28 d

**2)** 38 d

**3)** 48 d

**4)** 58 d

**Answer:** 58 d

**Q 82:** A singly reinforced concrete beam of 25 cm width and 70 cm effective depth is provided with 18.75 cm^{2} steel. If the modular ratio (m) is 15, the depth of the neutral axis, is

**Options:**

**1)** 20 cm

**2)** 25 cm

**3)** 30 cm

**4)** 35 cm

**Answer:** 30 cm

**Q 83:** If the neutral axis of a T-beam is below the slab, the relationship between the flange width B, depth of neutral axis n, thickness of the slab d_{s}, effective depth of the beam d, gross area of tensile steel A_{t} and the modular ratio m may be stated as

**Options:**

**1)** Bd_{s} (n – d_{s}/2) = mAt(d+n)

**2)** Bd_{s} (n + d_{s}/2) = mAt(d-n)

**3)** Bd_{s} (n – d_{s}/2) = mAt(d-n)

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Bd_{s} (n – d_{s}/2) = mAt(d-n)

**Q 84:** In a simply supported slab, alternate bars are curtailed at

**Options:**

**1)** 1/4^{th} of the span

**2)** 1/5^{th} of the span

**3)** 1/6^{th} of the span

**4)** 1/7^{th} of the span

**Answer:** 1/7^{th} of the span

**Q 85:** In a slab, the pitch of the main reinforcement should not exceed its effective depth

**Options:**

**1)** Three times

**2)** Four times

**3)** Five times

**4)** Two times

**Answer:** Three times

**Q 86:** In a combined footing if shear exceeds 5 kg/cm^{2}, the nominal stirrups provided are

**Options:**

**1)** 6 legged

**2)** 8 legged

**3)** 10 legged

**4)** 12 legged

**Answer:** 12 legged

**Q 87:** To ensure that the hogging bending moment at two points of suspension of a pile of length L equals the sagging moment at its center, the distance of the points of suspension from either end is

**Options:**

**1)** 0.107 L

**2)** 0.207 L

**3)** 0.307 L

**4)** 0.407 L

**Answer:** 0.207 L

**Q 88:** To have pressure wholly compressive under the base of a retaining wall if width b, the resultant of the weight of the wall and the pressure exerted by the retained, earth should have eccentricity not more than

**Options:**

**1)** b/3

**2)** b/4

**3)** b/5

**4)** b/6

**Answer:** b/6

**Q 89:** The ratio of the length and diameter of a simply supported uniform circular beam which experiences maximum bending stress equal to tensile stress due to same load at its mid span is

**Options:**

**1)** 1/8

**2)** 1/4

**3)** 1/2

**4)** 1/3

**Answer:** 1/2

**Q 90:** The ratio of the deflections of the free end of a cantilever due to an isolated load at 1/3rd and 2/3rd of the span is

**Options:**

**1)** 1/7

**2)** 2/7

**3)** 3/7

**4)** 2/5

**Answer:** 2/7

**Q 91:** A compound bar consists of two bars of equal length. Steel bar cross bar cross-section is 3500 mm^{2} and that of brass bar is 3000 mm^{2}. These are subjected to a Compressive load 100,000 N. If E_{b} = 0.2 MN/mm^{2}, the stresses developed are

**Options:**

**1)** σ_{b} = 10 N/mm^{2}, σ_{s} = 20 N/mm^{2}

**2)** σ_{b} = 8 N/mm^{2}, σ_{s} = 16 N/mm^{2}

**3)** σ_{b} = 6 N/mm^{2}, σ_{s} = 12 N/mm^{2}

**4)** σ_{b} = 5 N/mm^{2}, σ_{s} = 10 N/mm^{2}

**Answer:** σ_{b} = 10 N/mm^{2}, σ_{s} = 20 N/mm^{2}

**Q 92:** The radius of gyration of rectangular section (depth D, width B) from a centroidal axis parallel to the width is

**Options:**

**1)** D/2

**2)** D/√2

**3)** D/(2√3)

**4)** D/(4√3)

**Answer:** D/(2√3)

**Q 93:** For determining the force in AB of the truss shown in the figure below by method of sections, the section is made to pass through AB, AD and ED and the moments are taken about

**Options:**

**1)** Joint C

**2)** Joint B

**3)** Joint D

**4)** Joint A

**Answer:** Joint D

**Q 94:** The force in CD of the truss shown in the figure

**Options:**

**1)** 3t compression

**2)** 3t tension

**3)** Zero

**4)** 1.5t compression

**Answer:** Zero

**Q 95:** A shaft rotating N.R.M. under a torque T, transmits a power of

**Options:**

**1)** TπN/30 Newton meters/sec

**2)** TπN/30 Newton meters/min

**3)** TπN/60 Newton meters/min

**4)** TπN/60 Newton meters/sec

**Answer:** TπN/30 Newton meters/sec

**Q 96:** The greatest load which a spring can carry without getting permanently distorted is called

**Options:**

**1)** Stiffness

**2)** Proof resilience

**3)** Proof stress

**4)** Proof load

**Answer:** Proof load

**Q 97:** In case of a simply supported I – section beam of span L and loaded with a central load W, the length of elasto-plastic zone of the plastic hinge is

**Options:**

**1)** L/2

**2)** L/3

**3)** L/4

**4)** L/5

**Answer:** L/5

**Q 98:** The horizontal thrust on the ends of a two-hinged semicircular arch of radius R carrying

**Options:**

**1)** A Uniformly distributed load w per unit run over its right half span is (2/3)*(wR/π)

**2)** A uniformly distributed load w per unit run over its entire span is (4/3)*(wR/π)

**3)** A distributed load varying from zero at the left end to w per unit horizontal run at the right end, is (2/3)*(wR/π)

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 99:** If a three-hinged parabolic arch, (span I, rise h) is carrying a uniformly distributed load w/unit length over the entire span,

**Options:**

**1)** Horizontal thrust is (wl^{2})/8h

**2)** Shear Force will be zero throughout

**3)** Bending Moment will be zero throughout

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 100:** The equivalent length of a column of length L having both the end fixed is

**Options:**

**1)** 2L

**2)** L

**3)** L/2

**4)** L/√2

**Answer:** L/2

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers**

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]]>**Q 1:** Which one of the following brick is suitable for the high-class brick masonry ?

**Options:**

**1)** Bull nose bricks

**2)** Jhumb bricks

**3)** Modular bricks

**4)** Under burnt bricks

**Answer:** Modular bricks

**Q 2:** Which of the following is the correct reason for soaking the brick in water before its use ?

**Options:**

**1)** For preventing adsorption of moisture from mortar by bricks

**2)** For reducing air void

**3)** For reducing efflorescence

**4)** For cleaning

**Answer:** For preventing adsorption of moisture from mortar by bricks

**Q 3:** Which of the following compound affects the ultimate strength of cement ?

**Options:**

**1)** Dicalcium silicate

**2)** Tetracalcium alumino-ferrite

**3)** Tricalcium aluminate

**4)** Tricalcium silicate

**Answer:** Dicalcium silicate

**Q 4:** Refractory bricks are generally used to resist_____.

**Options:**

**1)** Chemical action

**2)** Dampness

**3)** High temperature

**4)** Weathering action

**Answer:** High temperature

**Q 5:** Which of the following is the correct percentage of maximum moisture content based in sand where change in volume is maximum ?

**Options:**

**1)** 5%

**2)** 9%

**3)** 12%

**4) **15%

**Answer:** 5%

**Q 6:** Which one of the following cement is best for the marine works ?

**Options:**

**1)** Blast furnace slag cement

**2)** High alumina cement

**3)** Low heat Portland cement

**4)** Rapid hardening cement

**Answer:** Blast furnace slag cement

**Q 7:** Which of the following is limit of the moisture content that can be achieved in the air drying process of timber ?

**Options:**

**1)** 10%

**2)** 15%

**3)** 20%

**4)** 28%

**Answer:** 15%

**Q 8: **Which of the following proportion of cement and standard sand is used in cement mortar while testing the compressive and tensile strength of cement ?

**Options:**

**1)** 1:2

**2)** 1:3

**3)** 1:4

**4)** 1:6

**Answer:** 1:3

**Q 9:** Which of the following is the important factor that affects the shrinkage of cement concrete ?

**Options:**

**1)** Quantity of cement

**2)** Size of coarse aggregates

**3)** Size of the fine aggregate

**4)** Amount of water added during mixing of concrete

**Answer:** Amount of water added during mixing of concrete

**Q 10:** Calculate the proportion (in percentage) of fine aggregate in combined aggregate so that the fineness modulus of the combined aggregate becomes 6.4. The fitness modulus of coarse aggregate and fine aggregate in the concrete mix is 7.6 and 2.8 respectively.

**Options:**

**1)** 20

**2)** 33.33

**3)** 35

**4)** 66.6

**Answer:** 33.3

**Q 11:** Which of the following unit is used for estimation of D.P.C. work ?

**Options:**

**1)** Number

**2)** Cubic meter

**3)** Running meter

**4)** Square meter

**Answer: ** Square meter

**Q 12:** Calculate the quantity of the sand required (in cubic meter) in 20 cubic meters of reinforced cement concrete (1:2:4).

**Options:**

**1)** 2.87

**2)** 4.4

**3)** 5.7

**4)** 8.8

**Answer:** 8.8

**Q 13:** Deduction at cross wall for total length of the central line is______.

**Options:**

**1)** Half of thickness of wall

**2)** No deduction

**3)** Thickness of wall

**4)** Twice of the thickness of wall

**Answer:** Thickness of wall

**Q 14:** Calculate the quantity of the earth works in cubic meter for a canal embankment of 100 m long having cross section areas at the two sections are 20 Square meters and 80 square meters. Use trapezoidal method.

**Options:**

**1)** 2000

**2)** 5000

**3)** 7000

**4)** 10000

**Answer:** 5000

**Q 15:** Accuracy in measurement of the area should be_____.

**Options:**

**1)** 1 square centimeter

**2)** 10 square centimeter

**3)** 100 square centimeter

**4)** 1 square meter

**Answer:** 100 square centimeter

**Q 16:** For estimation of painted area of corrugated asbestos cement sheets, percentage increase in area above the painted area is_____.

**Options:**

**1)** 10%

**2)** 14%

**3)** 20%

**4)** 25%

**Answer:** 20%

**Q 17:** Which of the following is the purpose of the valuation ?

**Options:**

**1)** Approximate estimation of cost

**2)** Analysis of rate

**3)** Detailed estimation of cost

**4)** Taxation

**Answer:** Taxation

**Q 18:** An electric generator is installed in the building at a cost of Rs. 50,000. Calculate the annual sinking fund (Rs.) required to be deposited to accumulate the whole amount of 5% compound interest. Assume the life of the electric generator as 10 years.

**Options:**

**1)** 1535

**2)** 30695

**3)** 3975

**4)** 79503

**Answer:** 3975

**Q 19:** No deduction is made for opening in estimation of masonry work up to______.

**Options:**

**1)** 1 square centimeter

**2)** 10 square centimeter

**3)** 100 square centimeter

**4)** 1000 square centimeter

**Answer:** 1000 square centimeter

**Q 20:** Calculate the weight (kg) per meter length of 25 mm diameter steel bar place at a spacing of 250 mm center by center for 1 meter.

**Options:**

**1)** 0.96

**2)** 3.85

**3)** 7.7

**4)** 15.43

**Answer:** 15.43

**Q 21:** Which one is the upper limit of survey area (square kilometer) for use of plane survey ?

**Options:**

**1)** 250

**2)** 300

**3)** 350

**4)** 450

**Answer:** 250

**Q 22: **Which one is the smallest scale ?

**Options:**

**1)** 1:100

**2)** 1:500

**3)** 1:1,000

**4)** 1:2,500

**Answer:** 1:2,500

**Q 23:** A line of true length 398 m when measured by a chain of 20m chain is recorded to be 400 m. What is the actual length of the chain (in m) ?

**Options:**

**1) **19.9

**2)** 20.1

**3) **20.4

**4)** 21.5

**Answer:** 19.9

**Q 24:** Calculate the correction for temperature for a tape of length ‘L’, if the increase in temperature is ‘T’ above the standard temperature. The coefficient of the temperature for tape material is ‘a’

**Options:**

**1)** aT / L

**2) **– aT / L

**3)** + aTL

**4)** – aTL

**Answer:** + aTL

**Q 25:** What is the correct sequence of the temporary adjustment of level ?

**Options:**

**1)** Centering, leveling and settling

**2)** Leveling, setting and centering

**3)** Setting, centering and leveling

**4)** Setting, leveling and centering

**Answer:** Setting, centering and leveling

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers**

**Q 26:** The values of whole circle bearing vary from______.

**Options:**

**1)** 0^{o} to 90^{o}

**2)** 0^{0} to 180^{o}

**3)** 0^{o} to 270^{o}

**4)** 0^{o} to 360^{o}

**Answer:** 0^{o} to 360^{o}

**Q 27:** Which of the following statement is correct for proper adjustment of the theodolite ?

**Options:**

**1)** Axis of plate level is perpendicular to the horizontal axis.

**2)** Line of collimation is perpendicular to the horizontal axis.

**3)** Line of collimation is parallel to the vertical axis.

**4)** Line of collimation is perpendicular to the vertical axis.

**Answer:** Line of collimation is perpendicular to the horizontal axis.

**Q 28:** Which of the following are correct for sensitivity of the bubble tube ?

**Options:**

**1)** Sensitivity decreases with increase in internal radius of the tube.

**2)** Sensitivity decreases with increase with increase in diameter of the tube.

**3)** Sensitivity increase with decrease in length of the tube.

**4)** Sensitivity increases with decrease in viscosity of the liquid.

**Answer:** Sensitivity increases with decrease in viscosity of the liquid.

**Q 29:** Calculate the curvature correction (in m) if distance between the instrument and staff is 500 m.

**Options:**

**1)** 0.0196

**2)** – 0.0196

**3)** 0.0028

**4)** – 0.0028

**Answer:** – 0.0196

**Q 30:** Calculate the volume of the earthwork (in cubic meter) using trapezoidal method if the cross section areas of the three section of embankment at an interval of 20 m are 40 square meters, 50 square meters and 80 square meters.

**Options:**

**1)** 1067

**2)** 1700

**3)** 2200

**4)** 3200

**Answer:** 2200

sp;

**Q 31:** The_____soil transported by the gravitational forces.

**Options:**

**1)** Alluvial soil

**2)** Colluvial soil

**3)** Loess

**4)** Till

**Answer:** Colluvial soil

**Q 32:** Which of the following is determined with the help of pycnometer ?

**Options:**

**1)** Dry density and specific gravity

**2)** Void ratio and dry density

**3)** Water content and specific gravity

**4)** Water content and void ratio

**Answer:** Water content and specific gravity

**Q 33:** The cell pressure and pore water pressure is increased from 0.1 N/sq. m to 0.26 N/sq. m and 0.07 N/sq.m respectively in the triaxial test. The Skempton’s pore pressure parameter is given by_____.

**Options:**

**1)** – 3

**2)** – 0.5

**3)** 0.5

**4)** 2

**Answer:** 0.5

**Q 34:** Which one of the following shows time factor (approximate), for 50% degree of consolidation ?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.2

**2)** 0.5

**3)** 1

**4)** 2

**Answer:** 0.2

**Q 35:** Which one of the following is true about ideal fluid ?

**Options:**

**1)** It is compressible.

**2)** It is incompressible.

**3)** It has high sheer force.

**4)** It has high value of viscosity.

**Answer:** It is incompressible.

**Q 36:** The diameter of droplet is 0.075 mm. What is the intensity of the pressure (N.sq. cm) developed in the droplet by surface tension of 0.000075 N/mm ?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.4

**2)** 0.6

**3)** 0.8

**4)** 1

**Answer:** 0.4

**Q 37:** A rectangular block of dimensions 2 m **x** 1 m **x** 1 m is floating in the water with immersing depth of 0.5 m. What is the weight of block (kN) if unit weight of water is 10 kN/cubic meter.

**Options:**

**1)** 5

**2)** 10

**3)** 15

**4)** 20

**Answer:** 10

**Q 38:** On which principle equation of continuity is based ?

**Options:**

**1)** Conservation of energy

**2)** Conservation of mass

**3)** Conservation of momentum

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** Conservation of mass

**Q 39:** If Reynolds numbers are 1000,000, then what is the approximate value of friction for the smooth pipe ?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.1

**2)** 0.01

**3)** 0.001

**4)** 0.0001

**Answer:** 0.01

**Q 40:** Which one of the following is correct for impulse turbine ?

**Options:**

**1)** Always operates in submerged condition

**2)** Converts pressure head into velocity with the help of vanes

**3)** Operates by initial complete conversion to kinetic energy

**4)** Operates by initial complete conversion to potential energy

**Answer:** Operates by initial complete conversion to kinetic energy

**Q 41:** When the water drawn from the central hole made in wash hand basin, the type of flow of water is_____.

**Options:**

**1)** Forced vortex

**2)** Free vortex

**3)** Tangential flow

**4)** Transitional flow

**Answer:** Free vortex

**Q 42:** Which of the following turbine is suitable to generate the power of 10,000 hp, working at the speed of 500 rpm under a head of 81 m ?

**Options:**

**1)** Propeller

**2)** Francis

**3)** Kaplan

**4)** Pelton

**Answer:** Francis

**Q 43:** Calculate the specific energy (m-kg / kg) of the flow if the velocity of flow is 2.22 m/s and depth of flow is 1 m.

**Options:**

**1)** 1.25

**2)** 2.22

**3)** 3.22

**4)** 4.22

**Answer:** 1.25

**Q 44:** The sphere of diameter 0.02 m is falls in the fluid of kinematic viscosity 10 stokes with the terminal velocity of 0.02 m/s. What is the value of coefficient of drag on the falling sphere ?

**Options:**

**1)** 40

**2)** 60

**3)** 80

**4)** 100

**Answer:** 60

**Q 45:** As one moves from head of the canal to the field, the duty of the water_____.

**Options:**

**1)** Decreases

**2)** Either increases or decreases

**3)** Increases

**4)** Remains constant

**Answer:** Increases

**Q 46:** Which of the following is the correct assumption of the kennedy’s theory ?

**Options:**

**1)** Shape of regime channel is semicircular.

**2)** Slit is in Suspension due to buoyancy force.

**3)** Slit is in suspension due to eddy formed from bottom of channel.

**4)** Slit is in suspension due to eddy formed from wetted perimeter of channel.

**Answer:** Slit is in suspension due to eddy formed from bottom of channel.

**Q 47:** What is the value of the lateral coefficient of the friction as per the IRC ?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.007

**2)** 0.01

**3)** 0.15

**4)** 0.3

**Answer:** 0.15

**Q 48: **Calculate the safe stopping sight distance (in m) for the descending gradient of 3% for a design speed of 80 km/h. Take coefficient of friction as 0.35 and total reaction time as 2 seconds.

**Options:**

**1)** 110.82

**2)** 123.26

**3)** 1018.41

**4)** 1092

**Answer:** 123.26

**Q 49:** Which of the following is the minimum limit (ppm) of the dissolved oxygen that must be in the water for survival of aquatic life ?

**Options:**

**1)** 1

**2)** 4

**3)** 10

**4)** 40

**Answer:** 4

**Q 50:** A stream has flow of 20 cumecs and BOD concentration of 10 mg/l receives the industrial waste water having flow of 1.5 cumecs and BOD concentration of 250 mg/l. What is the BOD concentration (mg/l) of stream at downstream point of meeting of stream with industrial waste ?

**Options:**

**1)** 2.67

**2)** 12.09

**3)** 13

**4)** 26.74

**Answer:** 26.74

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers**

**Q 51:** A riveted joint may experience

**Options:**

**1)** Shear failure

**2)** Shear failure of plates

**3)** Bearing failure

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 52:** If p and d are pitch and gross diameter of rivets, the efficiency (η) of the riveted joint is given by

**Options:**

**1)** η = p/(p-d)

**2)** η = p/(p+d)

**3)** η = (p-d)/p

**4)** η = (p+d)/p

**Answer:** η = (p-d)/p

**Q 53:** If the moment of inertia of a section about its axis is **I** and its effective sectional area is A, its radius of gyration **r** about the axis is

**Options:**

**1)** r = I/A

**2)** r = √(I/A)

**3)** r = √(A/I)

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** r = √(I/A)

**Q 54:** Allowable working stress corresponding to the slenderness ratio of double angles placed back to back and connected to one side of a gusset plate is reduced to

**Options:**

**1)** 50%

**2)** 60%

**3)** 70%

**4)** 80%

**Answer:** 80%

**Q 55:** According to I.S. : 800 – 1871, lacing bars resist transverse shear equal to______.

**Options:**

**1)** 1.0% of the axial load

**2)** 2.0% of the axial load

**3)** 2.5% of the axial load

**4)** 3.0% of the axial load

**Answer:** 2.5% of the axial load

**Q 56:** Pick up the correct statement from the following

**Options:**

**1)** Loaded columns are supported on column bases

**2)** Column bases transmit the column load to the concrete foundation

**3)** Column load is spread over a large area on concrete

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 57:** In the composition of good bricks, the total content of slit and clay, by weight should not be less than

**Options:**

**1)** 20%

**2)** 30%

**3)** 50%

**4)** 75%

**Answer:** 50%

**Q 58:** In factory buildings, the horizontal beams spanning between the wall columns supporting a wall covering are called

**Options:**

**1)** Stringers

**2)** Trimmers

**3)** Girts

**4)** Lintels

**Answer:** Girts

**Q 59:** The average shear stress (in kg/ cm^{2}) for rolled beam section, is

**Options:**

**1)** 845

**2)** 945

**3)** 1025

**4)** 1500

**Answer:** 945

**Q 60:** Web crippling generally occurs at the point where

**Options:**

**1)** Bending moment is maximum

**2)** Shearing force is minimum

**3)** Concentrated loads act

**4)** Deflection is maximum

**Answer:** Concentrated loads act

**Q 61:** The strength and quality of concrete, depends upon:

**Options:**

**1)** Grading of aggregates

**2)** Surface area of aggregates

**3)** Shape of aggregates

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 62:** The process of adding water to lime to convert it into a hydrated lime is termed as :

**Options:**

**1)** Watering

**2)** Baking

**3)** Hydration

**4)** Slaking

**Answer:** Slaking

**Q 63:** If aggregates completely pass through a sleve of size 75 mm and are retained on a sleve of size 60 mm, the aggregates will be known as elongated aggregate if its length is not less than

**Options:**

**1)** 81.5 mm

**2)** 91.5 mm

**3)** 101.5 mm

**4)** 121.5 mm

**Answer:** 121.5 mm

**Q 64:** The calcinations of pure lime result in:

**Options:**

**1)** Quick lime

**2)** Hydraulic lime

**3)** Hydrated lime

**4)** Fat lime

**Answer:** Quick lime

**Q 65:** Pick up the correct statement from the following

**Options:**

**1)** An increase in water content must be accompanied by an increase in cement content

**2)** Angular and rough aggregates reduce the workability of the concrete

**3)** Large size aggregates increase the workability due to lesser surface area

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 66:** According to I.S. 456, the number of grades of standard concrete mixes are

**Options:**

**1)** 3

**2)** 5

**3)** 6

**4)** 7

**Answer:** 7

**Q 67:** Curing a concrete for long period ensures better

**Options:**

**1)** Volume stability

**2)** Strength

**3)** Water resistance

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 68:** The main object of compaction of concrete is

**Options:**

**1)** To eliminate air holes

**2)** To achieve maximum density

**3)** To provide intimate contact between the concrete and embedded materials.

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 69:** Construction joints are provided

**Options:**

**1)** Where B.M and S.F are small

**2)** Where the member is supported by other member

**3)** At 18 m apart in huge structures

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 70:** Pick up the correct statement from the following

**Options:**

**1)** Construction Joints are necessarily planned for their locations

**2)** Expansion joints are provided to accommodate thermal expansion

**3)** Construction joints are provided to control shrinkage cracks

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 71:** Grading of sand causes great variation in

**Options:**

**1)** Workability of concrete

**2)** Strength of concrete

**3)** Durability of concrete

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 72:** The light weight aggregates are obtained from

**Options:**

**1)** Sedimentary rocks

**2)** Metamorphic rocks

**3)** Igneous rocks

**4)** Volcanic source

**Answer:** Volcanic source

**Q 73:** The bulk density of aggregates depends upon its

**Options:**

**1)** Shape

**2)** Grading

**3)** Compaction

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 74:** Batching error means inaccuracy in the quantity of

**Options:**

**1)** Aggregates

**2)** Cement

**3)** Water

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 75:** The center needle of the attachment of the Vicat plunger projects the circular cutting edge by

**Options:**

**1)** 0.2 mm

**2)** 0.5 mm

**3)** 1 mm

**4)** 5 mm

**Answer:** 0.5 mm

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers**

**Q 76:** The flakiness index of aggregates is the percentage by weight of particles in it whose thickness is less than______.

**Options:**

**1)** 2/5th of mean length

**2)** 3/5th of mean length

**3)** 4/5th of mean length

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** 3/5th of mean length

**Q 77:** The field test for the quality of cement consists in putting a small quantity of cement in a bucket containing water. A good quality cement will:

**Options:**

**1)** Immediately dissolve in the water

**2)** Float on the water surface

**3)** Sink to the bottom of the bucket

**4)** Produce the steam

**Answer:** Float on the water surface

**Q 78:** For the repair of roads

**Options:**

**1)** Low-heat cement is used

**2)** Rapid-hardening cement is used

**3)** High-alumina cement is used

**4)** Sulphate-resisting cement is used

**Answer:** Rapid-hardening cement is used

**Q 79:** The advantage of reinforced concrete, is due to

**Options:**

**1)** Monolithic character

**2)** Fire-resisting and durability

**3)** Economy because of less maintenance cost

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 80:** By over-reinforcing a beam, the moment of resistance can be increased not more than

**Options:**

**1)** 10%

**2)** 15%

**3)** 20%

**4)** 25%

**Answer:** 25%

**Q 81:** Spacing of stirrups in a rectangular beam, is

**Options:**

**1)** Kept constant throughout the length

**2)** Decreased towards the centre of the beam

**3) **Increased at the ends

**4) **Increased at the center of the beam

**Answer:** Increased at the center of the beam

**Q 82:** The radius of a bar bend to form a hook should not be less than

**Options:**

**1)** Twice the diameter

**2)** Thrice the diameter

**3)** Four times the diameter

**4)** Five times the diameter

**Answer:** Twice the diameter

**Q 83:** Steel bars are generally connected together to get greater length than the standard length by providing

**Options:**

**1)** Straight bar splice

**2)** Hooked splice

**3)** Dowel splice

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 84:** The diameter of longitudinal bars of a column should never be less than

**Options:**

**1)** 6 mm

**2)** 8 mm

**3)** 10 mm

**4)** 12 mm

**Answer:** 12 mm

**Q 85:** The maximum ratio of span to depth of a slab simply supported and spanning in two directions is

**Options:**

**1)** 25

**2)** 30

**3)** 35

**4)** 40

**Answer:** 35

**Q 86:** For a continuous slab supported at ends and carried over intermediate beams

**Options:**

**1) **Max. sagging B.M. for the end spans = +(wl^{2})/10

**2)** Max. hogging B.M. over penultimate supports is equal to –(wl^{2})/10

**3)** Max. sagging B.M. for the interior spans = + (wl^{2})/12

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 87:** The advantage of a concrete pile over a timber pile is

**Options:**

**1)** No decay due to termites

**2)** No restriction on length

**3)** Higher bearing capacity

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 88:** A raft foundation is provided if its area exceeds the plan area of the building by

**Options:**

**1)** 10%

**2)** 20%

**3)** 30%

**4)** 50%

**Answer:** 50%

**Q 89:** The forces in the members of simple trusses may be analysed by

**Options:**

**1)** Graphical method

**2)** Method of joints

**3)** Method of sections

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 90:** A rolled steel joist is simply supported at its end and carries a uniformly distributed load which causes a maximum deflection of 10 mm and slope at the ends of 0.002 radian. The length of the joist will be

**Options:**

**1)** 10 m

**2)** 12 m

**3)** 14 m

**4)** 16 m

**Answer:** 16 m

**Q 91:** A lift of weight W is lifted by a rope with an acceleration f. If the area of cross-section of the rope is A, the stress in the rope is

**Options:**

**1)** w (1+f/g)/A

**2)** (1-g/f)/A

**3)** w (2+f/g)/A

**4)** w (2+g /f)/A

**Answer:** w (1+f/g)/A

**Q 92:** A material which obey’s Hooke’s law is subjected to direct stress σ_{o}. At its elastic limit, which of the following statements is true ?

**Options:**

**1)** Strain is equal to σ_{o}/E

**2)** Maximum shear stress = σ_{o}/2

**3)** Strain energy = (σ_{o}^{2}/2E) x volume

**4)** All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q 93:** Keeping the depth **d** constant, the width of a cantilever of length **l** of uniform strength loaded with a uniformly distributed load w varies from zero at the free end and

**Options:**

**1)** (2w/σd^{2}) * l^{2} at the fixed end

**2)** (3w/σd^{2}) * l^{2} at the fixed end

**3)** (3w/σd) * l^{2} at the fixed end

**4)** (5w/σd^{2}) * l^{2} at the fixed end

**Answer:** (3w/σd) * l^{2} at the fixed end

**Q 94:** The force in EC of the truss shown in the figure below is

**Options:**

**1)** Zero

**2)** 5t tension

**3)** 5t Compression

**4)** 4t tension

**Answer:** 5t Compression

**Q 95:** In the cable shown in the figure below, the minimum tension occurs at

**Options:**

**1)** A

**2)** B

**3)** C

**4)** Between A and C

**Answer:** C

**Q 96:** A shaft is subjected to a bending moment M and a torque T simultaneously. The ratio of the maximum bending stress to maximum shear stress developed in the shaft is

**Options:**

**1)** M/T

**2)** T/M

**3)** 2M/T

**4)** 2T/M

**Answer:** 2M/T

**Q 97:** The shape factor of standard rolled beam section varies from

**Options:**

**1)** 1.10 to 1.20

**2)** 1.20 to 1.30

**3)** 1.30 to 1.40

**4)** 1.40 to 1.50

**Answer:** 1.10 to 1.20

**Q 98:** In plastic analysis, the shape factor for a triangular section is

**Options:**

**1)** 1.5

**2)** 1.34

**3)** 2.34

**4)** 25

**Answer:** 2.34

**Q 99:** Shear center of a half circular section of radius r and of constant thickness, lies at a distance of x from the center, where **x** is

**Options:**

**1)** r/π

**2)** 2r/ π

**3)** 3r/ π

**4)** 4r/ π

**Answer:** 4r/ π

**Q 100:** A three hinged arch is generally hinged at its supports and

**Options:**

**1)** At one quarter span

**2)** At the crown

**3)** Anywhere in the rib

**4)** None of these

**Answer:** Anywhere in the rib

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers**

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]]>**Q1:** The defect that is caused by falling of rain water on the hot surfaces of the bricks is known as______.

**Options:**

1) Bloating

2) chuffs

3) Cracks

4) lamination

**Answer: **chuffs

**Q2:** Which of the following property of bitumen is related to the Pensky-Marten test?

**Options:**

1) Ductility

2) Softening point

3) Flash and fire point

4) Viscosity

**Answer: **Flash and fire point

**Q3:** The defect in timber that arises due to the swelling caused by growth of layers of sap wood over the wounds after branch is cut off is called as_______.

**Options:**

1) checks

2) knots

3) shakes

4) rind gall

**Answer: **rind gall

**Q4:** Which of the following is the measure of ease with which the wood may split?

**Options:**

1) Cleavability

2) Shearing strength

3) Stiffness

4) Toughness

**Answer: **Cleavability

**Q5: **The get space ratio of a concrete sample is given as 0.589.

What is the theoretical strength (N/mm^{2}) of that concrete sample ?

**Options:
**1) 49.04

2) 65.71

3) 104.03

4) 116.8

**Options:**

**1)**

**2)**

**3)**

**4)**

**Answer: **

**Q7:** The aggregate which is obtained from the seashore or rivers and produces minimum voids in the concrete is known as_______.

**Options:**

1) angular aggregates

2) flaky aggregates

3) irregular aggregates

4) rounded aggregates

**Answer: **rounded aggregates

**Q8:** The detachment of the paint film from the surface is known as _____.

**Options:**

1) chalking

2) cracking

3) flaking

4) wrinkling

**Answer: **flaking

**Q9:** Which of the following is the homogeneous solution of resins in the alcohol?

**Options:**

**1)** Distemper

**2)** Enamel paint

**3)** Plastic paint

**4)** Varnish

**Answer: **Varnish

**Q10:** In the softening point test of the bitumen with the help of ring and ball apparatus, what is the diametre (cm) of the steel ball?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.35

**2)** 0.65

**3)** 0.95

**4)** 1.25

**Answer: **0.95

**Q11:** Which of the following is the CORRECT statement for length of the short wall, as one move from earthwork to brick work in super structure in long and short wall method?

**Options:**

1) Its value decreases

2) Its value depends upon the length of the wall.

3) Its value increases.

4) Its value remains same.

**Answer: **Its value increases.

**Q12:** Which of the following is the unit of measurement for rivets?

**Options:**

1) Bags

2) Cubic meter

3) Numbers

4) Quintal

**Answer: **Quintal

**Q13:** Which of the following statement is CORRECT for units of measurement?

**Options:**

1) Bands of specified width are measured in running meter.

2) Work consists of the linear measurement and is measured in square meter.

3) Single units are measured in meter.

4) Work consists of areal surface and is measured in cubic meter.

**Answer: **Work consists of areal surface and is measured in cubic meter.

**Q14:** Which of the following area is NOT included in the plinth area of the building?

**Options:**

1) Area of the lofts.

2) Area of Barsati at terrace level.

3) Area of walls at floor level.

4) Porches of non-cantilever type.

**Answer: **Area of the lofts.

**Q15:** Which of the following multiplying factor is used for the estimation of lead for Cartze tracks?

**Options:**

1) 0.8

2) 1

3) 1.1

4) 1.2

**Answer: **1.1

** **

**Q16:** Threading in the iron is measured in _____.

**Options:**

1) centimeter

2) kilogram

3) number

4) square centimeter

**Answer: **centimeter

**Q17:** Calculate the cost (Rs.) of 100 mm thick brick lining of a septic tank of size 5 m x 3 m x 1.5 m, if the rate of lining is Rs. 200 per square meter.

**Options:**

1) 4500

2) 4800

3) 5400

4) 7800

**Answer: **7800

**Q18:** Calculate the annual percentage depreciation of a machine using the constant percentage method, if purchasing cost is Rs. 12,000 and scrap value is Rs 3,000 and the life of the machine is 8 years.

**Options:**

1) 9.37

2) 16

3) 26.67

4) 33.33

**Answer: **16

**Q19:** The number of the bricks delivered by an unskilled labour to a distance of 10 m in a working day is approximately _____.

**Options:**

1) 1500

2) 2200

3) 4200

4) 5500

**Answer: **4200

**Q20:** Calculate the quantity (cubic meter) of fine aggregate required for construction of a circular water tank of 3.5 m diameter and 5 m height, if M 25 cement concrete is used.

**Options:**

1) 12

2) 18.5

3) 37

4) 48

**Answer: **37

**Q21:** Which type of error is represented by a closed traverse, if the algebraic sum of latitude of all the lines is zero?

**Options:**

1) Compensating error

2) Negative error

3) No error

4) Positive error

**Answer: **No error

**Q22:** The difference between the fore bearing and back bearing for any station is equal to _____.

**Options:**

1) external angle

2) either external or internal angle

3) internal angle

4) right angle

**Answer: **either external or internal angle

**Q23:** Which of the following statement is CORRECT when the theodolite is properly adjusted?

**Options:**

1) Horizontal line passes through the centre of the horizontal circle.

2) Tangent to plate bubble must be perpendicular to horizontal axis.

3) Tangent to plate bubble must be perpendicular to vertical axis.

4) Vertical line passes through the centre of the vertical circle.

**Answer: **Tangent to plate bubble must be perpendicular to vertical axis.

**Q24:** Which of the following test is used to make the horizontal axis perpendicular to the vertical axis?

**Options:**

1) Azimuth test

2) Cross hair ring test

3) Spire test

4) Vertical arc test

**Answer: **Spire test

**Q25:** For more precise prediction of the terrain relief, the contour interval should_____.

**Options:**

1) decrease continuously

2) increase continuously

3) be larger

4) be smaller

**Answer: **be smaller

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers**

**Q26:** The areas included by contour lines for a proposed dam are given as,

Contour (m) |
410 | 420 | 430 | 440 | 450 |

Area (hectares) |
205 | 120 | 145 | 95 | 135 |

**Options:**

1) 42000000

2) 53000000

3) 70000000

4) 80000000

**Answer: **53000000

**Q27:** Which of the following statement is CORRECT for estimating the corrected area from a map of shrunk factor ‘F’?

**Options:**

1) It is directly proportional to F.

2) It is directly proportional to square of F.

3) It is inversely proportional to F.

4) It is inversely proportional to square of F

**Answer: **It is inversely proportional to square of F

**Q28:** Which of the following leveling method is used to determine the difference of elevation of two points that are quite apart?

**Options:**

1) Check leveling

2) Fly leveling

3) Reciprocal leveling

4) Simple leveling

**Answer: **Reciprocal leveling

**Q29:** A level is set on a station at a distance of 500 m from point A and 800 m from point B. The staff readings on the staffs kept at point A and B are 1.55 m and 1.95 m respectively. Calculate the true difference in elevation of the point A and B.

**Options:**

1) 0.348

2) 0.374

3) 0.4

4) 0.426

**Answer: **0.374

**Q30:** Which of the following method estimates the best volume of earthwork of an irregular embankment?

**Options:**

1) Average ordinate method

2) Mid-ordinate method

3) Simpson’s method

4) Trapezoidal method

**Answer: **Simpson’s method

**Q31:** Which of the following represents the void ratio of soil sample whose porosity is 0.452?

**Options:**

1) 0.264

2) 0.561

3) 0.729

4) 0.825

**Answer: **0.825

**Q32:** The moisture content in a soil sample is 18.2% and specific gravity of the soil particles is given by 2.65. What is the void ratio for sample, if the soil is fully saturated?

**Options:**

1) 0.157

2) 0.291

3) 0.482

4) 0.634

**Answer: **0.482

**Q33:** If the degree of saturation of soil is given by 67.89%, what is the percentage of air content of the soil?

**Options:**

1) 10.5

2) 20.25

3) 32.11

4) 40.43

**Answer: **32.11

**Q34:** Which of the following expression represent the relative compaction of soil, where variables have their standard meanings?

**Options:**

**1)**

**2)**

**3)**

**4)** None of these

**Answer: **

**Q35:** The type of fluid in which flow and fluid properties does not change with time at any given location, is known as______.

**Options:**

1) non-uniform flow

2) rotational flow

3) steady flow

4) unsteady flow

**Answer: **steady flow

**Q36: **For a flow, the velocity components are given by u = (λxy^{2} – x^{3}y^{2}) and v = (x^{2}y^{3} – 3y^{3}). What is the value of** λ **for the possible flow field which includes steady incompressible flow ?

**Options:**

1) 3

2) 5

3) 7

4) 9

**Answer: **9

**Q37:** What is the value of angle (degree) between stream lines and equipotential lines at the point of intersection in the flow net?

**Options:**

1) 0

2) 45

3) 60

4) 90

**Answer: **90

**Q38:** What is the cross-sectional area (sq. m) of the channel, if its hydraulic radius and wetted perimeter is given as 300 cm and 860 cm respectively?

**Options:**

1) 10.5

2) 15.6

3) 25.8

4) 32.4

**Answer: **25.8

**Q39:** The flow in a channel is laminar and Reynolds number is given by 1200. What is the friction factor for the channel?

**Options:**

1) 0.001

2) 0.008

3) 0.023

4) 0.053

**Answer: **0.053

**Q40:** A circular pipe of diameter 0.5 m carries the discharge of 50 liters/s. The head loss due to friction in pipe is 0.15 m and friction factor for the pipe is given as 0.01. What is the length (m) of pipe?

**Options:**

1) 1150

2) 1860

3) 2263

4) 2785

**Answer: **2263

**Q41:** The Froude number for a hydraulic jump is 3.2, the type of jump is________.

**Options:**

1) oscillating jump

2) steady jump

3) strong jump

4) weak jump

**Answer: **oscillating jump

**Q42:** At a certain point, the absolute pressure and atmospheric pressure is given by 850 mm of Hg and 700 mm of Hg respectively. What is the value of gauge pressure (mm of Hg) at that point?

**Options:**

1) 50

2) 100

3) 150

4) 200

**Answer: **150

**Q43:** The head produced by a liquid of relative density 1.62 is equal to the pressure of 250 kPa. What is the head (m) produced by the liquid?

**Options:**

1) 5.04

2) 7.53

3) 15.73

4) 25.21

**Answer: **15.73

**Q44: **Which of the following expression represents the energy dissipated in the hydraulic jump ? y_{1} and y_{2} are the flow depth at supercritical flow and subcritical flow respectively.

**Q45:** Which of the following statement is CORRECT for duty of the water?

**Options:**

1) It increases with an increase in temperature.

2) It increases with an increase in wind speed.

3) It increases with an increase in humidity

4) It is not affected by climatic conditions.

**Answer: **It increases with an increase in humidity

**Q46:** Which of the following process includes spreading of an external material on the soils to increase infiltration and reduce evaporation?

**Options:**

1) Mulching

2) Paleo irrigation

3) Ploughing

4) Tillage

**Answer: **Mulching

**Q47:** The value of rigidity factor for design purpose, if the tyre pressure is greater than 0.7 MPa is ______.

**Options:**

1) greater than 1.

2) less than 1.

3) equal to 1

4) zero

**Answer: **less than 1.

**Q48:** Calculate the design rate of super elevation on a 3 degree horizontal curve for a narrow gauge track, if design velocity on the curve is 70 km/h.

**Options:**

1) 0.051

2) 0.07

3) 0.067

4) 0.112

**Answer: **0.051

**Q49:** The path taken by the continuous discharge of gaseous effluents emitted from chimney is commonly known as_____.

**Options:**

1) lapse rate

2) inversion

3) plume

4) None of these

**Answer: **plume

**Q50:** The measure of absorption or scattering of light by the suspended materials present in the water is known as______.

**Options:**

1) alkalinity

2) color

3) hardness

4) turbidity

**Answer: **turbidity

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers**

**Q51:** Number of rivets required in a joint is

**Options:**

1) load /shear strength of a rivet

2) load/bearing strength of a rivet

3) load/tearing strength of a rivet

4) None of these

**Answer: **None of these

**Q52:** Effective length of a column effectively held in position and restrained in direction at one end but neither held in position nor restrained in direction at the other end is

**Options:**

1) L

2) 0.67 L

3) 0.85 L

4) 2 L

**Answer: **2 L

**Q53:** A compression member consisting of angle sections may be a

**Options:**

1) continuous member

2) discontinuous single angle strut

3) discontinuous double angle strut

4) All option are correct

**Answer: **All option are correct

**Q54:** If the area of cross-section of a single angle discontinuous strut is 30 cm^{2} and allowable working stress corresponding to its slenderness ratio is 625 kg/cm2, the safe load carrying capacity of the member is

**Options:**

1) 10 tonnes

2) 12 tonnes

3) 15 tonnes

4) 18 tonnes

**Answer: **15 tonnes

**Q55:** If the depth of two column sections are equal, then the column splice is provided

**Options:**

1) with filler plates

2) with bearing plates

3) with filler and bearing plates

4) None of these

**Answer: **None of these

**Q56:** When a tension member is made of four angles with a plate as web, the allowance for holes is made as

**Options:**

1) two holes for each angle and one hole for the web

2) one hole for each angle and one hole for the web

3) one hole for each angle and two holes for the web

4) None of these

**Answer: **one hole for each angle and two holes for the web

**Q57:** The beam outside a wall up to floor level above it, is known as

**Options:**

1) rafter

2) lintel

3) spandrel beam

4) None of these

**Answer: **spandrel beam

**Q58:** For a rectangular section, the ratio of the maximum and average shear stresses is

**Options:**

1) 1.5

2) 2

3) 2.5

4) 3

**Answer: **1.5

**Q59:** For a cantilever beam of length L continuous at the support and unrestrained against torsion at the support and free at the end, the effective length ‘l’ is equal to

**Options:**

1) l = L

2) l = 2L

3) l = 0.5L

4) l = 3L

**Answer: **l = 3L

**Q60:** Spans of continuous fillers are considered approximately equal if the longest span does not exceed the shortest span by more than

**Options:**

1) 0.05

2) 0.1

3) 0.15

4) 0.2

**Answer: **0.15

**Q61:** Pick up the incorrect statement from the following

**Options:**

1) Admixtures accelerate hydration

2) Admixtures make concrete water proof

3) Admixtures make concrete acid proof

4) Admixtures give high strength

**Answer: **Admixtures accelerate hydration

**Q62:** Pick up the correct statement from the following

**Options:**

1) Calcium chloride acts as a retarder

2) Gypsum (calcium sulphate) acts as an accelerator

3) Gypsum (calcium sulphate) acts as a retarder

4) None of these

**Answer: **Gypsum (calcium sulphate) acts as a retarder

**Q63:** High temperature

**Options:**

1) increases the strength of concrete

2) decreases the strength of concrete

3) has no effect on the strength of concrete

4) None of these

**Answer: **decreases the strength of concrete

**Q64:** Reciprocal levelling eliminates:-

**Options:**

1) Collimation error

2) Collimation, curvature and refraction error

3) curvature and refraction error

4) curvature error fully and refraction error partly

**Answer: **curvature error fully and refraction error partly

**Q65:** Proper proportioning of concrete, ensures

**Options:**

1) desired strength and workability

2) desired durability

3) water tightness of the structure

4) All option are correct

**Answer: **All option are correct

**Q66:** Curing

**Options:**

1) reduces the shrinkage of concrete

2) preserves the properties of concrete

3) prevents the loss of water by evaporation

4) All option are correct

**Answer: **All option are correct

**Q67:** If the effective working time is 7 hours and per batch time of concrete is 3 minutes, the output of a concrete mixer (in litres) of 150-liter capacity is

**Options:**

1) 15900

2) 16900

3) 17900

4) 18900

**Answer: **18900

**Q68:** The operation of removing humps and hollows of uniform concrete surface is known as

**Options:**

1) floating

2) screeding

3) troweling

4) finishing

**Answer: **screeding

**Q69:** According to the recommendations of IS: 456 – 1978, the expansion joints

**Options:**

1) are provided where plane changes abruptly

2) are provided to ensure minimum resistance

3) are supported on separate columns

4) All option are correct

**Answer: **All option are correct

**Q70:** An aggregate is said to be flaky if its least dimension is less than

**Options:**

1) 1/5th of the mean dimension

2) 2/5th of the mean dimension

3) 3/5th of the mean dimension

4) 4/5th of the mean dimension

**Answer: **3/5th of the mean dimension

**Q71:** The most useless aggregate is one whose surface texture is

**Options:**

1) smooth

2) granular

3) glassy

4) honey combed & porous

**Answer: **glassy

**Q72:** A beam curved in plan is designed for

**Options:**

1) bending moment and shear

2) bending moment and torsion

3) shear and torsion

4) bending moment, shear and torsion

**Answer: **bending moment, shear and torsion

**Q73:** Pick up the correct statement from the following

**A.** The free water is the amount of water added while mixing and the amount of water held on the surface of the aggregates prior to mixing

**B.** The total water is the free water and the amount actually absorbed by the aggregates

**Options:**

1) Only A

2) Only B

3) Neither A nor B

4) Both A and B

**Answer: **Both A and B

**Q74:** The size of fine aggregates does not exceed

**Options:**

1) 2.75 mm

2) 3.00 mm

3) 3.75 mm

4) 4.75 mm

**Answer: **4.75 mm

**Q75:** Which one of the following tests, is used to test aggregate for tis abrasion resistance

**Options:**

1) Deval attrition test

2) Dorry abrasion test

3) Los Angeles test

4) All option are correct

**Answer: **Deval attrition test

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers**

**Q76:** The flange splice in plate girder is subjected to:-

**Options:**

1) axial force only

2) shear and axial force

3) bending moment and axial force

4) shear force and bending moment

**Answer: **axial force only

**Q77:** Initial setting time of rapid-hardening Portland cement is nearly

**Options:**

1) half a minute

2) 5 minutes

3) 30 minutes

4) 45 minutes

**Answer: **5 minutes

**Q78:** Which of the following statements is true?

**Options:**

1) Addition of pozzolana to cement decreases workability

2) Addition of pozzolana to cement increases strength

3) Addition of pozzolana to cement increases heat of hydration

4) None of these

**Answer: **None of these

**Q79:** With usual notations the depth of the neutral axis of a balanced section, is given by

**Options:**

1) mc/t= (d-n )/n

2) t/mc= (d-n)/n

3) t/mc=(d+n)/n

4) mc/t= n/(d-n )

**Answer: **mc/t= n/(d-n )

**Q80:** Distribution of shear intensity over a rectangular section of a beam, follows:

**Options:**

1) a circular curve

2) a straight line

3) a parabolic curve

4) an elliptical curve

**Answer: **a parabolic curve

**Q81:** The correct hook for mild steel reinforcement bars, according to specifications is shown in which of the following figures ?

**Options**:

1) (a)

2) (b)

3) (c )

4) (d)

**Answer: **(a)

**Q82: **The bar carrying positive bending moment is bent up to resist negative bending moment is shown in which of the following figures ?

**Options**:

1) (a)

2) (b)

3) (c )

4) None of these

**Answer: **(c )

**Q83:** Columns may be made of plain concrete if their unsupported lengths do not exceed their least lateral dimension

**Options:**

1) two times

2) three times

3) four times

4) five times

**Answer: **four times

**Q84:** The effective span of a simply supported slab is

**Options:**

1) distance between the centers of the bearings

2) clear distance between the inner faces of the walls plus twice the thickness of the wall

3) clear span plus effective depth of the slab

4) None of these

**Answer: **clear distance between the inner faces of the walls plus twice the thickness of the wall

**Q85:** The weight of reinforced concrete is generally taken as

**Options:**

1) 2200 kg/m^{3}

2) 2300 kg/m^{3}

3) 2400 kg/m^{3}

4) 2500 kg/m^{3}

**Answer: **2400 kg/m^{3}

**Q86:** Bottom bars under the columns are extended into the interior of the footing slab to a distance greater than

**Options:**

1) 42 diameters from the center of the column

2) 42 diameters from the inner edge of the column

3) 42 diameters from the outer edge of the column

4) 24 diameters from the center of the column

**Answer: **42 diameters from the outer edge of the column

**Q87:** A pile of length L carrying a uniformly distributed load W per meter length is suspended at the center and from other two points 0.15 L from either end, the maximum hogging moment will be

**Options:**

1) WL^{2} /15

2) WL^{2} /30

3) WL^{2} /60

4) WL^{2} /90

**Answer: **WL^{2} /90

**Q88:** Cantilever retaining walls can safely be used for a height not more than

**Options:**

1) 3 m

2) 4 m

3) 5 m

4) 6 m

**Answer: **6 m

**Q89:** A simply supported uniform rectangular bar breadth b, depth d and length L carries an isolated load W at its mid-span. The same bar experiences an extension e under same tensile load. The ratio of the maximum deflection to the elongation is

**Options:**

1) L/d

2) L/2d

3) (L/2d)^{2}

4) (L/3d)^{2}

**Answer: **(L/2d)^{2}

**Q90:** The maximum deflection due to a load W at the free end of a cantilever of length L and having flexural rigidity EI is

**Options:**

1) WL^{2} /2EI

2) WL^{2} /3EI

3) WL^{3} /2EI

4) WL^{3} /3EI

**Answer: **WL^{3} /3EI

**Q91:** If normal stresses due to longitudinal and transverse loads on a bar are σ_{1} and σ_{2} respectively, the normal component of the stress on an inclined plane θ^{o} to the longitudinal load is

**Options:**

1) (σ_{1} sinθ)* (σ_{2} cosθ)

2) σ_{1} sin^{2}θ+ σ_{2} cos^{2}θ

3) (σ_{1} – σ_{2})(sin2θ)/2

4) (σ_{1} + σ_{2})(sin2θ)/2

**Answer: **σ_{1} sin^{2}θ+ σ_{2} cos^{2}θ

**Q92:** For beams of uniform strength, if depth is constant, then

**Options:**

1) width is directly proportional to bending moment

2) width is directly proportional to square root of bending moment

3) width is directly proportional to three times the square root of bending moment

4) width is inversely proportional to bending moment

**Answer: **width is directly proportional to bending moment

**Q93: **To determine the force in BD of the truss shown in the figure below, a section is passed through BD, CD and CE and the moments are taken about

**Options:**

1) joint A

2) joint B

3) joint C

4) joint D

**Answer: **joint C

**Q94: **The degree of indeterminacy of the frame shown in the figure below is

**Options**:

1) 0

2) 1

3) 2

4) 3

**Answer: **1

**Q95:** For permissible shear stress f_{s}, the torque transmitted by a thin tube of mean diameter D and wall thickness t is

**Options:**

1) {(πd^{2})/2} t f_{s}

2) {(πD)/2} t f_{s }

3) {(πD^{2})} t f_{s}

4) {(πD^{2}t^{2})/4} f_{s}

**Answer: **{(πd^{2})/2} t f_{s}

**Q96:** The strain energy stored in a spring when subjected to greatest load without being permanently distorted is called

**Options:**

1) stiffness

2) proof resilience

3) proof stress

4) proof load

**Answer: **proof resilience

**Q97:** Pick up the correct statement from the following:

**Options:**

1) In a loaded beam, the moment at which the first yield occurs is called yield moment

2) In a loaded beam, the moment at which the entire section of the beam becomes fully plastic, is called plastic moment

3) In a fully plastic stage of the beam, the neutral axis divides the section in two sections of equal area

4) All option are correct

**Answer: **All option are correct

**Q98:** A concentrated load P is supported by the free end of a quadrantal ring AB whose end B is fixed. The ratio of the vertical to horizontal deflections of the end A is

**Options:**

1) π

2) π/2

3) π/3

4) π/4

**Answer: **π/2

**Q99:** An isolated load W is acting at a distance ‘a’ from the left-hand support of a three-hinged arch of span ‘2l’ and rise ‘h’ hinged at the crown. The vertical reaction of the arch is

**Options:**

1) Wa/2l

2) Wl/a

3) Wa/l

4) (W^{2})/2l

**Answer: **Wa/2l

**Q100:** Slenderness ratio of a long column is

**Options:**

1) area of cross-section divided by radius of gyration

2) area of cross-section divided by least radius of gyration

3) radius of gyration divided by area of cross-section

4) length of column divided by least radius of gyration

**Answer: **length of column divided by least radius of gyration

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers**

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]]>The post SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper 2018 Shift-1 (Civil Engineering) appeared first on NewtonDesk.

]]>**Q1:** Which of the following represent the crushing strength (MPa) for the good quality stone that are used in the construction of buildings?

**Options:**

1) Less than 20

2) 20 to 60

3) 60 to 80

4) Greater than 100

**Answer:**** **Greater than 100

**Q2:** Which of the following is examined to determine the age of timber?

**Options:**

1) Annular ring

2) Sapwood

3) Pith

4) Timber defects

**Answer:** Annular ring

**Q3:** Which of the following is determined with the help of Le Chatelier’s device?

**Options:**

1) Abrasion resistance

2) Chemical resistance

3) Soundness

4) Strength

**Answer:** Soundness

**Q4:** The type of mortar which is used for the construction works carried out in water-logged area is _____.

**Options:**

1) cement mortar

2) loose mortar

3) mortar of very low consistency

4) mortar having high w/c ratio

**Answer: **cement mortar

**Q5:** For M 25 grade concrete, the split tensile strength in terms of percentage of its compressive strength is _____.

**Options:**

1) 7 to 11%

2) 18 to 28%

3) 28 to 38%

4) 38 to 48%

Answer: 7 to 11%

**Q6:** Distempers are generally used to coat _____.

**Options:**

1) compound wall

2) external concrete surfaces

3) interior surface which are not exposed to environment

4) wood works

**Answer:** interior surface which are not exposed to environment

**Q7:** Which of the following is commonly used as retarder in cement?

**Options:**

1) Calcium sulphate

2) Gypsum

3) Potassium carbide

4) Sodium chloride

Answer: Gypsum

**Q8:** In the process of hydration of OPC, to complete all chemical reaction, the water requirement (expressed as the percentage of cement) is _____.

**Options:**

1) 5 to 8%

2) 8 to 16%

3) 20 to 25%

4) 35 to 45%

**Answer:** 20 to 25%

**Q9:** The slump test is performed to check the _____.

**Options:**

1) presence of water in cement

2) ratio of concrete ingredients

3) temperature resistance

4) workability of concrete

**Answer:** workability of concrete

**Q10:** The reason behind the low expansion and shrinkage of the plywood is _____.

**Options:**

1) plies are placed at the right angles with each other

2) they are glued under the high pressure

3) they are held in the position with the help of adhesives

4) they are prepared with the help of veneers

**Answer:** plies are placed at the right angles with each other

**Q11:** Which one of the following method is used for the approximate estimation?

**Options:**

1) Both central line and short wall and long wall method

2) Central line method

3) Plinth area method

4) Short wall and long wall method

**Answer:** Plinth area method

**Q12:** Accuracy in the measurement of the thickness of the slab or sectional dimension of column and beam (in centimetre) should be _____.

**Options:**

1) 0.5

2) 1

3) 5

4) 10

**Answer:** 0.5

**Q13:** Deduction at T-junction of the wall for total length of the central line is _____.

**Options:**

1) half of thickness of wall

2) no deduction

3) thickness of wall

4) twice of the thickness of wall

**Answer:** half of thickness of wall

**Q14:** For estimation of painted area of semi corrugated asbestos cement sheets, percentage increase in area above plain area is _____.

**Options:**

1) 0.1

2) 0.14

3) 0.2

4) 0.25

**Answer:** 0.1

**Q15:** Scrap value of a property may be _____.

**Options:**

1) both negative or positive

2) constant

3) negative

4) positive

**Answer:** both negative or positive

**Q16:** What is the unit of measuring cornice?

**Options:**

1) Cubic metre

2) Number

3) Running metre

4) Square metre

**Answer:** Running metre

**Q17:** Calculate the number of bricks in 20 cubic metres brick works.

**Options:**

1) 500

2) 1000

3) 10000

4) 100000

**Answer:** 10000

**Q18:** Calculate the area (square metre) of the formwork required for a beam of 2 m span and cross section dimension of 400 mm x 200 mm.

**Options:**

1) 0.8

2) 0.16

3) 1.2

4) 2

**Answer:** 2

**Q19:** The cross section areas of three sections of an embankment at an interval of 40 m are 10 square metres, 15 square metres and 35 square metres. Calculate the quantity of earthwork for the embankment. Use prismoidal method.

**Options:**

1) 1200

2) 1400

3) 1500

4) 2400

**Answer:** 1400

**Q20:** Calculate the annual depreciation (Rs.) of a machine having initial cost of Rs. 10,000. The scrap value is Rs. 1,000 and useful life of 30 years.

**Options:**

1) 300

2) 367

3) 1333

4) 333333

**Answer:** 300

**Q21:** What is the difference between the sum of interior angles of plane triangle and spherical triangle for area of triangle 195 square kilometre on the Earth’s surface?

**Options:**

1) one degree

2) one minute

3) one second

4) one radian

**Answer: **one second

**Q22:** Which one of the following is the largest scale?

**Options:**

1) 1 :500

2) 1 :1000

3) 1 :2500

4) 1 :50000

**Answer:** 1 :500

**Q23:** The quadrantal bearing of the line lies in the third quadrant making angle in clockwise with the north is ______.

**Options:**

1) N(θ – 180)^{o}E

2) N(θ – 180)^{o}W

3) S(θ – 180)^{o}E

4) S(θ – 180)^{o}W

**Answer: **S(θ – 180)^{o}W

** **

**Q24:** Calculate the volume of the embankment (in cubic metre) using trapezoidal method, if the cross section areas of the three sections of an embankment at an interval of 30 m are 20 square metres, 40 square metres and 50 square metres.

**Options:**

1) 1100

2) 1150

3) 2250

4) 2350

**Answer:** 2250

**Q25:** Which one is the CORRECT order of the tapes based on their accuracy?

**Options:**

1) Linen tape > invar tape > metallic tape > steel tape

2) Invar tape > steel tape > metallic tape > linen tape

3) Metallic tape > steel tape > linen tape > invar tape

4) Metallic tape > steel tape > Invar tape > linen tape

**Answer:** Invar tape > steel tape > metallic tape > linen tape

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers**

**Q26:** In the leveling between two points A and B on the opposite sides of a pond, the level is first set up near the point A and staff reading on A and B are 2.5 m and 2.0 m respectively. Then the level is moved and set near the point B, staff reading on points A and B are 1.2 m and 1.7 m respectively. Calculate the difference of heights between the two points A and B (in metre).

**Options:**

1) 0

2) 0.5

3) 1

4) 1.85

**Answer:** 0

**Q27:** Calculate the combined correction for curvature and refraction (in m) for a distance of 2 km.

**Options:**

1) 0.045

2) 0.135

3) 0.269

4) 3.14

**Answer:** 0.269

**Q28:** In transit theodolite, the line of the sight can be reversed by revolving the telescope through _____.

**Options:**

1) 90° in horizontal plane

2) 90° in vertical plane

3) 180° in horizontal plane

4) 180° in vertical plane

**Answer: **180° in vertical plane

**Q29:** Which one is the CORRECT sequence for the temporary adjustment of the theodolite?

**Options:**

1) Centering, elimination of parallax, leveling, and setting

2) Centering, setting, elimination of parallax and leveling

3) Setting, centering, leveling and elimination of parallax

4) Setting, leveling, elimination of parallax and centering

**Answer:** Setting, centering, leveling and elimination of parallax

**Q30:** Which of the following is used for determining the location of station occupied by the plane table?

**Options:**

1) Both intersection and radiation

2) Intersection method

3) Radiation method

4) Two point problem

**Answer:** Two point problem

**Q31:**– Which of the following is responsible for the formation of residual soil?

**Options:**

1) Glaciers

2) Water

3) Wind

4) None of these

**Answer:** None of these

**Q32:** The coefficient of gradation and the coefficient of uniformity of a given soil sample is 1.0 and 4.0 respectively. The ratio of effective size to the diameter through which 30% of the total mass is passed is ______.

**Options:**

1) 1.25

2) 1.5

3) 1.75

4) 2

**Answer:** 2

**Q33:** Which of the following shows the CORRECT order of increasing surface areas of the given soil?

**Options:**

1) Clay < silt < sand < colloids

2) Gravel < silt < colloids < clay

3) Sand < silt < clay < colloids

4) Silt < gravel < colloids < clay

**Answer:** Sand < silt < clay < colloids

**Q34: **What is the assumption made about back of wall, in the Rankine’s theory of earth pressure?

**Options:**

1) Plane and rough

2) Plane and smooth

3) Vertical and rough

4) Vertical and smooth

**Answer:** Vertical and smooth

**Q35:** Which of the following is CORRECT about the viscosity of gas?

**Options:**

1) Inversely proportional to the temperature

2) Increases with an increase in the temperature

3) Independent of pressure

4) Independent of temperature

**Answer: **Increases with an increase in the temperature

**Q36:** Pressure of 200 kPa is equivalent to the head of z metre of liquid having relative density 1.59. The value of z (m) is _____.

**Options:**

1) 11.6

2) 11.82

3) 12.82

4) 13.14

**Answer:** 12.82

**Q37:** Which one of the following statement is CORRECT about the center of buoyancy?

**Options:**

1) It is the point where buoyant force act.

2) It coincides with the centroid of volume of water displaced

3) It is the point where buoyant force act. and It coincides with the centroid of volume of water displaced

4) It acts outside the body.

**Answer: **It is the point where buoyant force act. and It coincides with the centroid of volume of water displaced

**Q38:** A longitudinal rectangular surface is hanged into the water such that its top and bottom points are at depth of 1.5 m and 6.0 m respectively. The depth of center of pressure (m) from the top surface is _____.

**Options:**

1) 3.8

2) 4.2

3) 4.6

4) 4.8

**Answer: **4.2

**Q39:** The velocity potential which follow the equation of continuity is _____.

**Options:**

1) x^{2}y

2) x^{2} – y^{2}

3) cos x

4) x^{2} + y^{2}

**Answer: **x^{2} – y^{2}

**Q40:** At what distance from the boundary layer, the value of the wall shear is three times of the turbulent shear?

**Options:**

1) 1/3 R

2) 1/2 R

3) 2/3 R

4) 3/4 R

**Answer:** 2/3 R

**Q41:** Which of the following statement is CORRECT about the stream lines and equipotential lines?

**Options:**

1) Both can be drawn graphically for viscous flow around any boundary.

2) Meshes formed by them are always squares.

3) They always meet orthogonally.

4) They can be calculated for all boundary conditions.

**Answer:** They always meet orthogonally.

**Q42:** The Rankine half oval body MM is subjected to the two-dimensional flow having velocity V. The typical stream line is shown in the following diagram. The point A in diagram shows________.

**Options:**

1) point at which velocity is maximum

2) separation point

3) stagnation point

4) stall point

**Answer:** stagnation point

**Q43:**Which of the following is CORRECT ratio for Froude number?

**Options:**

1) Compressive force to inertia force.

2) Inertia force to gravity force.

3) Inertia force to tension force.

4) Viscous force to inertia force.

**Answer:** Inertia force to gravity force.

**Q44:** For the most economical triangular channel section, the angle of sloping sides from the vertical is _____.

**Options:**

1) 30^{o}

2) 45^{o}

3) 60^{o}

4) 75^{o}

**Answer: ** 45^{o}

**Q45:** Method of applying water directly to the root zone of the plant is called _____.

**Options:**

1) check flooding

2) drip method

3) furrow method

4) sprinkler irrigation

**Answer:** drip method

**Q46:** A field of 500 hectares is to be irrigated for a particular crop having 100 days base period. The total depth of water required by the crop is 100 cm. Calculate the duty of the water (in hectares per cubic metre).

**Options:**

1) 8.64

2) 57.87

3) 86.4

4) 864

**Answer:** 864

**Q47:** The traffic volume of a roadway is defined as the multiplication of _____.

**Options:**

1) speed and time headway

2) speed and distance way

3) traffic density and speed

4) time head way and distance headway

**Answer:** traffic density and speed

**Q48:** Calculate the equivalent radius (cm) of the resisting section of 20 cm slab, if the ratio of radius of wheel load distribution to the thickness of the slab is 2.

**Options:**

1) 20

2) 35.6

3) 40

4) 40.9

**Answer:** 40

**Q49:** On peak hourly demand, what is the maximum daily consumption for the city which have average daily consumption of 100,000 m3 ?

**Options:**

1) 140000

2) 170000

3) 200000

4) 270000

**Answer:** 270000

**Q50:** For which of the following, distribution mains is designed?

**Options:**

1) Average daily demand

2) Annual peak demand

3) Monthly peak demand

4) Maximum hourly demand on maximum day

**Answer:** Maximum hourly demand on maximum day

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers **

**Q51:** Which of the following statements is true?

**A.**Most of the loads applied to a building are environmental load.

**B.** Most of the loads are dead followed by live loads.

**Options:**

1) Only A

2) Only B

3) Both A and B

4) Neither A nor B

**Answer:** Only B

**Q52:** How does an increase in the pitch of the roof affects the amount of load that can be placed on it?

**Options:**

1) It increases

2) It decreases

3) Remains constant

4) Depends upon case

**Answer:** It decreases

**Q53:** What will be the rain load (in psf) if ds is 2 inches and dh is 1 inches?

**Options:**

1) 5.2

2) 10.4

3) 15.6

4) 20.8

**Answer: **15.6

**Q54:** Concrete is:-

**Options:**

1) Good in compression, good in tension

2) Good in compression, weak in tension

3) Weak in compression, weak in tension

4) Weak in compression, good in tension

**Answer:** Good in compression, weak in tension

**Q55:** If in planar system, X parts/members are there with Y no. of forces, then condition for statically determinacy is:-

**Options:**

1) Y < 3X

Y < 3X

2) Y > 3X

Y > 3X

3) Y= 3X

Y= 3X

4) None of these

**Answer: **Y= 3X

Y=3X

**Q56:** If a system has more equations of equilibrium than no. of forces, then the system is:-

**Options:**

1) Improperly constrained

2) Partially constrained

3) Stable

4) None of these

**Answer:** Partially constrained

**Q57:** Which of the following material is not used in making trusses?

**Options:**

1) Wooden struts

2) Metal bars

3) Channel

4) Concrete

**Answer:** Concrete

**Q58:** In a truss it is assumed that the members are joined by____________.

**Options:**

1) Rough pins

2) Smooth pins

3) Either rough or smooth pins

4) None of these

**Answer:** Smooth pins

**Q59:** What is the major difference between truss and beam?

**Options:**

1) Beam can’t transmit load in vertical direction while truss can

2) Truss can’t transmit load in vertical direction while beam can

3) Beam can’t transmit load in axial direction while truss can

4) Truss can’t transmit load in axial direction while beam can

**Answer:** Truss can’t transmit load in vertical direction while beam can

**Q60:** Given that J is no. of joints. B and R are no. of members and no. of reactions.

If B = 4, R = 3 and J = 4, then the truss is:-

**Options:**

1) Statically determinate

2) Statically indeterminate and stable

3) Stable

4) Unstable

**Answer:** Unstable

**Q61:** Which IS code gives details regarding water to be used in concrete?

**Options:**

1) IS 456

2) IS 383

3) IS 565

4) IS 3012

**Answer:** IS 456

**Q62:** Which of the below is an example of plasticizer?

**Options:**

1) Hydroxylated carboxylic acid

2) Fluoro-silicate

3) Gypsum

4) Surkhi

**Answer:** Hydroxylated carboxylic acid

**Q63:** How many methods of batching of concrete are there?

**Options:**

1) 2

2) 3

3) 5

4) 6

**Answer:** 2

**Q64:** Concrete is generally placed on a:

**Options:**

1) Form work

2) Stand

3) Mould

4) Platform

**Answer:** Form work

**Q65:** The effective width of a column strip of a flat slab is taken as

**Options:**

1) one-fourth the width of the panel

2) half the width of the panel

3) half the diameter of the column

4) the diameter of the column

**Answer:** half the width of the panel

**Q66:** Permanent dimension changes due to loading of concrete is termed as:

**Options:**

1) Strain

2) Extent

3) Creep

4) Ambit

**Answer:** Creep

**Q67:** In design of R.C.C. structures, the tensile strength of concrete is taken as:

**Options:**

1) 5N/mm2

2) 2N/mm2

3) 0.3N/mm2

4) None of these

**Answer:** None of these

**Q68:** Flexure strength of concrete is determined as:

**Options:**

1) Modulus of rigidity

2) Modulus of rupture

3) Modulus of plasticity

4) Modulus of elasticity

**Answer:** Modulus of rupture

**Q69:** Properties of concrete can broadly be divided into:

**Options:**

1) 1

2) 4

3) 2

4) 3

**Answer:** 2

**Q70:** Which IS code gives specifications about cement plaster?

**Options:**

1) IS 1500

2) IS 1221

3) IS 1400

4) IS 1661

**Answer:** IS 1661

**Q71:** In a lime-cement plaster, ratio 1:1:6 corresponds to:

**Options:**

1) Lime:cement:sand

2) Cement:Lime:sand

3) Lime:sand:gravel

4) Cement:sand:gravel

**Answer:** Cement:Lime:sand

**Q72:** On which of the following does the correct proportion of ingredients of concrete depend upon?

**Options:**

1) bulking of sand

2) water content

3) absorption and workability

4) All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q73: **If X, Y and Z are fineness moduli of coarse fine and combined aggregates, the percentage (P) of fine aggregates to combined aggregates is

**Options: **

**1)** P = (z-x / z-y) x 100

**2)** P = (x-z / z-y) x 100

**3)** P = (x-z / z+y) x 100

**4)** P = (x+z / z-y) x 100

**Answer:** P = (x-z / z-y) x 100

**Q74:** Which of the following statements is false?

**Options:**

1) Workability of the concrete mix decreases with an increase in the moisture content

2) Concrete for which preliminary tests are conducted, is called controlled concrete

3) Bulking of sand depends upon the fineness of grains

4) All option are correct

**Answer:** All option are correct

**Q75:** Which of the following statements is false?

**Options:**

1) Space between the exterior walls of a warehouse and bag piles should be 30 cm

2) Cement bags should preferably be piled on wooden planks

3) Cement bags should be placed such that bags of one layer does not touch the bags of the adjacent layer

4) None of these

**Answer:** None of these

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers**

**Q76:** Which of the following statements is false?

**Options:**

** 1)** With passage of time, the strength of cement increases

** 2)** With passage of time, the strength of cement decreases

** 3)** After a period of 24 months, the strength of cement reduces to 50%

** 4)** The concrete made with storage deteriorated cement gains strength with time

**Answer:** With passage of time, the strength of cement increases

**Q77: **For a concrete mix 1:3:6 and water cement ratio 0.6 both by weight, what is the quantity of water required per bag?

**Options:**

** 1)** 10 kg

** 2)** 12 kg

** 3)** 14 kg

** 4)** None of these

**Answer:** 14 kg

**Q78:** Transport of concrete by pumps, is done for a distance of

**Options:**

1) 100 m

2) 200 m

3) 300 m

4) 400 m

**Answer:** 400 m

**Q79:** The compression in PSC is done by _________ of high-strength tendons.

**Options:**

1) Compression

2) Tensioning

3) Shearing

4) Bending

**Answer:** Tensioning

**Q80:** In which beam tension capacity of steel is greater than combined compression capacity of steel and concrete?

**Options:**

1) Over-reinforced

2) Under-reinforced

3) Singly reinforced

4) Doubly reinforced

**Answer:** Over-reinforced

**Q81:** A simply support beam carries a varying load from zero at one end and w at the other end. If the length of the beam is a, the maximum bending moment will be

**Options:**

**1)** wa / 27

**2)** wa^{2} / 27

**3)** w^{2}a / √27

**4)** wa^{2} / 9√3

**Answer:** w^{2}a / √27

**Q82:** For a circular slab carrying a uniformly distributed load, the ratio of the maximum negative to maximum positive radial moment is

**Options:**

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

**Answer:** 2

**Q83:** If W is total load per unit area on a panel, D is the diameter of the column head, L is the span in two directions, then the sum of the maximum positive bending moment and average of the negative bending moment for the design of the span of a square flat slab, should not be less than

**Options:**

**1)** (WL / 12) (L – 2D/3)^{2}

**2)** (WL / 10) (L + 2D/3)^{2}

**3)** (WL / 10) (L – 2D/3)^{2}

**4)** (WL /12) (L – D/3)^{2}

**Answer:** (WL / 10) (L – 2D/3)^{2}

**Q84:** The breadth of a ribbed slab containing two bars must be between

**Options:**

** 1)** 6 cm to 7.5 cm

** 2)** 8 cm to 10 cm

** 3)** 10 cm to 12 cm

** 4)** None of these

**Answer:** 8 cm to 10 cm

**Q85:** A foundation rests on which of the following?

**Options:**

** 1)** base of the foundation

** 2)** sub grade

** 3)** foundation soil

** 4)** Both Sub grade and foundation soil

**Answer:** Both Sub grade and foundation soil

**Q86:** Which of the following statements is true?

**Options:**

** 1)** To ensure uniform pressure distribution, the thickness of the foundation is kept uniform throughout

** 2)** To ensure uniform pressure distribution, the thickness of the foundation is increased gradually towards the edge

** 3)** To ensure uniform pressure distribution, the thickness of the foundation is decreased gradually towards the edge

** 4)** To ensure uniform pressure distribution, the thickness of the foundation is kept zero at the edge

**Answer:** To ensure uniform pressure distribution, the thickness of the foundation is decreased gradually towards the edge

**Q87:** The weight of a foundation is assumed as which of the following?

**Options:**

** 1)** 5% of wall weight

** 2)** 7% of wall weight

** 3)** 10% of wall weight

** 4)** 12% of wall weight

**Answer:** 10% of wall weight

**Q 88:** If the width of the foundation for two equal columns is restricted, the shape of the footing generally adopted is

**Options:**

** 1)** Square

** 2)** rectangular

** 3)** trapezoidal

** 4)** triangular

**Answer:** rectangular

**Q89:** Maximum shear stress theory for the failure of a material at the elastic limit is known as

**Options:**

** 1)** Guest’s or Trecas’ theory

** 2)** St.Venant’s theory

** 3)** Rankine’s theory

** 4)** Haig’s theory

**Answer:** Guest’s or Trecas’ theory

**Q90: **If permissible compressive stress in concrete is 50 kg/cm^{2}, tensile stress in steel is 1400 kg/cm^{2} and modular ratio is 18, the depth of the beam is

**Q91:** When not specified, the volume of steel in R.C.C. work is taken as:-

**Options:**

** 1)** 1% to 1.6% of R.C.C. volume

** 2)** 2% to 4% of R.C.C. volume

** 3)** 4% to 6% of R.C.C. volume

** 4)** 0.6% to 1% of R.C.C. volume

**Answer:** 0.6% to 1% of R.C.C. volume

**Q92:** The ratio of maximum shear stress to average shear stress of a circular beam is:

**Options:**

** A.** 2/3

** B.** 3/2

** C.** 3/4

** D.** 4/3

**Answer:** 4/3

**Q93:** The property of a material by which it can be beaten or rolled into plates, is called

**Options:**

1) ductility

2) plasticity

3) elasticity

4) None of these

Answer: None of these

**Q94:** What is the limit to Poisson’s ratio?

**Options:**

1) 0.1

2) 0.2

3) 0.3

4) None of these

**Answer:** None of these

**Q95:** Among the following, which is least elastic?

**Options:**

1) Iron

2) Copper

3) Both Copper and Silver

4) Rubber

**Answer:** Rubber

**Q96:** Two bars of different materials are of the same size and are subjected to same tensile forces. If the bars have unit elongations in the ratio of 4 : 7, then the ratio of modulius of elasticity of the two materials is

**A.** 4:7

** B.** 4:10

** C.** 16:49

**Options:**

1) A Only

2) B Only

3) C Only

4) None of these

**Answer:** None of these

**Q97:** If a composite bar of steel and copper is heated, then the copper bar will be under:

**Options:**

1) tension

2) shear

3) torsion

4) None of these

**Answer:** None of these

**Q98:** Pick up the incorrect statement from the following : The torsional resistance of a shaft is directly proportional to

**Options:**

1) modulus of rigidity

2) angle of twist

3) reciprocal of the length of the shaft

4) moment of inertia of the shaft section.

**Answer:** moment of inertia of the shaft section.

**Q99:** Net sectional area of a tension member, is equal to its cross section area_______.

**Options:**

1) plus the area of the rivet holes

2) divided by the area of rivet holes

3) multiplied by the area of the rivet holes

4) minus the area of the rivet holes

**Answer:** minus the area of the rivet holes

**Q100:** When a tension member consists of two channel sections, the allowance for rivet hole is made for two holes from

**Options:**

1) each web

2) each flange

3) each web or one hole from each flange whichever is more

4) each web or one hole from each flange whichever is less

**Answer:** each web or one hole from each flange whichever is less

**SSC Junior Engineer All Previous Papers **

The post SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper 2018 Shift-1 (Civil Engineering) appeared first on NewtonDesk.

]]>The post RRB Senior Section Engineer Exam 2015 Shift- 3 appeared first on NewtonDesk.

]]>**Exam Duration:** **120**

**Number of Questions: ** **150**

**Total Marks:** **150**

**Correct:** **1 mark**

**Wrong:** **0.33 Negative marks**

#rrbsse

**Q 1:** According to kinetic theory of heat

**Options:**

**1) **Temperature should rise during boiling

**2)** Temperature should fall during freezing

**3)** At low temperature all bodies are in solid state

**4)** At absolute zero there is absolutely no vibration of molecules.

**Answer:** At absolute zero there is absolutely no vibration of molecules.

**Q 2:** In a Carnot engine, When the working substance gives heat to the sink

**Options:**

**1)** The temperature of the sink increases.

**2)** The temperature of the sink remains the same

**3)** The temperature of the source decreases

**4)** The temperature of both the sink and the source decrease

**Answer:** The temperature of the sink remains the same

**Q 3: **Availability function is expressed as:

**Options:**

**1)** a=(u+p_{o}v-T_{o}s)

**2)** a=(u+p_{o}dv+T_{o}s)

**3)** a=(du+p_{o}dv-T_{o}ds)

**4)** a=(u+p_{o}v+T_{o}s)

**Answer:** a=(u+p_{o}v-T_{o}s)

**Q 4:** The outer surface of a long cylinder is maintained at constant temperature. The cylinder does not have any heat source The temperature in the cylinder will

**Options:**

**1) **Increase linearly with radius

**2)** Decrease linearly with radius

**3)** Be independent of radius

**4)** vary logarithmically, with radius

**Answer:** vary logarithmically, with radius

**Q 5:** What is the ratio of thermal conductivity to electrical conductivity equal to ?

**Options:**

**1) **Prandtl number

**2)** Schmidt number

**3)** Lorenz Number

**4)** Lewis number

**Answer: **Lorenz Number

**Q 6:** Which is the most efficient of the following insulating materials ?

**Options:**

**1)** Corkboard

**2)** Glass fibre sheet

**3)** Mineral fibre sheet

**4)** Foamed urethane sheet

**Answer:** Foamed urethane sheet

**Q 7:** The compression ratio generally used in diesel engines is..

**Options:**

**1)** 7:1

**2)** 16:1

**3)** 30:1

**4)** 45:1

**Answer:** 16:1

**Q 8:** For each crankshaft revolution, the cam shaft revolves

**Options:**

**1)** One-half turn

**2)** Two turns

**3)** Four turns

**4)** As many turns as the number of valves in the engine

**Answer:** One-half turn

**Q 9:** In a variable speed SI engine, the maximum torque occurs at the maximum

**Options:**

**1)** Volumetric efficiency

**2)** Brake power

**3)** Indicated power

**4)** Speed

**Answer:** Volumetric efficiency

**Q 10:** What is the material of connecting rod?

**Options:**

**1)** Mild steel

**2)** Forged steel

**3)** Tool steel

**4) **Cast iron

**Answer:** Forged steel

**Q 11:** One of the important advantages of metal patterns over wooden patterns is that

**Options:**

**1)** It is readily available

**2)** It is easy to make

**3)** It is useful in machine moulding

**4)** It is less costly

**Answer:** It is useful in machine moulding

**Q 12:** In milling operations

**Options:**

**1)** The work is fed against a reciprocating tool

**2)** The work is fed against a rotating multipoint cutter

**3)** The tool is fed against a rotating work

**4)** The tool is fed against a reciprocating work

**Answer:** The work is fed against a rotating multipoint cutter

**Q 13:** The cold chisels are made by

**Options:**

**1)** Drawing

**2)** Rolling

**3)** Piercing

**4)** Forging

**Answer:** Forging

**Q 14:** Weaving in arc welding refers to…………

**Options:**

**1)** Side to side motion of electrode at right angles to the direction of the welding

**2)** Side to side motion of the electrode along the direction of the welding

**3)** Spiral motion given to electrode

**4)** A technique of striking the arc

**Answer:** Side to side motion of electrode at right angles to the direction of the welding

**Q 15:** A certain appliance uses 350W. If it is allowed to run continuously for 24 days, how many kilowatt-hours of energy does it consume ?

**Options:**

**1)** 20.16 kWh

**2)** 201.6 kWh

**3)** 2.01 kWh

**4)** 8.4 kWh

**Answer:** 201.6 kWh

**Q 16:** A given power supply is capable of providing 6A for 3.5h. Its ampere-hour rating is____

**Options:**

**1)** 0.58 Ah

**2)** 2.1 Ah

**3)** 21 Ah

**4)** 58 Ah

**Answer:** 21 Ah

**Q 17:** If you used 400 W of power for 30 h, you have used_____

**Options:**

**1)** 1.3 kWh

**2)** 13.3 kWh

**3)** 1.2 kWh

**4)** 12 kWh

**Answer:** 12 kWh

**Q 18:** Best protection is provided by HRC fuses in case of______

**Options:**

**1)** Open circuits

**2)** Short circuits

**3)** Overload

**4)** Parallel circuit

**Answer:** Short circuits

**Q 19:** A relay used for protection of motors against overload is

**Options:**

**1)** Impedance relay

**2)** Electromagnetic attraction type

**3)** Thermal relay

**4)** Buchholz’s relay

**Answer:** Thermal relay

**Q 20:** The acting contacts for a circuit breakers are made of______

**Options:**

**1)** Stainless steel

**2)** Hard pressed carbon

**3)** Porcelain

**4)** Copper tungsten alloy

**Answer:** Copper tungsten alloy

**Q 21:** Fuse wire, protection, system is usually not used beyond______

**Options:**

**1)** 10 A

**2)** 25 A

**3)** 50 A

**4)** 100 A

**Answer:** 100 A

**Q 22: **A fuse wire should have_____

**Options:**

**1)** Low specific resistance and high melting point

**2)** Low specific resistance and low melting point

**3)** High specific resistance and high melting point

**4)** High specific resistance and low melting point

**Answer:** High specific resistance and low melting point

**Q 23:** Out of the following which one is not a unconventional source of energy ?

**Options:**

**1)** Tidal power

**2)** Geothermal energy

**3)** Nuclear energy

**4)** Wind power

**Answer:** Nuclear energy

**Q 24:** Which of the following 3-phase connection of a transformer causes interference with the neighboring communication lines:

**Options:**

**1)** Delta-star

**2)** Star-delta

**3)** Star-star

**4)** Delta-delta

**Answer:** Star-star

**Q 25: **To increase the voltage output, several cells are connected in:

**Options:**

**1)** Parallel

**2)** Series-parallel

**3)** Resonance

**4)** Series

**Answer:** Series

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**Q 26:** What does the fourth color band on a resistor mean ?

**Options:**

**1)** The value of the resistor in ohms

**2)** The power rating in watts

**3)** The resistance material

**4)** The resistance tolerance in percent

**Answer:** The resistance tolerance in percent

**Q 27:** A current of one quarter ampere may be written as:

**Options:**

**1)** 0.5 amperes

**2)** 0.25 milliampere

**3)** 250 microampere

**4)** 250 milliamperes

**Answer:** 250 milliamperes

**Q 28:** Why do resistors sometimes get hot when in use ?

**Options:**

**1)** Their reactance makes them heat up

**2)** Hotter circuit components near by heat them up

**3)** Some electrical energy passing through them is lost as heat

**4)** They absorb magnetic energy which makes them hot

**Answer:** Some electrical energy passing through them is lost as heat

**Q 29:** The reciprocal of resistance is:

**Options:**

**1)** Conductance

**2)** Reactance

**3)** Reluctance

**4)** Permeability

**Answer:** Conductance

**Q 30:** What term means the number of times per Second that an alternating current flows back and forth?

**Options:**

**1)** Speed

**2)** Pulse rate

**3)** Frequency

**4)** Inductance

**Answer:** Frequency

**Q 31:** A signal is composed of a fundamental frequency of 2 kHz and another of 4 kHz. This 4kHz signal is referred to as:

**Options:**

**1)** A fundamental of the 2 kHz signal

**2)** The DC component of the main signal

**3) **A dielectric signal of the main signal

**4)** A harmonic of the 2 kHz signal

**Answer:** A harmonic of the 2 kHz signal

**Q 32:** In measuring volts and amperes, the connections should be made with:

**Options:**

**1)** The voltmeter in series and ammeter in parallel

**2)** The voltmeter in parallel and ammeter in series

**3)** Both voltmeter and ammeter in series

**4)** Both voltmeter and ammeter in parallel

**Answer:** The voltmeter in parallel and ammeter in series

**Q 33:** A resistor in a circuit becomes very hot and starts to burn. This is because the resistor is dissipating too much:

**Options:**

**1)** voltage

**2)** Resistance

**3)** Current

**4)** Power

**Answer:** Power

**Q 34:** In a parallel circuit with a voltage source and several branch resistors, how is the total current related to the current in the branch resistors ?

**Options:**

**1)** It equals the sum of the branch current through each resistor

**2)** It equals the average of the branch current through each resistor

**3)** It decreases as more parallel resistors are added to the circuit

**4)** It is the sum of each resistor’s voltage drop multiplied by the total number of resistors

**Answer:** It equals the sum of the branch current through each resistor

**Q 35:** Regarding the idealization of support to a structural system, which of the following is false

**Options:**

**1)** Roller supports are free to rotate and translate along the surface upon which the roller rests.

**2)** A pinned support can resist both vertical and horizontal force but not a moment

**3)** Fixed supports can resist vertical and horizontal forces as well as a moment.

**4)** Rigid supports can resist translation, but not the moments

**Answer:** Rigid supports can resist translation, but not the moments

**Q 36:** A condition of timber during seasoning in which the different layers of wood are under stress by being under compression across the grain (usually due to rapid surface drying in the kiln).

**Options:**

**1)** Case hardening

**2)** Air seasoning

**3)** Air drying

**4)** Strain softening

**Answer:** Case hardening

**Q 37:** The load at which an element, a member or a structure as a whole, either collapses in service or buckles in a load test and develops excessive lateral (out of plane) deformation or instability is called as______

**Options:**

**1)** Buckling load

**2)** Yielding load

**3)** Eccentric load

**4)** Failure load

**Answer:** Buckling load

**Q 38:** According to IS 456, the modulus of elasticity of steel can be assumed as____

**Options:**

**1)** 200 kN/mm^{2}

**2)** 225 kN/mm^{2}

**3) **250 kN/mm^{2}

**4)** 300 kN/mm^{2}

**Answer:** 200 kN/mm^{2}

**Q 39:** The recommended slump for pumped concrete is______

**Options:**

**1) **1-2 inches

**2)** 2-4 inches

**3)** 3-4 inches

**4)** 4-6 inches

**Answer:** 4-6 inches

**Q 40: **The point at which both foresight and sight are taken during the course of leveling is called as______

**Options:**

**1)** Intermediate

**2)** Benchmark

**3)** Station

**4)** Change point

**Answer:** Change point

**Q 41: **Which of the following is not true for the direct and indirect methods of contouring ?

**Options:**

**1)** Direct method is most accurate but is slow

**2)** Indirect method is less accurate but is faster

**3)** Direct method is expensive

**4)** Indirect method is relatively more expensive

**Answer:** Indirect method is relatively more expensive

**Q 42:** According to IS 1200, the metal sheet roofing shall be described in terms of_____

**Options:**

**1)** Meter

**2)** Cubic meter

**3)** Square meter

**4)** Thickness

**Answer:** Thickness

**Q 43:** The property of a soil which allows it to be deformed rapidly, without rupture, without elastic rebound and without volume changes is called as____

**Options:**

**1)** Yielding

**2)** Strain softening

**3)** Strain hardening

**4)** Plasticity

**Answer:** Plasticity

**Q 44:** If the water table is likely to permanently remain at or below a depth of sum of the depth and width of the foundation beneath the ground level supporting the footing, then the water table correction used in the Bearing capacity equation is______

**Options:**

**1)** 1

**2)** 0

**3)** 0.5

**4)** 0.75

**Answer:** 1

**Q 45:** If a substance resists shear stress by elastic deformation, then the substance is____

**Options:**

**1)** Fluid

**2)** Liquid

**3)** Solid

**4)** Gas

**Answer:** Solid

**Q 46:** The piezometric head in a stationary and static liquid

**Options:**

**1)** Remains constant only on the horizontal plane

**2)** Increases non-linearly with depth below the surface

**3)** Increases linearly with depth below the surface

**4)** Remains constant at all the points in the fluid

**Answer:** Remains constant at all the points in the fluid

**Q 47:** Most common form of A.C. meters met with in every day domestic and industrial Installations are

**Options:**

**1)** Mercury motor meters

**2)** Commutator motor meters

**3)** Induction type single phase energy meters

**4)** Either mercury motor meters or commutator motor meters

**Answer:** Induction type single phase energy meters

**Q 48: **Which of the following meters are not used on D.C. circuit Mercury motor meters

**Options:**

**1)** Commutator motor meters

**2)** Mercury motor meters

**3)** Induction meters

**4)** Integrating and recording meters

**Answer:** Induction meters

**Q 49:** The pointer of an indicating instrument should be

**Options:**

**1)** Very light

**2)** Very weighty

**3)** light

**4)** Weighty

**Answer:** Very light

**Q 50:** In a portable instrument, the controlling torque is provided by

**Options:**

**1)** Spring

**2)** Gravity

**3)** Eddy currents

**4)** Damping friction

**Answer:** Spring

**RRB Senior Section Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)**

**Q 51:** The multiplier and the meter coil in a voltmeter are in

**Options:**

**1)** Series

**2)** Parallel

**3)** Series-parallel

**4)** Bi-junction mode

**Answer:** Series

**Q 52:** In troposphere gaseous mixture containing oxygen, nitrogen and carbon dioxide cycle in nature through

**Options:**

**1)** Biogeochemical cycle

**2)** Physico-chemical cycle

**3)** Bio-decomposition

**4)** Biological cycle

**Answer:** Biogeochemical cycle

**Q 53:** The major portion of the alkalinity in natural water is caused by

**Options:**

**1)** Hydroxyl, carbonate and sulphate ions

**2)** Hydroxyl, carbonate and bicarbonate ions

**3)** Hydroxyl, carbonate and ammonium ions

**4)** Hydroxyl, carbonate and phosphate ions

**Answer:** Hydroxyl, carbonate and bicarbonate ions

**Q 54: ** The total coliform bacteria are reported as most probable number (MPN) per

**Options:**

**1)** 10 ml of water

**2)** 1000 ml of water

**3)** 100 ml of water

**4)** 1 ml of water

**Answer:** 100 ml of water

**Q 55:** The anthropogenic sources of air pollution in well planned city is

**Options:**

**1)** Construction activities, road traffic, rail traffic, fugitive emissions

**2)** Construction activities, road traffic, domestic burning

**3)** Construction activities, road traffic, bursting of crackers, dust storms

**4)** Construction activities, road traffic, domestic burning, industrial emissions

**Answer:** Construction activities, road traffic, domestic burning

**Q 56:** When the measured and standard reference pressure level becomes equal, the sound pressure level (SPL) is equivalent to

**Options:**

**1)** 1 dBA

**2)** 10 dBA

**3)** 0 dBA

**4)** 1.012 dBA

**Answer:** 0 dBA

**Q 57:** The major green house gases contributing in global warming are

**Options:**

**1)** Carbon dioxide, Nitrous oxide, methane and water vapours

**2)** Carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide, water vapours and chlorofluorocarbons

**3)** Carbon monoxide, nitrous oxide, methane and hydro-chlorofluorocarbons

**4)** Carbon dioxide, nitrogen dioxide, water vapours, methane and ozone

**Answer:** Carbon dioxide, Nitrous oxide, methane and water vapours

**Q 58:** Program counter (PC) register stores he

**Options:**

**1)** Address of the first memory block

**2)** Address of the last memory block

**3)** Address of the next instruction to be executed

**4)** Size of the primary memory

**Answer:** Address of the next instruction to be executed

**Q 59:** Number of bits needed to code 64 operations is

**Options:**

**1)** 4

**2)** 6

**3)** 8

**4) **16

**Answer:** 6

**Q 60:** BIOS, which is a part of operating systems of PCs, is stored in

**Options:**

**1)** RAM

**2)** Hard Disk

**3)** Cache memory

**4)** ROM

**Answer:** ROM

**Q 61:** For a memory of size 64k words with each word storing 8 bits, the size of memory Data Register (MDR) is

**Options:**

**1)** 8 bits

**2)** 16 bits

**3)** 32 bits

**4)** 64 bits

**Answer:** 8 bits

**Q 62:** Which of the following doesn’t support WYSIWYG (what you see is what you get) display facility for documents ?

**Options:**

**1)** Ms-word

**2)** Latex Editor

**3) **NotePad

**4)** WordPad

**Answer:** Latex Editor

**Q 63:** Logic programming language is also known as

**Options:**

**1)** Procedural language

**2)** Low-level language

**3)** Imperative language

**4)** Non-procedural language

**Answer:** Non-procedural language

**Q 64:** Unicode uses_________bits to code a large number of characters, including various special characters.

**Options:**

**1) **8

**2)** 16

**3) **24

**4)** 32

**Answer:** 16

**Q 65:** In Boolean Algebra, AB+ AB’ is equivalent to

**Options:**

**1)** 0

**2)** 1

**3)** A

**4)** B

**Answer:** A

**Q 66:** In decimal-dotted notation of an IP address, the maximum value of each component can be

**Options:**

**1)** 255

**2)** 256

**3)** 512

**4)** 1024

**Answer:** 255

**Q 67:** Uniform Resource Locator (URL) is a(an)___________sheme, which WWW browsers use to locate sites on the internet.

**Options:**

**1)** Addressing

**2)** Paging

**3)** Data management

**4)** Ranking

**Answer:** Addressing

**Q 68:** One end of a lline rest on Vp and the other on Hp. It is inclined to VP and HP at 30^{o} 60^{o} respectively. Its “true length” will be visible in:

**Options:**

**1)** Plan

**2)** Profile

**3)** Elevation

**4)** Its true length will not be visible in any of the orthographic views.

**Answer:** Profile

**Q 69:** The joint shown below represents a:

**Options:**

**1)** Spigot joint

**2)** Cotter joint

**3)** Knuckle joint

**4)** keyed coupling

**Answer:** Cotter joint

**Q 70:** The most commonly used term “R.F.” of a scale is:

**Options:**

**1)** Reprographic factor

**2)** Refractive factor

**3)** Representative fraction

**4)** Reducing fraction

**Answer:** Representative fraction

**Q 71: **The *asymptote* of a *hyperbola* is the one:

**Options:**

**1)** Which passes through its focus and is normal to its axis,

**2)** It joins focus to its vertex

**3)** It joins focus to its centre

**4)** Will be tangent to it at infinity

**Answer:** Will be tangent to it at infinity

**Q 72:** When drawing “isometric view” of an object its horizontal edges are drawn along *iso-axes* which are inclined to horizontal at:

**Options:**

**1)** 30^{o}

**2)** 90^{o}

**3)** 15^{o}

**4)** 75^{o}

**Answer:** 30^{o}

**Q 73:** P and Q are two points at same distance from the centre of a short electric dipole on axial line and equatorial line respectively. V_{1} and V_{2} are the resultant electric potential due to the dipole at P and Q. The only correct condition for V_{1} and V_{2} for this situation is

**Options:**

**1)** V_{1} = 2V_{2}

**2)** V_{2} = 2V_{1}

**3)** V_{1} = 0; V_{2} ≠ 0

**4)** V_{2} = 0; V_{1} ≠ 0

**Answer:** V_{2} = 0; V_{1} ≠ 0

**Q 74:** Kirchhoff’s junction rule and loop rule for an electrical network are respectively based on

**Options:**

**1)** Conservation of energy, Conservation of charge

**2)** Conservation of charge, Conservation of momentum

**3)** Conservation of energy, Conservation of momentum

**4)** Conservation of charge, Conservation of energy

**Answer: **Conservation of charge, Conservation of energy

**Q 75:** Which one of the following is the correct statement for a photon of blue and red light of electromagnetic spectrum ?

**Options:**

**1)** Blue light and red light have equal energy and equal momentum.

**2)** Blue light has higher momentum than red light

**3)** Red light has higher momentum than blue light

**4)** Red light has higher energy than blue light

**Answer:** Blue light has higher momentum than red light

**RRB Senior Section Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)**

**Q 76:** A double convex lens of focal length f is cut into exactly similar parts in two different ways, once along the vertical line and second time along the horizontal line. The focal length of each part cutting in two cases respectively will be

**Options:**

**1)** f/2 ; f/2

**2)** f/2 ; f

**3) **2f ; f/2

**4)** 2f ; f

**Answer: **2f ; f

**Q 77:** N_{s} and N_{p} represent the number of turns, E_{s} and E_{p} represent e.m.f and I_{s} and I_{p} represent current for the secondary coil and primary coil of an ideal transformer respectively. The completely correct relation between these quantities is

**Options:**

**1)** N_{s}/N_{p} = E_{s}/E_{p} = I_{s}/I_{p}

**2)** N_{s}/N_{p} = E_{p}/E_{s} = I_{p}/I_{s}

**3)** N_{s}/N_{p} = E_{s}/E_{p} = I_{p}/I_{s}

**4)** N_{s}/N_{p} = E_{p}/E_{s} = I_{s}/I_{p}

**Answer:** N_{s}/N_{p} = E_{s}/E_{p} = I_{p}/I_{s }

**Q 78:** While conducting an experiment on photo – electric effect, the incident radiations of yellow light are replaced with radiations of violet light, keeping the same intensity. This will result in

**Options:**

**1)** Increase in photo electric current without any change in the kinetic energy of emitted electrons

**2)** Decrease in kenetic energy of the emitted electrons without any change in the photo electric current.

**3)** Increase in kinetic energy of the emitted electrons without any change in photoelectric current

**4)** Decrease in photo electric current and increase in kinetic energy of the emitted electrons

**Answer:** Increase in kinetic energy of the emitted electrons without any change in photoelectric current

**Q 79:** The molecules of elements and compounds exist in different structures. The molecule which is linear, is

**Options:**

**1)** NO_{2}

**2)** SO_{2}

**3)** CO_{2}

**4)** CIO_{2}

**Answer:** CO_{2}

**Q 80:** The correct order of first ionization enthalphy of the elements of oxygen family in the periodic table is

**Options:**

**1)** O > S > Se

**2)** S > O > Se

**3)** S > Se > O

**4)** Se > O > S

**Answer:** O > S > Se

**Q 81:** In a volumetric analysis, KMnO_{4} reacts with oxalic acid according to the following equation,

2MnO_{4}^{–} + 5C_{2}O_{4}^{2-} + 16 H^{+} → 2Mn^{2+} + 10CO_{2} + 8H_{2}O

According to the above equation, 20mL of 0.1M KMnO_{4} will be equivalent to

**Options:**

**1)** 120 mL of 0.25M H_{2}C_{2}O_{4}

**2)** 150 mL of 0.10M H_{2}C_{2}O_{4}

**3)** 50 mL of 0.10 M H_{2}C_{2}O_{4}

**4)** 50 mL of 0.2 M H_{2}C_{2}O_{4}

**Answer:** 50 mL of 0.10 M H_{2}C_{2}O_{4}

** **

**Q 82:** Correct formula of the conjugate acid for each of the following Bronsted bases,

HO_{2}^{–}, SO_{4}^{2-}, NH_{2}^{–} and NH_{3} will be respectively,

**Options:**

**1)** H_{3}^{+}O, H_{2}SO_{4} , NH^{–} and NH_{3}

**2)** H_{2}O_{2} , HSO_{4}^{–} , NH_{3} and NH_{4}^{+}

**3)** H_{2}O, HSO_{3}^{–} , NH_{4}^{+} and NH_{2}^{2-}

**4)** H_{3}O^{+}, SO_{3}^{2-} , NH_{3} and NH_{2}^{2-}

**Answer:** H_{2}O_{2} , HSO_{4}^{–} , NH_{3} and NH_{4}^{+ }

**Q 83:** Cr_{2}O_{3} can be converted into Cr by reduction with

**Options:**

**1)** CO

**2)** Carbon

**3)** Hydrogen

**4)** Aluminum

**Answer:** Aluminum

nbsp;

**Q 84:** Consider the following compounds:

CH_{3}CH_{2} ≡ CCH3 CH_{3}CH_{2}CH_{2}CH_{3} CH_{3}CH=CH_{2} CH_{3}C ≡ CH

I II III IV

Which reagent will you use to distinguish compound IV from the rest of compounds ?

**Options:**

**1)** Be_{2}/CCL_{4}

**2)** Ammonia Cal AgNO_{3}

**3)** Cold Alkaline KMnO_{4}

**4)** Br_{2}/Acetic acid

**Answer:** Ammonia Cal AgNO_{3 }

**Q 85:** The largest gland in the body, the liver, is not responsible for one function mentioned below. The liver_____

**Options:**

**1)** Protects the gallbladder

**2)** Removes certain wastes from the body

**3)** Stores glycogen

**4)** Produces bile

**Answer:** Protects the gallbladder

**Q 86:** In plants, which hormones can promote growth of plant parts ?

**Options:**

**1)** Cytokinin

**2)** Only Auxin

**3)** Only gibberellins

**4)** Both auxin and gibberellins

**Answer:** Both auxin and gibberellins

**Q 87:** Which of the following are commonly called warm blooded ?

**Options:**

**1)** Invertebrates and Fish

**2)** Amphibian and Reptiles

**3)** Reptiles and Birds

**4)** Birds and mammals

**Answer:** Birds and mammals

**Q 88:** Global warming does not lead to

**Options:**

**1)** Melting of ice caps

**2)** Ozone hole

**3)** Climate change

**4)** Rising of levels of the sea

**Answer:** Ozone hole

**Q 89:** What is not true about the diaphragm ?

**Options:**

**1)** It is a muscular partition between the thorax and abdomen

**2)** Diaphragm contracts and relaxes to make breathing possible

**3)** It is dome shaped when relaxed

**4)** It is heavily supplied with nerves and blood vessels

**Answer:** It is heavily supplied with nerves and blood vessels

**Q 90:** AIDS is caused by

**Options:**

**1)** Bacteria

**2)** HIV virus

**3)** Zoster virus

**4)** Eating junk food

**Answer:** HIV virus

**Q 91:** Let **x** be the least number which upon being divided by 2,3,4,5,6 leaves in each case a remainder 1, but leaves no remainder when divided by 7, The sum of digits of **x** is

**Options:**

**1)** 3

**2)** 4

**3)** 5

**4)** 7

**Answer:** 4

**Q 92:** Let a = 2^{5} x 3^{6} x 7^{7} , b = 2^{5} x 3^{6} x 7^{8},

C= 2^{5} x 3^{7} x 7^{9} and d = 2^{4} x 3^{7} x 7^{10}

HCF of a, b, c and d is

**Options:**

**1)** 96 x (21)^{6}

**2)** 96 x (21)^{7}

**3)** 112 x (21)^{6}

**4)** 112 x (21)^{7}

**Answer:** 112 x (21)^{6}

**Q 93:** If the price of an article is increased by 12% and the sale is decrease by 10%, then what will be the effect on the revenue ?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.8% increase

**2)** 0.8% decrease

**3)** 8% increase

**4)** 8% decrease

**Answer:** 0.8% increase

**Q 94:** If 3a = 4b, 5b = 6c, 7c = 8d, then a:d is

**Options:**

**1)** 35:32

**2)** 32:35

**3)** 35:64

**4)** 64:35

**Answer:** 64:35

**Q 95:** A company reduces the number of its employees in the ratio 9:8 and increase their wages in the ratio 14:15. The bill of total wages of the employees

**Options:**

**1)** Increases by 5%

**2)** Increase by %

**3) **Decrease by %

**4)** Decrease by 5%

**Answer:** Decrease by %

**Q 96:** A vessel X contains a solution of two liquids A and B in the ratio 5:2 and another vessel Y contains the solution of the liquids A and B in the ratio 8:5. In what ratio should quantities be taken from X and Y so as to form s solution of A and B in the ratio 9:4 ?

**Options:**

**1)** 2:7

**2)** 7:2

**3)** 3:7

**4)** 7:3

**Answer:** 7:2

**Q 97:** 1.5kg of sugar solution has 40% sugar in it. How much sugar (in kg) should be added to make it 50% in the solution ?

**Options:**

**1)** 0.5

**2)** 0.45

**3)** 0.3

**4)** 0.25

**Answer:** 0.3

**Q 98:** A man buys a car at a cash down payment of Rs.1 lakh and another three equal annual installments of Rs. 109760 each. If the rate of Interest is 12% per annum compounded annually, then the present value (in Rs.) Of the car is

**Options:**

**1)** 363625

**2)** 340183

**3)** 333625

**4)** 320183

**Answer:** 363625

**Q 99:** A person borrowed a certain sum of money at 4% simple interest and in 8 years if the interest amounted to Rs. 23120 less than the sum borrowed, than the sum(in Rs.) was

**Options:**

**1)** 36000

**2)** 35500

**3)** 34000

**4)** 34500

**Answer:** 34000

**Q 100:** A dealer bought an article at 40% discount on it original price. If he sold it at a 20% gain on the original price, then his percentage profit is

**Options:**

**1)** 60

**2)** 80

**3)** 100

**4)** 120

**Answer:** 100

**RRB Senior Section Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)**

**Q 101:** A person buys a table listed at certain price and gets successive discounts of 10% and 20%. He spends 10% of the cost price on its transportation. If he finally sells it at Rs. 9108 and gets a profit of 15% then the listed price of the article (in Rs) is

**Options:**

**1)** 11800

**2)** 11500

**3)** 11000

**4)** 10000

**Answer:** 10000

**Q 102:** A motor boat goes 10 km upstream and back again to the starting point in 55 minutes. If the stream is running at the speed of 2 km/hour, the speed in km/hour of the motor boat in still water is

**Options:**

**1)** 18

**2)** 20

**3)** 22

**4)** 24

**Answer:** 22

**Q 103:** A person travels for 3 hours at the speed of 42 km/hour and for hours at the speed of 60 km/hour. Now he finds that she has covered 11/20 of the total distance. At what average speed (km/hour) should she travel to cover the remaining distance in hours ?

**Options:**

**1)** 62

**2)** 72

**3)** 78

**4)** 82

**Answer:** 72

**Q 104:** Two pipes P and Q can fill up a tank with water in 24 hours and 40 hours respectively. Both the pipes are open simultaneously. If the tank is filled up in 16 hours, then the pipe Q must be turned off after

**Options:**

**1)** 13 hours 20 minutes

**2)** 12 hours 10 minutes

**3)** 13 hours 30 minutes

**4)** 12 hours 20 minutes

**Answer: **13 hours 20 minutes

**Q 105:** Four women and five men can finish a piece of work in 5 days whereas 12 men and 11 women can finish the same work in 2 days. The time (in days) taken by 2 men and one women to finish the same work is

**Options:**

**1)** 10

**2)** 12

**3)** 14

**4)** 15

**Answer:** 14

**Q 106: **The average of 100 numbers is 100. If the first number is increase by 1, second by 2, third by 3 and so on, then average of the numbers so obtained exceeds the original average, by

**Options:**

**1)** 25.5

**2)** 50

**3)** 50.5

**4)** 60

**Answer:** 50.5

**Q 107:** A class has 75 students and their average marks in an examination is 40. If the average marks of passed students is 60 and that of failed students is 35, then the percentage of students who passed the examination is

**Options:**

**1)** 15

**2)** 20

**3)** 25

**4)** 30

**Answer:** 20

**Q 108:** The roots of the equation px^{2} – 2 (p+2)x+3p=0, p≠0, differ by 2. Then values of p are

**Options:**

**1) **2, -2/3

**2) **-2, 2/3

**3) **-3, -1

**4) **1,3

**Answer:** 2, -2/3

**Q 109:** If x^{2}-11x+k=0 and x^{2}-14x+2k=0. Where k≠0, have a common root, then the value of k is

**Options:**

**1)** 10

**2)** 12

**3)** 20

**4)** 24

**Answer:** 24

**Q 110:** One of the factors of (p+q) (q+r) (r+p) + pqr is

**Options:**

**1)** p+q-r

**2)** q+r-p

**3)** p-q+r

**4)** pq+qr+rp

**Answer:** pq+qr+rp

**Q 111:** Factorization of (x+1)(x+2(x+3)(x+4)-120 is

**Options:**

**1)** (x-1)(x+6)(x^{2}+5x+16)

**2)** (x+1) (x^{2}+5x+16)

**3)** (x-1)(x-6)(x^{2}+5x+16)

**4)** (x-1)(x+6)(x^{2}-5x+16)

**Answer:** (x-1)(x+6)(x^{2}+5x+16)

**Q 112:** If the sum of first n terms of an arithmetic progression is 3n^{2}+2n, then its 100^{th} term is

**Options:**

**1)** 499

**2)** 599

**3)** 600

**4) **601

**Answer:** 599

**Q 113:** The sum of an infinite geometric series with first term 28 and fourth term 4/49 is

**Options:**

**1) **

**2) **

**3) **

**4) **

**Answer: **

**Q 114:** If cosθ – sinθ = I and tanθ = m sec^{2}θ, then the value of (l^{2}+2m)/2 is

**Options:**

**1)** 1/2

**2)** 1/4

**3)** 2/4

**4)** 1

**Answer:** 1/2

**Q 115:** A person is standing on the ground and flying a kite with a string of length 140 m at an angle of 30^{o}. Another person is standing on the roof of a building 20 m high and is flying a kite at an angle of 45^{o}. If both persons are on opposite sides of both the kites, the length (in m) of the string that the second person must have so that the two kites meets, is

**Options:**

**1)** 70

**2)** 60√2

**3)** 50√2

**4)** 50

**Answer:** 50√2

**Q 116:** To which period would rock engravings with geometrical designs like triangle, circle, square sun and flower belong ?

**Options: **

**1)** Megalithic at the end of Neolithic

**2)** Paleolithic period to Chalcolithic

**3)** End of Iron Age and beginning of Bronze age

**4)** End of Neolithic beginning of Iron Age

**Answer:** End of Neolithic beginning of Iron Age

** **

**Q 117: **Which Gupta ruler does the historian Vincent Smith call ‘The Napoleon of India’ ?

**Options:**

**1)** Samudragupta

**2)** Chandragupta I

**3)** Chandragupta II

**4)** Skanda Gupta

**Answer:** Samudragupta

**Q 118:** In which Movement was the slogan ‘Do or Die’ given and there were mass arrests

**Options:**

**1) **Home rule

**2)** Non Cooperation

**3)** Quit India Movement

**4)** Khilafat

**Answer:** Quit India Movement

**Q 119:** Which one of the given process increases the length of the river ?

**Options:**

**1)** Deepening of the gorge and excess water flows in.

**2) **Headward erosion in a waterfall when the cap rock falls off.

**3)** Hard rocks fall into the channel and the river course changes

**4)** River water gets diverted by another river near the source

**Answer:** Headward erosion in a waterfall when the cap rock falls off.

**Q 120:** When the cyclones develop into storms they take away the energy of the monsoon depression. What is the effect of this on the India ?

**Options:**

**1)** Weak monsoon over west coast

**2)** Sea Surges in the Narmada

**3)** Stormy weather in the Arabian Sea

**4)** Upwelling of sea water and high tide.

**Answer:** Weak monsoon over west coast

**Q 121:** Which of the following is not a positive effect of foreign Direct Investment on the Indian Market ?

**Options:**

**1)** Stimulates economic activity

**2)** Increase in prices

**3)** Cheaper goods for consumers

**4)** Increased employment

**Answer:** Increase in prices

**Q 122:** Why has the government excluded some wealthy groups from availing benefits related their status as backward classes ?

**Options:**

**1)** Increase opportunity to be employed

**2)** Bring more backward groups for benefits

**3)** To ensure that there is equality

**4)** Increase the right of the poorest.

**Answer:** To ensure that there is equality

**Q 123:** Where in the constitution has it been stated that the Judiciary must be separated from the Executive ?

**Options:**

**1)** Directive principles of state policy

**2)** Fundamental Rights

**3)** Preamble of the Constitution

**4)** Schedules

**Answer:** Directive principles of state policy

**Q 124:** What will be the special e-commerce facility offered by the Indian Postal Services ?

**Options:**

**1)** Rural artisans can sell goods online

**2)** Farmers can buy seeds and fertilizers easily

**3)** Health services in rural areas can be provided promptly

**4)** Same day delivery of letters to villages.

**Answer:** Rural artisans can sell goods online

**Q 125:** Why have the solar panels been located over water canals in Gujarat ?

**Options:**

**1)** Increase the temperature of the canal water

**2)** To reduce evaporation and generate electricity

**3)** Reduce the heating of the panels by cool water

**4)** Keeping the panels clean and dry

**Answer:** To reduce evaporation and generate electricity

**RRB Senior Section Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)**

**Q 126:** What are the components of the natural components of development ?

**Options:**

**1) **Institutions, Political structure, rights

**2)** Roads, electricity, banks,

**3)** Savings, Insurance, Salaries.

**4)** Resources, environment, food, health

**Answer:** Resources, environment, food, health

**Q 127:** What is special about the way the Commonwealth Games are inaugurated ?

**Options:**

**1)** The Queen of England sends a baton which travels.

**2)** A fire is lit in London and then in the city of the Games.

**3)** All athletes carry the flags of their country and the British flag.

**4)** The mascot for each game is decided by the Queen of England

**Answer:** The Queen of England sends a baton which travels.

**Q 128:** Who is the caption of the women’s hockey team of India ?

**Options:**

**1)** Mamta Kharab

**2)** Suraj Lata Devi

**3)** Ritu Rani

**4)** Chanchana Devi

**Answer:** Ritu rani

**Q 129:** Which type of collaboration is India getting from Singapore in building smart cities ?

**Options:**

**1)** Expansion of tourism, building fast metros and railways and water purification

**2)** Information Technology management of cities, and efficient sewerage treatment.

**3)** Cleaning the rivers, converting sea water to potable water and expanding facilities of ports.

**4)** Building the broad roads, and increasing the living areas for the urban poor.

**Answer:** Information Technology management of cities, and efficient sewerage treatment.

**Q 130:** Which award was given to ISRO for the Lunar Probe Mission in 2008 ?

**Options:**

**1)** Sir Arthur Clarke Award

**2)** NASA award

**3)** Space Pioneer Award

**4)** IAF World Space Award

**Answer:** Space Pioneer Award

**Q 131:** Which island will now on be the centre for immigration check of luxury cruises to India ?

**Options:**

**1)** Kerala

**2)** Andaman Islands

**3)** Minicoy

**4)** Lakshwadweep Islands

**Answer:** Lakshwadweep Islands

**Q 132:** In which one of the following scales of temperature are both freezing and boiling points of water higher than the others ?

**Options:**

**1)** Reaumur scale

**2)** Kelvin scale

**3)** Fahrenheit scale

**4)** Centigrade scale

**Answer:** Kelvin scale

**Q 133:** The unit of heat is calorie. 1 calorie yields the amount of heat required for raising the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 degree centigrade from

**Options:**

**1)** 14.5 degree centigrade to 15.5 degree centigrade

**2)** 15.5 degree centigrade to 16.5 degree centigrade

**3)** 16.5 degree centigrade to 17.5 degree centigrade

**4)** 17.5 degree centigrade to 18.5 degree centigrade

**Answer:** 14.5 degree centigrade to 15.5 degree centigrade

**Q 134:** Which one of the following types of lenses is used for correcting the defect of focus in th eye called astigmatism ?

**Options:**

**1)** Prismatic Lens

**2)** Concave Lens

**3)** Convex Lens

**4)** Cylindrical lens

**Answer: **Cylindrical lens

**Q 135: **Presence of which salts cause the Temporary hardness of water ?

**Options:**

**1)** Hydrogen Chloride and Sulphides

**2)** Carbonates Calcium and Magnesium

**3)** Sulphur and Silicates of Iron

**4)** Silicates Calcium and Magnesium

**Answer:** Carbonates Calcium and Magnesium

**Q 136:** Salts of which of the following elements are used for providing colour to fireworks ?

**Options:**

**1) **Strontium and Barium

**2)** Chromium and Nickel

**3)** Potassium and Mercury

**4)** Zinc and Sulphur

**Answer:** Strontium and Barium

**Q 137:** On the basis of which of the following compounds in the sweat from Human feet do the trained dogs track people ?

**Options:**

**1)** Sulphuric Acid

**2) **Nitric Acid

**3)** Carboxylic Acid

**4)** Uric Acid

**Answer:** Carboxylic Acid

**Q 138:** What is the result of having more vitamins and minerals than the body needs ?

**Options:**

**1)** Increased weight gain

**2)** Memory loss

**3) **Excessive sweating and lack of appetite

**4)** Liver and Kidney failure

**Answer:** Liver and Kidney failure

**Q 139:** What are genes ?

**Options:**

**1)** Blood group

**2)** D.N.A code

**3)** Cells in bone characteristic

**4)** Types of human characteristic

**Answer:** D.N.A code

**Q 140:** Which part of the cell is called the ‘power house’ of the Cell ?

**Options:**

**1)** Mitochondria

**2)** Plasma membrane

**3)** Ribosome

**4)** Cytoplasm

**Answer:** Mitochondria

**Q 141:** Pointing to a photograph, a boy said, ‘The man in the blue shirt is my father’s brother’s wife’s father’s son’s sister’s husband.’ Said a girl. He is her____

**Options:**

**1)** Father

**2)** Grandfather

**3)** Uncle

**4)** Cousin

**Answer:** Uncle

**Q 142:** ROMAN : MANORRAMON :: CIDER : ?

The letters of the word ROMAN : MANORRAMON are related in certain way. The same relationship holds for the second pair of terms on the right side of the :: sign of which one is missing. Find the missing one from the alternatives.

**Options:**

**1)** RIDESSIRED

**2)** DERCICEDIR

**3)** DERICECDIR

**4)** DERICCEDIR

**Answer:** DERICCEDIR

**Q 143:** What should be the missing term in the following number series ?

61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83,…….97.

**Options:**

**1)** 89

**2)** 87

**3)** 85

**4)** 91

**Answer:** 89

**Q 144:** Which is the next term in the following sequence of letter clusters ?

PLaN, OJbP, NHcR, MFdT, LDeV

**Options:**

**1)** KBgX

**2)** KBfX

**3)** JCfX

**4)** JBfX

**Answer:** KBfX

**Q 145:** Which is the odd number-pair ?

**Options:**

**1)** 14-392

**2)** 13-338

**3)** 15-480

**4)** 16-512

**Answer:** 15-480

**Q 146:** In a code, LIBRARIANS is coded as ILRBRAAISN. In that code, what will be the code for PHOSPHATIC ?

**Options:**

**1)** BMBKXSOBBK

**2)** EMEKXSOBEK

**3)** HPSOHPTACI

**4)** BMBKXSOBEK

**Answer:** HPSOHPTACI

**Q 147: **If, in a certain code language, FIN is written as 138, SAG as 246, ERR as 077 and RIG as 147, in that code language, GINGER will be written as:

**Options:**

**1)** 314704

**2)** 413407

**3)** 314307

**4)** 013447

**Answer:** 013447

**Q 148:** I asked my aunt how old she was. Instead of giving reply, she said ‘When I am n years old, the year will be the square of n x n. ‘What was her age in 2010 ?

**Options:**

**1)** 30

**2)** 31

**3)** 29

**4)** 28

**Answer:** 30

**Q 149:** A shepherd taking rest in the shade of a ree woke up to find that one of his sheep was missing. He set out west looking for the sheep. After walking a short distance, he turned to the left and reached the bank of a river. Turning right there, he walked along the river bank and he noticed that he was walking against the flow of the river. In which direction does the river flow ?

**Options:**

**1)** North to South

**2)** South to North

**3) **East to West

**4)** West to East

**Answer:** West to East

**Q 150:** Choose the number missing in the third cross:

**Options:**

**1)** 0

**2)** 1

**3)** 4

**4)** 3

**Answer:** 4

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]]>The post RRB SSE (Senior Section Engineer) Exam 2015 Shift-2 appeared first on NewtonDesk.

]]>**Exam Duration:** **120**

**Number of Questions: ** **150**

**Total Marks:** **150**

**Correct:** **1 mark**

**Wrong:** **0.33 Negative marks**

#rrbsse

**Q 1: **A large body of infinite heat capacity is known as_____

**Option:**

**1)** Thermal energy reservoir (TER)

**2)** Mechanical energy reservoir (MER)

**3)** Thermometer

**4)** Heat pump

**Answer: **Thermal energy reservoir (TER)

**Q 2:** “Heat always flows from a body at a higher temperature to a body at a lower temperature” is the statement of_____

**Options:**

**1)** First law of Thermodynamics

**2)** Second law of thermodynamics

**3) **Third law of Thermodynamics

**4)** Zeroth law of thermodynamics

**Answer:** Second law of thermodynamics

**Q 3: **The network output for any heat engine is given by

**Options:**

**1)** Q_{L}-Q_{H}

**2)** Q_{L}+Q_{H}

**3)** Q_{H}-Q_{L}

**4)** 2Q_{L}

Where, **Q _{H}**= magnitude of heat transfer between heat engine and source

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span style=”color: #000000; font-size: 10pt;”>

**RRB Senior Section Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)**

**Q 51:** For the measurement of electrical energy, we may use a

**Options:**

**1)** Wattmeter

**2)** kWh meter

**3)** Multimeter

**4)** Voltmeter, ammeter and PF meter

**Answer:** Voltmeter, ammeter and PF meter

**Q 52:** Identify the incorrect statement

**Option:**

**1)** The example of a grassland ecosystem is Grass-grasshopper-frog-snake-hawk

**2)** The example of a pond ecosystem is Phytoplankton-water fleas-small fish-tuna

**3)** The example of an arctic tundra ecosystem is lichens-reindeer-man

**4)** The example of a mangrove ecosystem is Algae-crabs-small carnivorous fish-large carnivorous fish.

**Answer: **The example of a mangrove ecosystem is Algae-crabs-small carnivorous fish-large carnivorous fish.

**Q 53: **The water borne disease, cholera is transmitted by_____

**Options:**

**1)** Entamoeba histolytica

**2)** Salmonella typhae

**3)** Vibrio comma

**4)** Giardia lamblia

**Answer:** Vibrio comma

**Q 54: **The turbidity in surface water is due to presence of_____

**Options:**

**1)** Dissolved organics

**2)** colloidal material

**3)** Dissolved inorganics

**4)** Dissolved colors

**Answer:** Colloidal material

**Q 55:** Nitrous oxide is a_____

**Options:**

**1) **Bad absorber of infrared radiations

**2) **Good reflector of ultraviolet radiations

**3) **Good absorber of ultraviolet radiations

**4)** Good absorber of infrared radiations

**Answer: **Good absorber of infrared radiations

**Q 56:** The prescribed permissible noise level, Leq for residential area at night time is_____

**Options:**

**1)** 45 dBA

**2)** 50 dBA

**3)** 55 dBA

**4)** 40 dBA

**Answer: **45 dBA

**Q 57:** The acid rain is basically caused due to formation of secondary pollutants such as_____

**Options:**

**1)** H_{2}SO_{4}, HCL and H_{2}CO_{3}

**2)** H_{2}SO_{4}, HNO_{3 }and H_{2}CO_{3}

**3)** H_{2}SO_{4}, HCL and HNO_{3}

**4)** H_{2}SO_{4}, and H_{2}CO_{3}

**Answer:** H_{2}SO_{4}, HCL and HNO_{3 }

**Q 58:** Wi-Fi stands for______

**Options:**

**1)** Wireless Fidelity

**2)** Wired Fidelity

**3)** Wireless Field

**4)** Wireless Finite

**Answer:** Wireless Fidelity

**Q 59:** UNIX is a______

**Options:**

**1) **Real time operating system

**2)** Multi-tasking operating system

**3)** Single-user operating system

**4)** Distributed operating system

**Answer: **Multi-tasking operating system

**Q 60: ** Considering 2’s complement representation for negative numbers, -86 will be stored into an 8-bit memory space as

**Options:**

**1) **10101010

**2)** 11000111

**3)** 11101101

**4)** 10111000

**Answer: **10101010

**Q 61: **considering X and Y as binary variables, the equivalent Boolean expression for X(X+Y) is

**Options:**

**1)** X

**2)** Y

**3)** X+Y

**4)** XY

**Answer: **X

**Q 62:** ‘C++’ is a_______

**Options:**

**1)** Low-level programming language

**2) **High-level programming language

**3)** Assembly language

**4)** Machine language

**Answer: **High-level programming language

**Q 63:** Which of the following statements about High-Level language is correct ?

**Options:**

**1)** High-Level language is machine Independent

**2) **High-Level language is machine dependent

**3) **High-Level language is difficult than Assembly language to write programs

**4)** High-Level language programs require Assembler

**Answer: **High-Level language is machine Independent

**Q 64: **World Wide Web (WWW) was invented by______

**Options:**

**1) **Steve Jobs

**2)** Bill Gates

**3)** Tim Berners-Lee

**4)** Alan Turing

**Answer:** Tim Berners-Lee

**Q 65:** Which of the following is not a ‘overwrite’ virus?

**Options:**

**1)** Trj.Reboot

**2) **Meve

**3)** Trivial.88.D

**4)** Way

**Answer: **Meve

**Q 66: **Which of the following is not a valid unit to represent the speed of CPU ?

**Options:**

**1)** MIPS

**2)** Hertz (Hz)

**3)** MFLOPS

**4)** Byte

**Answer:** Byte

**Q 67:** The 2’s compliment of the binary number (00111100)_{2} is

**Options:**

**1)** (11000100)_{2}

**2)** (00110000)_{2}

**3)** (11000011)_{2}

**4)** (11110100)_{2}

**Answer:** (11000100)_{2}

**Q 68:** A map of 12 cm x 10 cm represents an area of 75000 square Meter of a field. The R.F. of the scale is______

**Options:**

**1)** 1/625

**2)** 1/250

**3)** 1/2500

**4) **1/ 6250000

**Answer:** 1/2500

**Q 69: **The curve traced by a point on straight line which rolls without slipping on a circle, is called______

**Options:**

**1)** Hypocycloid

**2)** Involute

**3)** Epicycloids

**4)** Cycloid

**Answer:** Involute

**Q 70:** The point at which line intersects the V.P., if extended, is known as

**Options:**

**1) **Horizontal trace

**2)** Auxiliary trace

**3)** Profile trace

**4)** Vertical trace

**Answer:** Vertical trace

**Q 71:** Projection of an object shown by three views is known as____

**Optional:**

**1)** Perspective

**2) **Oblique

**3)** Orthographic

**4)** Isometric

**Answer:** Orthographic

**Q 72: **In comparison to an isometric projection, the appearance of an isometric view is_____

**Options:**

**1)** More realistic

**2)** More accurate

**3)** Smaller

**4)** Larger

**Answer:** Larger

**Q 73:** Alka is standing in a lift. The force exerted by the floor of the lift on the Alka’s foot is more than the weight of Alka if the lift Is_____

**Options:**

**1) **Moving upward with increasing speed

**2)** Moving downward with increasing speed

**3) **Moving Upward with decreasing speed

**4)** Moving upward with constant speed

**Answer:** Moving upward with increasing speed

**Q 74:** For an orbiting satellite, in agnitude

**Options:**

**1)** The kinetic energy is equal to the potential energy

**2) **The kinetic energy is twice the potential energy

**3)** The kinetic energy is half the potential energy

**4)** The kinetic energy is one-fourth the potential energy

**Answer:** The kinetic energy is half the potential energy

**RRB Senior Section Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)**

**Q 75: **An object of mass m_{1} collides with a stationary object of mass m_{2}. The collsion is elastic.

There is complete transfer of kinetic energy if

**Options:**

**1)** m_{1}=m_{2}

**2)** m_{1}>>m_{2}

**3)** m_{1}<<m_{2}

**4)** the masses stick together.

**Answer: **m_{1}=m_{2}

**Q 76: **Which one of the following represents a standing wave ?

**Options:**

**1)** y(x,t) = 4.7 sin(5x-0.4t)

**2)** y(x,t) = 8.2 sin(2x-t)

**3)** y(x,t) =5.6 cos 0.5(t-x/2.4)

**4) **y(x,t) = 4 cos(3x) sin(11t)

**Answer: **y(x,t) = 4 cos(3x) sin(11t)

**Q 77:** Two identical thin convex lenses of same power P are placed in contact so that their optic axes coincide. The net power of the combination is

**Options:**

**1)** P

**2)** 2P

**3) **P/2

**4) **P/4

**Answer:** 2P

**Q 78:** Which one of following is not a force ?

**Options:**

**1)** Gravity

**2)** Friction

**3)** Electric Force

**4)** Electromotive Force

**Answer: **Electromotive Force

**Q 79:** In an Industrial area, a sample of 10 liters of air was found to contain 5 mL of sulphur dioxide gas. The concentration of sulphur dioxide gas in air in ppm is

**Options:**

**1)** 300

**2)** 400

**3)** 500

**4)** 600

**Answer: **500

**Q 80: ** For reaction 2NO_{2} (g) N_{2}O_{4}(g)+60kj, an increase in temperature will

**Options:**

**1)** Favour the decomposition of N_{2}O_{4}

**2)** Favour the formation of N_{2}O_{4}

**3)** Result in the formation of a different reaction product

**4)** Stop the reaction.

**Answer:** Favour the decomposition of N_{2}O_{4}

**Q 81:** Which one of the following is a correct order of increasing electronegativity of elements ?

**Options:**

**1)** N > P > O > F

**2)** F > O > N > P

**3)** O > P > N > F

**4)** F > N > P > O

**Answer:** F > O > N > P

**Q 82:** The major product formed by treating n-butyl chloride with boiling solution of potassium hydroxide in ethanol is______

**Options:**

**1)** 2-Butene

**2)** n-Butanol

**3) **1-Butene

**4)** Isobutanol

**Answer:** 2-Butene

**Q 83: **Which one of the following aldehydes will not undergo aldol condensation when treated with an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide ?

**Options:**

**1)** C_{6}H_{5}CH_{2}CHO

**2)** CH_{3}CH_{2}CHO

**3)** CH_{3}CHO

**4)** HCHO

**Answer:** HCHO

**Q 84: **Which one of the following electronic configuration represents a transition element in its ground state ?

**Options:**

**1)** 3d^{3} 4s^{2}

**2)** 2p^{6} 3s^{1}

**3)** 2s^{2} 2p^{6}

**4)** 3d^{10} 4s^{2}

**Answer:** 3d^{3} 4s^{2}

**Q 85: **Which one of the following does not belong to the same class as others

**Options:**

**1)** Cat

**2) **Tiger

**3)** Lizard

**4)** Mouse

**Answer:** Lizard

**Q 86:** A broad leaved plant was kept in a room with tube lights on. Will it carry out photosynthesis ?

**Options:**

**1)** No, Because plants photosynthesize only in sunlight

**2)** No, Because plants grow and survive only outdoors

**3)** Yes, Because its leaves were broad and big

**4)** Yes, Because its gets light for photosynthesis from the tube light

**Answer:** Yes, Because its gets light for photosynthesis from the tube light

**Q 87:** Choose the combination of statements which increase fertility of a field and crop yield

**i)**Use seeds of good quality**ii)**Grow leguminous crop between other crops

**iii)** Prepare soil before sowing

**iv)**Water them twenty four hours

**Options:**

**1)** (i) and (ii)

**2)** (i), (ii) and (iii)

**3)** (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

**4)** (ii), (iii) and (iv)

**Answer:** (i), (ii) and (iii)

**Q 88:** Which living beings are made of one cell and contain one DNA molecule. Some of them are useful to humans and some disease causing ?

**Options:**

**1) **Amoebae

**2)** Bacteria

**3)** Fungi

**4)** Plants

**Answer:** Bacteria

**Q 89:** Alimentary canal is______

**Options:**

**1)** Long and tube-like with organs that digest food in animals

**2)** The long tube within plants through which water moves up

**3)** The canal system of sponges

**4)** Tube through which eggs are laid by animals

**Answer:** Long and tube-like with organs that digest food in animals

**Q 90: **Mushrooms are______

**Options:**

**1)** Animals

**2)** Fungi

**3)** Plants

**4) **Protozoa

**Answer:** Fungi

**Q 91: **Let x be the least number which on being divided by 5, 6,8,9,12 leaves in each case a remainder 1 but exactly divisible by 13. The sum of digits of x is______

**Options:**

**1) **8

**2)** 9

**3)** 10

**4)** 12

**Answer: **10

**Q 92: **Let a=2^{55}x3^{23}x7^{78}, b=2^{53}x3^{26}x7^{78}

C=2^{53}x3^{23}x7^{80}, d=2^{53}x3^{24}x7^{79}

HCF of a,b,c and d is_______

**Options:**

**1)** 2^{55}x3^{23}x7^{78}

**2) **2^{53}x3^{23}x7^{78}

**3)** 2^{53}x3^{23}x7^{80}

**4)** 2^{54}x3^{23}x7^{78}

**Answer: **2^{53}x3^{23}x7^{78}

**Q 93: **A person saves 25% of his income. Now his income increase by 20% and his expenditure increase by 10%. His percentage increase in savings is_______

**Options:**

**1)** 30

**2)** 40

**3)** 50

**4)** 60

**Answer:** 50

**Q 94:** If A:B= 2:3, B:C=5:6 and C:D=8:9, then A:D is

**Options:**

**1) **2:9

**2)** 20:81

**3) **20:27

**4) **40:81

**Answer:** 40:81

**Q 95:** At the beginning of a term, the ratio of the number of students in a school under 12 years to those who are 12 years and above was 5.4. At the end of the term, the ratio was 4.5 as 30 students had reached the age of 12 during the term. If no student left or was admitted during the term, the total number of students in the school was______

**Options:**

**1)** 180

**2)** 360

**3)** 270

**4) **540

**Answer:** 270

**Q 96:** Two alloys A and B contain zinc and copper in the ratio 1:2 and 3;2 respectively. If 6 kg of A and 7.5 kg of B are melted to form a third alloy C, then the percentage of copper in C will be closest to________

**Options:**

**1)** 50

**2)** 49.15

**3)** 51.85

**4)** 52

**Answer:** 51.85

**Q 97:** Two identical jars are full of solutions of acid and water. The solution of one jar contains 50% acid whereas solution of other jar contains % water. The contents of three jars are emptied into a third jar and mixed. The ratio of water to acid in the third jar is_____

**Options:**

**1)** 5:7

**2)** 7:5

**3)** 3:2

**4)** 2:3

**Answer:** 5:7

**Q 98:** A computer is available for Rs.22750 cash payment or for Rs.6200 cash down payment and three equal annual installments of Rs.x. If the interest charged is 10% per annum. Compounded annually, the valve of x is_______

**Options:**

**1)** 5517

**2)** 5578

**3)** 6565

**4)** 6655

**Answer:** 6655

**Q 99:** A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs.13800 in 3 years. If rate of interest is increased by 30%, the same sum amounts to Rs.14340 in the same time. The rate of interest per annum is_______

**Options:**

**1)** 3%

**2) **4%

**3) **5%

**4)** 8%

**Answer: **5%

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**Q 100:** A trader bought 864 articles and sold 800 of them for the price he paid for 864 article. He sold the remaining articles at the same price per article as the other 800. The percentage gain on entire transaction is_______

**Options:**

**1) ** %

**2)** 8%

**3)** %

**4)** 9%

**Answer: **8%

**Q 101:** Ankit purchased an article for Rs.600 and sold it at the gain of 30%. From that amount, he purchased another article and sold it at a loss of 30%. In the entire transaction he has a______

**Options:**

**1)** Loss of 9%

**2)** Gain of 9%

**3)** Loss of 6.9%

**4) **Gain of 6.9%

**Answer:** Loss of 9%

**Q 102:** Two places A and B are 220km apart on a highway. Hari starts from A and Juhi from B at the same time on the same day using cars. If they travel in the same direction (A to B), they meet in hours, but in 2 hours 45 minutes when travelling towards each other. Speed of the car of Juhi, in km/hour, is

**Options:**

**1)** 20

**2)** 30

**3)** 50

**4)** 60

**Answer: **20

**Q 103: **A covers a certain distance in a certain time, If B covers half of this distance in the double time, the ratio of speeds of A and B is_____

**Options:**

**1)** 2:1

**2)** 4:1

**3)** 1:2

**4)** 1:4

**Answer:** 4:1

**Q 104:** Two pipes A and B running together can fill a cistern in minutes. Pipe B takes 3 minutes more than A to fillit. The time, in minutes, taken by B alone to fill cistern is______

**Options:**

**1)** 15

**2)** 16

**3)** 18

**4)** 12

**Answer:** 15

**Q 105:** 2men and 7 women complete a work in 14days, while 3 men and 8 women complete the same work in 11 days. In how many days will 8 men and 6 women complete 3 times of this work ?

**Options:**

**1)** 14

**2)** 21

**3)** 24

**4)** 28

**Answer: **21

**Q 106:** In a mathematics test in a class the average score of boys is 33 and that of girls is 42. If the average score of all the students in the class is 38, then what is the percentage of girls in the class ?

**Options:**

**1) **

**2)**

**3) **

**4) **

**Answer: **

**Q 107: **Dewan travels in a car and covers 20% of his journey with 80km/hour, 2/5^{th} part of Journey with 60 km/hour and rest at 40 km/hour. His average speed during the entire journey, in km/hour, is approximately

**Options:**

**1)** 50

**2)** 52

**3)** 60

**4) **62

**Answer: **52

**Q 108:** If α and β are the roots of 2x^{2}+3x-5=0, then the value of (β-1)(α-1)+|α-β| is

**Options:**

**1)** 0

**2)** -3/2

**3)** 5/2

**4)** 7/2

**Answer:** 7/2

**Q 109:** If α and β are the root of the equation , then the value of is______

**Options:**

**1) **-991/1010

**2) **-1

**3)** 1000/991

**4) **1

**Answer:** -1

**Q 110:** (a+b)^{3}+(b+c)^{3}+(c+a)^{3}-3(a-b)(b-c)(c+a) is factored as

**Options:**

**1)** (a+b+c)(a^{2}+b^{2}+c^{2}+ab-bc-ca)

**2)** 2(a+b+c)(a^{2}+b^{2}+c^{2}-ab-bc-ca)

**3)** 3(a+b+c)(a^{2}+b^{2}+c^{2}+ab-bc-ca)

**4)** 3(a+b+c)(a^{2}+b^{2}+c^{2}+ab-bc-ca)

**Answer:** 2(a+b+c)(a^{2}+b^{2}+c^{2}-ab-bc-ca)

**Q 111:** Which one of the following is not a factor of x^{3}+2x^{2}-9x-18 ?

**Options:**

**1)** x-3

**2)** x-2

**3)** x+2

**4)** x+3

**Answer:** x-2

**Q 112:** Let a_{1},a_{2},a_{3},…….be an arithmetic progression.

If = , then

The common difference of the progression is

**Options:**

**1)** 1

**2)** 1/10

**3)** 1/100

**4)** 1/1000

**Answer:** 1/100

**Q 113: **The sum to infinity of the series:

………….is

**Options:**

**1)** 1/4

**2)** 1/6

**3)** 5/12

**4)** 7/12

**Answer:** 5/12

**Q 114:** If 3sinθ+4cosθ=5, then the value of 4sinθ-3cosθ is

**Options:**

**1)** -5

**2)** -2

**3)** 1

**4)** 0

**Answer:** 0

**Q 115:** From the top of a tower 50 m high the angles of depression of the top and bottom of a pole are found to be 45^{o} and 60^{o} respectively. The height of the pole, in metre, is

**Options:**

**1) **50(√3-1)

**2)** 50(√3+1)

**3)** 50(3 – √3)

**4)** 50(√3-1)

**Answer:** 50(3 – √3)

**Q 116:** where is rock art found in Central India ?

**Options:**

**1)** Ujjain

**2)** Chanderi

**3)** Lakhudiyar

**4)** Bhimbetka

**Answer:** Bhimbetka

**Q 117:** What were the advantages that the gupta period had because of which it is considered the Golden age of Ancient India ?

**Options:**

**1)** Many gold mines and access to the coastal trading areas of Eastern India.

**2)** Near Iron ore areas of Central India and South Bihar and the Byzantine trade route

**3)** Fertile agricultural land and growth of revenue from religions towns.

**4)** Increase in population and more artisans who would produce cloth for trade.

**Answer:** Near Iron ore areas of Central India and South Bihar and the Byzantine trade route

**Q 118:** “In the democracy which I have envisaged, a democracy established by non-violence, there will be equal freedom for all. Everybody will be his own master. It is to Join a struggle for such democracy that I invite you today.” Mahatma Gandhi

For starting which movement were the above lines spoken ?

**Options:**

**1)** Quit India

**2)** Home rule

**3)** Non Cooperation Movement

**4) **Khilafat

**Answer:** Quit India

**Q 119:** What will happen to the hard rock when the softer rock below is eroded ?

**Options:**

**1) **Broken Hard rock will form an obstruction the waterfall

**2)** Hard rocks will collapse and the path of the river will deepen

**3)** A plunge pool will be formed by hydraulic action

**4)** Waterfall will slowly give way to the valley of the river.

**Answer:** A plunge pool will be formed by hydraulic action

**Q 120: **Which region of India does the intensity of Arabian sea cyclones affect most ?

**Options:**

**1)** Rann of Kutch

**2)** Gulf of Khambhat

**3)** Indus Delta

**4)** Narmada Estuary

**Answer:** Gulf of Khambhat

**Q 121:** Which aspect would need regulation if there is more Foreign Direct Investment in horticulture ?

**Options:**

**1)** Consumption of water and rights of farmers to water

**2)** Soil conservation, and renewal using natural processes

**3)** Subsidy to farmers, for spending time away from their farms

**4)** Education of farmers on advantages of growing other crops

**Answer:** Consumption of water and rights of farmers to water

**Q 122:** In survey during 2009-2010 reveals that none of the female workers were found engaged as ‘carpenters’, ’blacksmiths’, ’cobblers’, ’masons’ or ‘tractor drivers’ and hence no wage

Rate was reported for these occupations during the year 2009-10

Which aspect of the Constitution could stand violated in this situation.

**Options:**

**1)** Right to Education

**2)** Right to equal wages

**3)** Right to Equality

**4)** Right to work

**Answer:** Right to Equality

**Q 123: **Which one is a fundamental Duty ?

**Option:**

**1)** Settling all border and international disputes peacefully

**2)** Establishing facilities’ for the development of agriculture.

**3)** Setting up cottage industries in rural areas for self employment.

**4)** Safeguarding the sovereignty, integrity and unity of India.

**Answer:** Safeguarding the sovereignty, integrity and unity of India.

**Q 124:** What information does the Gross Domestic product not show ?

**Options:**

**1)** Contribution of Industry towards the national Income

**2)** Expenditure on goods and services by the government

**3)** Income distribution across different sections of the population.

**4)** Purchasing power of the people in a country.

**Answer:** Income distribution across different sections of the population.

**Q 125:** What is the main problem faced in the use of solar panels for the production of power ?

**Options:**

**1)** Not enough sunshine

**2)** Poor storage batteries

**3)** High cost

**4)** Keeping fragile panels safe.

**Answer:** Keeping fragile panels safe.

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**Q 126:** How do e-commerce ventures build up trust of the buyers in their goods ?

**Options:**

**1)** Cash on delivery facility

**2)** Ensure a flexible return policy

**3)** Better advertising

**4)** Prompt delivery

**Answer:** Ensure a flexible return policy

**Q 127:** What was the mascot for the commonwealth Games held in India in 2010 ?

**Options:**

**1)** Bison

**2)** Peacock

**3)** Deer

**4)** Tiger

**Answer:** Tiger

**Q 128:** For the 2016 Olympics, which team defeated the Men’s India Hockey team to secure the place ?

**Options:**

**1)** France

**2)** Germany

**3)** England

**4)** Italy

**Answer:** England

**Q 129:** What is the main consideration of China in reviving the New Silk Route ?

**Options:**

**1)** Being equal to the U.S.A as an economic power.

**2)** Countering the IMF policies.

**3)** Constitution of an Asian Trade bloc.

**4)** Helping neighboring countries develop

**Answer:** Constitution of an Asian Trade bloc.

**Q 130: **Which of the following issues is a Priority for smart cities to address ?

**Options:**

**1)** Removal of old buildings and improvement of areas

**2)** Increase in office space and inclusion of industries.

**3)** Increasing ICT connectivity and use for work.

**4)** Reduction in traffic congestion and clean energy.

**Answer:** Reduction in traffic congestion and clean energy.

**Q 131:** In which city of India is the Agency for Remote sensing located ?

**Options:**

**1)** Sriharikota

**2) **Hyderabad

**3)** Bengaluru

**4)** Thiruvananthapuram

**Answer:** Hyderabad

**Q 132:** What is the minimum distance at which an echo can be heard ?

**Options:**

**1)** 25 metres

**2)** 17 metres

**3) **60 metres

**4) **30 metres

**Answer:** 17 Metres

**Q 133: **The working of a jet engine is based on

**Options:**

**1)** Laws of Air pressure

**2)** Principle of Archimedes

**3)** Theory of Relativity

**4)** Newton’s law of action and reaction

**Answer:** Newton’s law of action and reaction

**Q 134:** What effect does the rotation of the Earth have on the wind system ?

**Options:**

**1)** Winds do not rise above 100 kms near the Equator

**2)** Ocean currents carry the wind in the direction they flow in

**3)** Winds are deflected to the right course in their course in the northern Hemisphere

**4)** Ocean current are faster flowing east ward.

**Answer:** Winds are deflected to the right course in their course in the northern Hemisphere

**Q 135:** What is the major component of Honey ?

**Options:**

**1)** Fructose

**2)** Sucrose

**3)** Maltose

**4)** Glucose

**Answer:** Fructose

**Q 136:** One of the direct effects of the depletion of the ozone layer on human beings is

**Options:**

**1)** More asthmatic cases

**2)** More cases of eye cataracts

**3)** More cases of diabetes.

**4)** More intestinal disorders.

**Answer:** More cases of eye cataracts

**Q 137:** Water pollution in rivers is measured by the dissolved amount of

**Options:**

**1)** Ozone

**2)** Chlorine

**3)** Oxygen

**4)** Nitrogen

**Answer:** Nitrogen

**Q 138:** What is the use of Monocytes in our blood ?

**Options:**

**1)** Increase the red blood cells

**2)** Help to absorb oxygen in the blood

**3)** Destroy the old, damaged cells

**4)** Increase the immune level of the body.

**Answer:** Destroy the old, damaged cells

**Q 139: ** What are the minerals and metals found in banana ?

**Options:**

**1)** Manganese, Iron, Copper

**2)** Copper, Iron, Zinc

**3)** Manganese, Lead, Zinc.

**4)** Iron, Copper, Magnesium.

**Answer: **Manganese, Iron, Copper

**Q 140:** Which mineral helps in absorbing oxygen in the blood ?

**Options:**

**1) **Iron

**2)** Calcium

**3)** Potassium

**4)** Zinc

**Answer:** Iron

**Q 141: **Pointing to a photograph, a lady told sumit, “I am the only daughter of this man and his son is your maternal uncle. “How is the lady related to Sumit’s Father ?

**Options:**

**1)** Sister-in-law

**2)** Sister

**3)** Mother

**4)** Wife

**Answer:** Wife

**Q 142:** Three of the number-pairs in the alternatives have numbers which hold the same relationship as the numbers in the number-pair given below. Find out the number-pair in which the two numbers do not hold the same relationship as the two numbers in the number-pair below.

14:6

**Options:**

**1)** 20:9

**2)** 9:4

**3)** 28:13

**4)** 50:24

**Answer:** 9:4

**Q 143:** ‘Lend’ is related to ‘Borrow’ in the same way as ‘Friendly’ is related to:

**Options:**

**1)** Hatred

**2)** Cooperative

**3)** Hostile

**4)** Indifference

**Answer:** Hostile

**Q 144:** In a group of six people, there are 3 males, 2 housewives, 2 lecturers and 2 lawyers. B is the wife of E, who is a lecturer. C and F are unmarried. A is a male lecturer and C is a female lawyer.

Who is F ?

**Options:**

**1)** Male lawyer

**2)** Female lawyer

**3)** Male lecturer

**4)** Female lecturer

**Answer:** Male Lawyer

**Q 145:** Arrange the following words in a meaningful logical sequence and choose the appropriate number sequence from the alternatives.

**1)** Block **2)** State **3) **Village **4) **Country **5)** Panchayat **6)** District

**Options:**

**1)** 4,2,6,1,3,5

**2)** 3,5,1,6,2,4

**3)** 3,5,1,2,6,4

**4)** 5,1,6,2,4,3

**Answer:** 3,5,1,6,2,4

**Q 146:** One term in the following number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.

444, 220, 108, 52, 22, 10, 3

**Options:**

**1)** 220

**2)** 108

**3)** 52

**4)** 22

**Answer:** 22

**Q 147:** In a certain code, ‘457’ means ‘sweet hot coffee’; ‘265’ means ‘very hot day’ and ‘823’ means ‘day follows night’. Which digit means ‘very’ in that code ?

**Options:**

**1)** 2

**2)** 5

**3)** 6

**4)** 7

**Answer: ** 6

**Q 148:** In certain language, ‘BACKWARD’ is coded as ‘KCABDRAW’, then in that language, ‘MOUNTAIN’ would be coded as:

**Options:**

**1)** NUOMNIAT

**2) **NUOMAINT

**3)** NIATNUOM

**4)** OMNUATNI

**Answer:** NUOMNIAT

**Q 149:** A rat runs 12 ft towards West and turns right and runs 9ft. It turns right again and runs 7 ft, turns left and covers 5 ft, turns left again and covers 3 ft. Finally, It turns right and Covers 2ft. Which direction is the rat facing now ?

**Options:**

**1)** South

**2)** North

**3)** East

**4)** West

**Answer:** North

**Q 150:** The numbers in the following figures follow a pattern. Find the number which will replace the question mark

**Options: **

**1)** 28

**2)** 35

**3)** 32

**4)** 30

**Answer:** 30

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]]>** **

**Q 1 **– For construction of structures under water, the type of lime used is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) hydraulic lime

**2**) fat lime

**3**) quick lime

**4**) pure lime

**Answer:** hydraulic lime

** **

**Q 2 **– The compound of Portland cement which reacts immediately with water and also sets first is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) Tri-calcium silicate

**2**) Di-calcium silicate

**3**) Tri-calcium aluminate

**4**) Tetra calcium alumino ferrite

**Answer:** Tri-calcium aluminate

** **

**Q 3 **– Rapid hardening cement attains early strength due to _____.

**Options:**

**1**) larger proportion of lime grounded finer than normal cement

**2**) lesser proportion of lime grounded coarser than normal cement

**3**) lesser proportion of lime grounded finer than normal cement

**4**) larger proportion of lime grounded coarser than normal cement

**Answer:** larger proportion of lime grounded finer than normal cement

** **

**Q 4 **– The percentage of water for normal consistency is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) 5 % to 15%

**2**) 10% to 25%

**3**) 15% to 25%

**4**) 20% to 30%

**Answer:** 15% to 25%

** **

**Q 5 **– Soundness test of cement determines _____.

**Options:**

**1**) quality of free lime

**2**) ultimate strength

**3**) durability

**4**) initial setting

**Answer:** quality of free lime

** **

**Q 6 **– Bulking of sand is caused due to _____.

**Options:**

**1**) surface moisture

**2**) air voids

**3**) viscosity

**4**) clay contents

**Answer:** surface moisture

** **

**Q 7 **– For a 50 kg cement bag, water required is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) 16.5 liters

**2**) 18.5 liters

**3**) 20.5 liters

**4**) 22.5 liters

**Answer:** 22.5 liters

** **

**Q 8 **– Pick up the correct statement from the following Method of sawing timber _____.

**Options:**

**1**) tangentially to annual rings, is known as tangential method

**2**) in four quarters such that each board cuts annual rings at angles not less than 45°, is known as quarter sawing method

**3**) cut out of quarter logs, parallel to the medullary rays and perpendicular to annual rings is known as radial sawing

**4**) All options are correct

**Answer:** All options are correct

** **

**Q 9 **– For the manufacture of plywood, veneers are placed so that grains of adjacent veneers are _____.

**Options:**

**1**) at right angles

**2**) parallel

**3**) inclined at 45°

**4**) inclined at 60°

**Answer:** at right angles

** **

**Q 10 **– The portion of the brick without a triangular corner equal to half the width and half the length is called _____.

**Options:**

**1**) closer

**2**) queen closer

**3**) king closer

**4**) squint brick

**Answer:** king closer

** **

**Q 11 **– The height of the sink of wash basin above floor level is kept _____.

**Options:**

**1**) 60 cm

**2**) 70 cm

**3**) 75 cm to 80 cm

**4**) 80 cm

**Answer:** 75 cm to 80 cm

** **

**Q 12 **– Pick up the correct statement from the following.

**Options:**

**1**) In order to check up the average depth of excavation, ‘Dead mans’ are left at the mid-widths of borrow pits

**2**) The earthwork calculation in excavation is made from the difference in levels obtained with a level

**3**) The earthwork done in excavation is to form the road embankment includes the formation of correct profiles and depositing the soil in layers

**4**) All options are correct

**Answer:** All options are correct

** **

**Q 13 **– If the formation level of a highway has a uniform gradient for a particular length and the ground is also having a longitudinal slope, the earthwork may be calculated by _____.

**Options:**

**1**) Mid-section formula

**2**) Trapezoidal formula

**3**) Prismoidal formula

**4**) All options are correct

**Answer:** All options are correct

** **

**Q 14 **– The area of a sloping surface of a protective embankment of mean height d, side slopes S:1 and length L is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) d x d x s

**2**) √[(d2 x (ds2)]

**3**) L.D √(1+s2)

**4**) 2Ld √(1+s2)

**Answer:** L.D √(1+s2)

** **

**Q 15 **– A cement concrete road is 1000 m long, 8 m wide and 15 cm thick over the sub-base of 10 cm thick gravel. The cubic content of concrete (1:2:4) for the road specified in is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) 300 m3

**2**) 600 m3

**3**) 900 m3

**4**) 1200 m3

**Answer:** 1200 m3

** **

**Q 16 **– The cross-sectional area of the embankment of a canal fully in embankment, (refer the figure given below) is:-

**Options:**

**1**) 1/2(b1+b2)h

**2**) (b1+b2)h+ Sb2

**3**) (b1+b2)+2Sh2

**4**) 2[(b1+b2)(b+Sh)]

**Answer:** (b1+b2)+2Sh2

** **

**Q 17 **– The following item of earthwork is not measured separately _____.

**Options:**

**1**) Setting out of works

**2**) Site clearance

**3**) dead men

**4**) All options are correct

**Answer:** All options are correct

** **

**Q 18 **– Pick up the incorrect statement from the following _____.

**Options:**

**1**) No deduction is made for the volume occupied by reinforcement

**2**) No deduction is made for the openings up to 0.1 sq.m

**3**) No deduction is made for volumes occupied by pipes, not exceeding 100 sq. cm in cross- section

**4**) None of the these

**Answer:** None of the these

** **

**Q 19 **– While estimating a reinforced cement structure the omitted cover of concrete is assumed _____.

**Options:**

**1**) at the end of reinforcing bar, not less than 25 mm or twice the diameter of the bar

**2**) in thin slabs, 12 mm minimum or diameter of the bar whichever is more

**3**) for reinforcing longitudinal bar in a beam 25 mm minimum or diameter of the largest bar which is more

**4**) All options are correct

**Answer:** All options are correct

** **

**Q 20 **– For 100 sq. m cement concrete (1:2:4) 4 cm thick floor, the quantity of cement required is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) 0.90 m3

**2**) 0.94 m3

**3**) 0.98 m3

**4**) 1.00 m3

**Answer:** 0.94 m3

** **

**Q 21 **– If h is the difference in height between end points of a chain of length l the required slope correction is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) h2/(2l)

**2**) h/(2l)

**3**) h2/l

**4**) h2/(4l)

**Answer:** h2/(2l)

** **

**Q 22 **– Correction per chain length of 100 links along a slope of α radians is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) 100 α2

**2**) 100 α

**3**) 100 α3

**4**) 100 α(-1)

**Answer:** 100 α

** **

**Q 23 **– Check lines (or proof lines) in Chain Surveying are essentially required _____.

**Options:**

**1**) to plot the chain lines

**2**) to plot the offsets

**3**) to indicate the accuracy of the survey work

**4**) to increase the out-turn

**Answer:** to indicate the accuracy of the survey work

** **

**Q 24 **– For taking offsets with an optical square on the right hand side of the chain line it is held _____.

**Options:**

**1**) by right hand upside down

**2**) by left hand upright

**3**) by right hand upright

**4**) by left hand upside down

**Answer:** by left hand upright

** **

**Q 25 **– The conventional sign shown in the figure below represents a.

**Options:**

**1**) road bridge

**2**) railway bridge

**3**) canal bridge

**4**) aquaduct

**Answer:** road bridge

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**Q 26 **– In an adjusted level when the bubble is central, the axis of the bubble tube becomes parallel to _____.

**Options:**

**1**) line of sight

**2**) line of collimation

**3**) axis of the telescope

**4**) None of the these

**Answer:** line of sight

** **

**Q 27 **– An internal focusing type surveying telescope may be focused by the movement of _____.

**Options:**

**1**) objective glass of the telescope

**2**) convex-lens in the telescope

**3**) concave lens in the telescope

**4**) plano-convex lens in the telescope

**Answer:** concave lens in the telescope

** **

**Q 28 **– A dumpy level is set up with its eye-piece vertically over a peg A. The height from the top of peg A to the center of the eye-piece is 1.540 m and the reading on peg B is 0.705 m. The level is then setup over B. The height of the eye-piece above peg B is 1.490 m and a reading on A is 2.195 m. The difference in level between A and B is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) 2.900 m

**2**) 3.030 m

**3**) 0.770 m

**4**) 0.785 m

**Answer:** 0.770 m

** **

**Q 29 **– The constant vertical distance between two adjacent contours is called _____.

**Options:**

**1**) horizontal interval

**2**) horizontal equivalent

**3**) vertical equivalent

**4**) contour interval

**Answer:** contour interval

** **

**Q 30 **– The direction of steepest slope on a contour is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) along the contour

**2**) at an angle of 45° to the contour

**3**) at right angles to the contour

**4**) None of the these

**Answer:** at right angles to the contour

** **

**Q 31 **– Geologic cycle for the formation of soil, is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) Upheaval → transportation → deposition → weathering

**2**) Weathering → upheaval → transportation → deposition

**3**) Transportation → upheaval → weathering → deposition

**4**) weathering → transportation → deposition → upheaval

**Answer:** weathering → transportation → deposition → upheaval

** **

**Q 32 **– Water content of a soil sample is the difference of the weight of the given sample at the given temperature and the weight determined after drying it for 24 hours at temperatures ranging from _____.

**Options:**

**1**) 80° to 90° C

**2**) 90° to 95° C

**3**) 95° to 100° C

**4**) 105° to 110° C

**Answer:** 105° to 110° C

** **

**Q 33 **– Fundamental relationship between dry density (γd), bulk density (γ) and water content (ω) is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) γ = γd/(1+ω)

**2**) γd = γ/(1+ ω)

**3**) ω = γ/(1+γd )

**4**) ω = γ/(1-γd )

**Answer:** γd = γ/(1+ ω)

** **

**Q 34 **– Pick up the correct statement from the following _____.

**Options:**

**1**) The void ratio in soils is defined as the ratio of the volume of voids to the volume of solids

**2**) The porosity of a soil is defined as the ratio of the volume of voids to the gross volume of the soil

**3**) The bulk density of a soil is defined as the unit weight of the soil

**4**) All options are correct

**Answer:** All options are correct

** **

**Q 35 **– Alcohol is used in manometer, because _____.

**Options:**

**1**) its vapor pressure is low

**2**) it provides suitable meniscus for the inclined tube

**3**) its density is less

**4**) it provides longer length for a given pressure difference

**Answer:** its vapor pressure is low

** **

**Q 36 **– The property of fluid by virtue of which it offers resistance to shear is called _____.

**Options:**

**1**) surface tension

**2**) adhesion

**3**) cohesion

**4**) viscosity

**Answer:** viscosity

** **

**Q 37 **– The unit of kinematic viscosity is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) m2/sec

**2**) kg-sec/m2

**3**) newton-sec/m2

**4**) newton-sec2/m

**Answer:** m2/sec

** **

**Q 38 **– The total pressure on the surface of a vertical sluice gate 2m x 1m with its top 2 m surface being 0.5 m below the water level will be _____.

**Options:**

**1**) 500 kg

**2**) 1000 kg

**3**) 1500 kg

**4**) 2000 kg

**Answer:** 2000 kg

** **

**Q 39 **– Metacentric height is given as the distance between _____.

**Options:**

**1**) the centre of gravity of the body and the metacentre

**2**) the centre of gravity of the body and the centre of buoyancy

**3**) the centre of gravity of the body and the centre of pressure

**4**) centre of buoyancy and metacentre

**Answer:** the centre of gravity of the body and the metacentre

** **

**Q 40 **– The difference of pressure between the inside and outside of a liquid drop is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) p = T x r

**2**) p = T/r

**3**) p = T/2r

**4**) p = 2T/r

**Answer:** p = 2T/r

** **

**Q 41 **– The property by which a liquid opposes relative motion between its different layers is called _____.

**Options:**

**1**) surface tension

**2**) co-efficient of viscosity

**3**) viscosity

**4**) osmosis

**Answer:** surface tension

** **

**Q 42 **– The atmospheric pressure with rise in altitude decreases _____.

**Options:**

**1**) linearly

**2**) first slowly then steeply

**3**) first steeply and then gradually

**4**) unpredictable

**Answer:** first slowly then steeply

** **

**Q 43 **– Barometer is used to measure _____.

**Options:**

**1**) pressure in pipes, channels etc..

**2**) atmospheric pressure

**3**) very low pressure

**4**) difference of pressure between two points

**Answer:** atmospheric pressure

** **

**Q 44 **– Flow meters based on obstruction principle like orifice plates can be used with Reynold’s number upto approximately _____.

**Options:**

**1**) 500

**2**) 1000

**3**) 2000

**4**) 4000

**Answer:** 2000

** **

**Q 45 **– The state of the soil when plants fail to extract sufficient water for their requirements is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) maximum saturated point

**2**) permanent wilting point

**3**) ultimate utilization point

**4**) None of these

**Answer:** None of these

** **

**Q 46 **– The field capacity of a soil is 25%, its permanent wilting point is 15% and specific dry unit weight is 1.5. If the depth of root zone of a crop is 80 cm, the storage capacity of the soil is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) 8 cm

**2**) 10 cm

**3**) 12 cm

**4**) 14 cm

**Answer:** 12 cm

** **

**Q 47 **– According to the recommendations of Nagpur Conference the width formation of an ideal National Highway in hard rock cutting is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) 8.9 m

**2**) 7.9 m

**3**) 6.9 m

**4**) 6.5 m

**Answer:** 7.9 m

** **

**Q 48 **– If L is the length of a rail and R is the radius of a curve, the versine h for the curve is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) a= L/4R

**2**) a= L2/4R

**3**) h= L2/8R

**4**) h= L2/16R

**Answer:** h= L2/8R

** **

**Q 49 **– Pick up the incorrect statement from the following.

**Options:**

**1**) Manholes are provided in sewer pipes at suitable intervals

**2**) Catch basins are generally provided in sewers for carrying drainage discharge

**3**) Inlets are generally provided in all sewers

**4**) None of the these

**Answer:** Inlets are generally provided in all sewers

** **

**Q 50 **– If q is the average sewage flow from a city of population P, the maximum sewage flow _____.

**Options:**

**1**) Q = [(4+√P)/(18+ √P)]q

**2**) Q = [(18 +P)/(4+ √P)]q

**3**) Q = [(18+√P)/(4 + √P)]q

**4**) Q = [(5+√P)/(15 + √P)]q

**Answer:** Q = [(18+√P)/(4 + √P)]q

** SSC Junior Engineer Exam – 2017 (https://www.newtondesk.com)**

**Q 51 **– A body is said to be in equilibrium if _____.

**Options:**

**1**) it moves horizontally

**2**) it moves vertically

**3**) it rotates about its C.G.

**4**) None of these

**Answer:** None of these

** **

**Q 52 **– The force acting normally on the cross section of a bar shown in the figure given below introduce_______.

**Options:**

**1**) compressive stress

**2**) tensile stress

**3**) shear stress

**4**) None of these

**Answer:** compressive stress

** **

**Q 53 **– At yield point of a test piece, the material _____.

**Options:**

**1**) obeys Hooke’s law

**2**) behaves in an elastic manner

**3**) regains its original shape on removal of the load

**4**) undergoes plastic deformation

**Answer:** undergoes plastic deformation

** **

**Q 54 **– If a concrete column 200 x 200 mm in cross-section is reinforced with four steel bars of 1200 mm2 total cross-sectional area. What is the safe load for the column if permissible stress in concrete is 5 N/mm2 and Es =15 Ec?

**Options:**

**1**) 264 MN

**2**) 274 MN

**3**) 284 MN

**4**) 294 MN

**Answer:** 284 MN

** **

**Q 55 **– A steel rod of sectional area 25 sq. mm connects two parallel walls 5 m apart. The nuts at the ends were tightened when the rod was heated at 100° C. If αsteel = 0.000012/C°, Esteel = 0.2 MN/mm2, the tensile force developed at a temperature of 50° C is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) 80 N/mm2

**2**) 100 N/mm2

**3**) 120 N/mm2

**4**) 150 N/mm2

**Answer:** 120 N/mm2

** **

**Q 56 **– The ratio of tangential and normal components of a stress on an inclined plane through θ° to the direction of the force is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) sinθ

**2**) cosθ

**3**) tanθ

**4**) cosθ

**Answer:** tanθ

** **

**Q 57 **– Pick up the correct statement from the following.

**Options:**

**1**) For a uniformly distributed load, the shear force varies linearly

**2**) For a uniformly distributed load, bulk modular curve is a parabola

**3**) For a load varying linearly, the shear force curve is a parabola

**4**) All options are correct

**Answer:** All options are correct

** **

**Q 58 **– At any point of a beam, the section modulus may be obtained by dividing the moment of inertia of the section by _____.

**Options:**

**1**) depth of the section

**2**) depth of the neutral axis

**3**) maximum tensile stress at the section

**4**) maximum compressive stress at the section

**Answer:** depth of the neutral axis

** **

**Q 59 **– The moment of inertia of a circular section about any diameter D, is ____.

**Options:**

**1**) (πD2)/64

**2**) (πD4)/32

**3**) (πD3)/64

**4**) (πD4)/64

**Answer:** (πD4)/64

** **

**Q 60 **– In case of principal axes of a section _____.

**Options:**

**1**) sum of moment of inertia is zero

**2**) difference of moment of inertia is zero

**3**) product of moment of inertia is zero

**4**) None of these

**Answer:** product of moment of inertia is zero

** **

**Q 61 **– The locus of the moment of inertia about inclined axis to the principal axis is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) straight line

**2**) parabola

**3**) circle

**4**) ellipse

**Answer:** ellipse

** **

**Q 62 **– The ratio of moments of inertia of a triangular section about its base and about a centroidal axis parallel to its base is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) 1

**2**) 1.5

**3**) 2

**4**) 3

**Answer:** 3

** **

**Q 63 **– If aggregates completely pass through a sieve of size 75 mm and are retained on a sieve of size 60 mm, the particular aggregate will be flaky if its minimum dimension is less than _____.

**Options:**

**1**) 20.5 mm

**2**) 30.5 mm

**3**) 40.5 mm

**4**) 50.5 mm

**Answer:** 40.5 mm

** **

**Q 64 **– For the construction of thin R.C.C. structures the type of cement to be avoided is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) ordinary Portland cement

**2**) rapid hardening cement

**3**) low heat cement

**4**) blast furnace slag cement

**Answer:** blast furnace slag cement

** **

**Q 65 **– Percentage of pozzolanic material containing clay upto 80% used for the manufacture of pozzolana cement is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) 30%

**2**) 40%

**3**) 50%

**4**) 60%

**Answer:** 30%

** **

**Q 66 **– Pick up the incorrect statement applicable to the field test of good cement.

**Options:**

**1**) When one thrusts one’s hand into a bag of cement, one should feel warm

**2**) The color of the cement is bluish

**3**) A handful of cement thrown into a bucket of water should sink immediately

**4**) All options are correct

**Answer:** All options are correct

** **

**Q 67 **– Pick up the correct statement from the following.

**Options:**

**1**) The maximum size of a coarse aggregate is 75 mm and minimum is 4.75 mm

**2**) The maximum size of the fine aggregate is 4.75 mm and minimum 0.75 mm

**3**) The material having particles of size varying from 0.06 mm to 0.002 mm is known as silt

**4**) All options are correct

**Answer:** All options are correct

** **

**Q 68 **– Sand generally contains salt if it is obtained from _____.

**Options:**

**1**) nala beds

**2**) river beds

**3**) sea beds

**4**) All options are correct

**Answer:** sea beds

** **

**Q 69 **– Pick up the correct statement from the following.

**Options:**

**1**) Bulking of sand is caused due to formation of a thin film of surface moisture

**2**) Fine sand bulks more than coarse sand

**3**) With 10% moisture content by weight the bulking of sand is increased by 50%

**4**) All options are correct

**Answer:** All options are correct

** **

**Q 70 **– If fineness modulus of sand is 2.5 it is graded as _____.

**Options:**

**1**) very fine sand

**2**) fine sand

**3**) medium sand

**4**) coarse sand

**Answer:** fine sand

** **

**Q 71 **– An ordinary Portland cement when tested for its fineness, should not leave any residue on I.S. Sieve No.9, more than _____.

**Options:**

**1**) 5%

**2**) 10%

**3**) 15%

**4**) 20%

**Answer:** 10%

** **

**Q 72 **– Pick up the correct statement from the following.

**Options:**

**1**) Insufficient quantity of water makes the concrete mix harsh

**2**) Insufficient quantity of water makes the concrete unworkable

**3**) Excess quantity of water makes the concrete segregated

**4**) All options are correct

**Answer:** All options are correct

** **

**Q 73 **– Pick up the incorrect statement from the following.

**Options:**

**1**) A rich mix of concrete possesses higher strength than that a lean mix of desired workability with excessive quantity of water

**2**) The strength of concrete decreases as the water cement ratio increases

**3**) If the water cement ratio is less than 0.45, the concrete is not workable and causes honey-combed structure

**4**) Good compaction by mechanical vibrations, increases the strength of concrete

**Answer:** A rich mix of concrete possesses higher strength than that a lean mix of desired workability with excessive quantity of water

** **

**Q 74 **– Pick up the correct statement from the following.

**Options:**

**1**) The concrete gains strength due to hydration of cement

**2**) The concrete cured at a temperature below 23° C, gains strength up to 28 days

**3**) The concrete does not set at freezing point

**4**) All options are correct

**Answer:** All options are correct

** **

**Q 75 **– Hardening of cement occurs at _____.

**Options:**

**1**) rapid rate during the first few days and afterwards it continues to increase at a decreased rate

**2**) slow rate during the first few days and afterwards it continues to increase at a rapid rate

**3**) uniform rate throughout its age

**4**) None of these

**Answer:** None of these

** SSC Junior Engineer Exam – 2017 (https://www.newtondesk.com)**

**Q 76 **– Pick up the correct statement from the following.

**Options:**

**1**) Higher workability indicates unexpected increase in the moisture content

**2**) Higher workability indicates deficiency of sand

**3**) If the concrete mix is dry, the slump is zero

**4**) All options are correct

**Answer:** All options are correct

** **

**Q 77 **– The top diameter, bottom diameter and the height of a slump mould are _____.

**Options:**

**1**) 10 cm, 20 cm, 30 cm

**2**) 10 cm, 30 cm, 20 cm

**3**) 20 cm, 10 cm, 30 cm

**4**) 20 cm, 30 cm, 10 cm

**Answer:** 10 cm, 20 cm, 30 cm

** **

**Q 78 **– Pick up the correct statement from the following.

**Options:**

**1**) Segregation is necessary for a workable concrete

**2**) Consistency does not affect the workability of concrete

**3**) If the slump increases, workability decreases

**4**) None of these

**Answer:** None of these

** **

**Q 79 **– The grade of concrete M 150 means that compressive strength of a 15 cm cube after 28 days, is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) 100 kg/cm2

**2**) 150 kg/cm2

**3**) 200 kg/cm2

**4**) 250 kg/cm2

**Answer:** 150 kg/cm2

** **

**Q 80 **– The preliminary test is repeated if the difference compressive strength of three test specimens, exceeds _____.

**Options:**

**1**) 5 kg/cm2

**2**) 8 kg/cm2

**3**) 10 kg/cm2

**4**) 15 kg/cm2

**Answer:** 15 kg/cm2

** **

**Q 81 **– According to load factor method, the permissible load W on a short column reinforced with longitudinal bars and lateral stirrups is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) Stress in concrete x area of concrete

**2**) Stress in steel x area of steel

**3**) Stress in concrete x area of concrete + stress in steel x area of steel

**4**) None of these

**Answer:** Stress in concrete x area of concrete + stress in steel x area of steel

** **

**Q 82 **– The length of the lap in a compression member is kept greater than [bar diameter x (Permissible stress in bar )/(Five times the bond stress)] or is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) 12 bar diameters

**2**) 18 bar diameters

**3**) 24 bar diameters

**4**) 30 bar diameters

**Answer:** 24 bar diameters

** **

**Q 83 **– A short column 20 cm x 20 cm in section is reinforced with 4 bars whose area of cross section is 20 sq.cm. If permissible compressive stresses in concrete and steel are 40 kg/cm2 and 300 kg/cm2, the safe load on the column should not exceed _____.

**Options:**

**1**) 412 kg

**2**) 4120 kg

**3**) 412000 kg

**4**) None of these

**Answer:** None of these

** **

**Q 84 **– A column is regarded as long column if the ratio of its effective length and lateral dimension exceeds _____.

**Options:**

**1**) 10

**2**) 15

**3**) 20

**4**) None of these

**Answer:** None of these

** **

**Q 85 **– If the size of a column is reduced above the floor, the main bars of the columns _____.

**Options:
1**) continues up

**Answer:** All options are correct

** **

**Q 86 **– The pitch of the main bars in a simply supported slab should not exceed its effective depth by _____.

**Options:**

**1**) three times

**2**) four times

**3**) five times

**4**) six times

**Answer:** six times

** **

**Q 87 **– Distribution reinforcement in a simply supported slab is provided to distribute _____.

**Options:**

**1**) load

**2**) temperature stress

**3**) shrinkage stress

**4**) All options are correct

**Answer:** All options are correct

** **

**Q 88 **– In a simply supported slab the minimum spacing of distribution reinforcement should be four times the effective thickness of the slab or _____.

**Options:**

**1**) 20 cm

**2**) 30 cm

**3**) 40 cm

**4**) None of these

**Answer:** None of these

** **

**Q 89 **– The modular ratio ‘m’ of a concrete whose permissible compressive stress is ‘C’ may be obtained from the equation _____.

**Options:**

**1**) m = 700/3C

**2**) m = 1400/3C

**3**) m = 2800/3C

**4**) m = 3500/3C

**Answer:** m = 2800/3C

** **

**Q 90 **– For M 150 grade concrete (1 : 2 : 4) the moment of resistance factor is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) 0.87

**2**) 8.5

**3**) 7.5

**4**) 5.8

**Answer:** 8.5

** **

**Q 91 **– If the thickness of a structural member is small as compared to its length and width, it is classified as _____.

**Options:**

**1**) one dimensional

**2**) two dimensional

**3**) three dimensional

**4**) None of these

**Answer:** two dimensional

** **

**Q 92 **– Design of a riveted joint assumes that _____.

**Options:**

**1**) the bending stress in rivets is accounted for

**2**) the riveted hole is to be filled by the rivet

**3**) the stress in the plate is not uniform

**4**) the friction between plates is considered

**Answer:** the riveted hole is to be filled by the rivet

** **

**Q 93 **– Rolled steel T-sections are used _____.

**Options:**

**1**) as columns

**2**) with flat strips to connect plates in steel rectangular tanks

**3**) as built up sections to resist axial tension

**4**) None of these

**Answer:** with flat strips to connect plates in steel rectangular tanks

** **

**Q 94 **– With a percentage increase of carbon in steel, decreases its _____.

**Options:**

**1**) strength

**2**) hardness

**3**) brittleness

**4**) ductility

**Answer:** ductility

** **

**Q 95 **– If P is the wind pressure in kg/cm2, v is the velocity in km/hour and K is constant of proportionality then _____.

**Options:**

**1**) P=K/v2

**2**) v=K/P2

**3**) P=Kv2

**4**) P=Kv

**Answer:** P=Kv2

** **

**Q 96 **– Factor of safety is the ratio of _____.

**Options:**

**1**) yield stress to working stress

**2**) tensile stress to working stress

**3**) compressive stress to working stress

**4**) bearing stress to working stress

**Answer:** yield stress to working stress

** **

**Q 97 **– The ratio of shearing stress to shearing strain within elastic limit, is known as _____.

**Options:**

**1**) modulus of elasticity

**2**) shear modulus of elasticity

**3**) bulk modulus of elasticity

**4**) tangent modulus of elasticity

**Answer:** shear modulus of elasticity

** **

**Q 98 **– The rivets which are heated and then driven in the field are known _____.

**Options:**

**1**) power driven shop rivets

**2**) power driven field rivets

**3**) hand driven rivets

**4**) cold driven rivets\

**Answer:** power driven field rivets

** **

**Q 99 **– The gross diameter of a rivet is the diameter of _____.

**Options:**

**1**) cold rivet before driving

**2**) rivet after driving

**3**) rivet hole

**4**) None of these

**Answer:** rivet after driving

** **

**Q 100 **– Working shear stress on the gross area of a rivet as recommended by Indian Standards is _____.

**Options:**

**1**) 785 kg/cm^{2}

**2**) 1025 kg/cm^{2}

**3**) 2360 kg/cm^{2}

**4**) None of the these

**Answer:** 1025 kg/cm^{2}

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