ssc je mechanical question paper
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SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper – 2018 “held on 23 January 2018” Evening Shift (Mechanical Engineering)
Q 1: The number of joints (j) which constitutes a kinematic chain can be expressed in terms of number of links (l) as_________.
Options:
1) j = (3/4)l – 2
2) j = (3/2)l + 2
3) j = (3/2)l – 2
4) j = l – (2/3)
Answer: j = (3/2)l – 2
Q 2: Which of the following will lead to the formation of higher pair ?
Options:
1) Sliding pair
2) Turning pair
3) Rolling pair
4) None of these
Answer: Rolling pair
Q 3: What is the degree of freedom of the mechanism shown below ?
Options:
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Answer: 1
Q 4: Which of the following statement is TRUE regarding work done per cycle ?
Options:
1) Work done per cycle is directly proportional to the mean torque
2) Work done per cycle is directly proportional to the angle turned in one revolution
3) Work done per cycle is inversely proportional to the angle turned in one revolution
4) Both Work done per cycle is directly proportional to the mean torque and Work done per cycle is directly proportional to the angle turned in one revolution
Answer: Both Work done per cycle is directly proportional to the mean torque and Work done per cycle is directly proportional to the angle turned in one revolution
Q 5: The angular acceleration and the moment of inertia of the flywheel is 0.6 rad/s2 and 2500 kg.m2 respectively. What is the kinetic energy (in kN-m) of the flywheel after 10 seconds from the start ?
Options:
1) 45
2) 450
3) 4.5
4) 4500
Answer: 45
Q 6: The power transmission takes place from a pulley of diameter 1 m running at the speed of 250 rpm to a pulley of 2.50 m diameter by means of a belt.
Options:
1) 110
2) 150
3) 100
4) 625
Answer: 100
Q 7: The scotch yoke mechanism is the inversion of _______.
Options:
1) Four bar link chain
2) Double slider crank chain
3) Single slider crank chain
4) None of these
Answer: Double slider crank chain
Q 8: Which of the following is NOT the inversion of single slider crank chain ?
Options:
1) Pendulum pump
2) Whitworth quick return motion mechanism
3) Oscillating cylinder engine
4) Eliptical trammel
Answer: Eliptical trammel
Q 9: Which of the following is NOT the inversion of single slider crank chain ?
Options:
1) Uniform pressure theory
2) Uniform wear theory
3) Uniform friction theory
4) None of these
Answer: Uniform wear theory
Q 10: The equation for the calculation of torque transmitting capacity in the conical clutch as per uniform wear theory is _______.
Options:
1) Mt = (μP / 4sin α) (D + d)
2) Mt = (μP / 4sin α) (D – d)
3) Mt = (μP / sin α) (D – d)
4) Mt = (2μP / sin α) (D – d)
Answer: Mt = (μP / 4sin α) (D + d)
Q 11: Which of the following statement is TRUE about the length of arc of contact ?
Options:
1) Inversely proportional to the module
2) Varies directly to the length of the path of contact
3) Inversely proportional to the circular pitch
4) All option are correct
Answer: Varies directly to the length of the path of contact
Q 12: The profile of gears having module of 12 mm and length of arc of contact is 60 mm. What is the contact ratio of the gear profile ?
Options:
1) 2
2) 1.2
3) 1.6
4) 5
Answer: 1.6
Q 13: Which of the following is NOT the type of loaded type governor ?
Options:
1) Dead weight governor
2) Spring controlled governor
3) Watt governor
4) Porter governor
Answer: Watt governor
Q 14: The types of failure involved in the analysis of the riveted joints are ?
1) Shear failure of rivet
2) Tensile failure of the plate
3) Crushing failure of the plate
Options:
1) (1) and (2) only
2) (2) and (3) only
3) (1) (2) and (3)
4) (1) and (3) only
Answer: (1) (2) and (3)
Q 15: Which of the following options is correct about the motion of the follower ?
Options:
1) Uniform velocity
2) Simple harmonic motion
3) Uniform acceleration
4) All option are correct
Answer: All option are correct
Q 16: When a body is said to be in dynamic equilibrium ?
Options:
1) When the body is moving with non uniform accelerations.
2) When the body is in uniform motion along a circular path.
3) When the body is in uniform motion along a straight line.
4) When the body is moving with instantaneous velocity.
Answer: When the body is in uniform motion along a straight line.
Q 17: Which of the following term can also be used to state the dynamic equilibrium ?
Options:
1) Translatory equilibrium
2) Static equilibrium
3) Kinetic equilibrium
4) Rotational equilibrium
Answer: Kinetic equilibrium
Q 18: What is the direction of application of friction force with respect to the direction of motion of an object ?
Options:
1) Same
2) Perpendicular
3) Opposite
4) Downward
Answer: Opposite
Q 19: What is the S.I unit of Poisson’s ratio ?
Options:
1) kN/mm2
2) N/mm2
3) mm
4) Unitless
Answer: Unitless
Q 20: Maximum principal stress theory was postulated by _______.
Options:
1) ST Venant
2) Mohr
3) Rankine
4) Tresca
Answer: Rankine
Q 21: The equivalent length of the column, when both the ends are hinged is ______.
Options:
1) l
2) l / 2
3) l / 4
4) 2l
Answer: l
Q 22: The expression for the slenderness Ratio of the columns is given as ______.
Options:
1) (le / kmin)2
2) (2le / kmin)2
3) (le / kmin)
4) (2le / kmin)
Answer: (le / kmin)
Q 23: The expression for the Rankine’s crippling load is given as _______.
Options:
1) 
2)
3)
4)
Answer:
Q 24: What is the ratio of the Euler’s buckling loads of column having (i) both ends fixed and (ii) one end fixed and other end free is ?
Options:
1) 4:1
2) 16:1
3) 1:4
4) 2:1
Answer: 16:1
Q 25: The thin walled cylindrical vessel has the wall thickness t and diameter d is subjected to the gauge pressure of p. If the diameter of the vessel is doubled, then what is the ratio of hoop stress as compared to initial value ?
Options:
1) 1:1
2) 2:1
3) 1:2
4) 1:4
Answer: 1:2
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Q 26: A metal pipe is subjected to internal pressure of 10 kgf /cm2. If the permissible tensile stress in the metal is 200 kgf/cm2 and the thickness of the pipe is 2.5 cm. What is the diameter of the metal pipe ?
Options:
1) 10
2) 100
3) 200
4) 20
Answer: 100
Q 27: A power transmission shaft of diameter d rotating at the speed of N rpm. The power P is related to diameter d and N as_______.
Options:
1)
2)
3)
4)
Answer:
Q 28: Which is the correct option for the stress experienced by the shaft when the power transmission in shaft takes place through the gears ?
Options:
1) Varying bending and constant torsional stresses
2) Constant bending and varying torsional stresses
3) Torsional stress.
4) Bending stress only
Answer: Varying bending and constant torsional stresses
Q 29: A beam of diameter 75 mm has a span length of 10 m is subjected to uniform distributed load of w kN/m. The maximum value of bending stress produced is 6.75 kN-m. What is the value of distributed load, if the beam is simply supported ?
Options:
1) 1.5
2) 0.54
3) 2
4) 5.4
Answer: 0.54
Q 30: A steel bar of dimension 10 mm x 1 mm x 1 mm is free to expand is heated from 15 oC to 25 oC. What stress shall be developed ?
Options:
1) Tensile stress
2) No stress
3) Shear stress
4) Compressive stress
Answer: No stress
Q 31: For a pure substance in gaseous phase to be liquefied, the gas has to undergo initial cooling below the_____.
Options:
1) Critical state
2) Saturated liquid line
3) Saturated vapor line
4) Triple point line
Answer: Critical state
Q 32: What is the CORREET order of decrease in entropy ?
- a) Solid phase
- b) Liquid phase
- c) Gaseous phase
Options:
1) (a) > (b) > (c)
2) (c) > (b) > (a)
3) (c) > (a) > (b)
4) (a) > (c) > (b)
Answer: (c) > (b) > (a)
Q 33: The entropy always increases for an isolated system and when the equilibrium is reached, it is_______.
Options:
1) Maximum
2) Same as the Initial starting state
3) More than initial starting state
4) Zero
Answer: Maximum
Q 34: A Carnot engine operates between T1 and T2. If there is an increase in source temperature by t and a decrease in sink temperature b t. How is the efficiency in both cases is related ?
Options:
1) η1 > η2
2) η1 < η2
3) η1 = η2
4) None of these
Answer: η1 < η2
Q 35: In a surrounding, the amount of irreversibility of a process undergone by a system is determined by_____.
Options:
1) Entropy change of the system
2) Entropy change of the surrounding
3) Entropy increase of the universe
4) Entropy decrease of the universe.
Q 36: In Otto cycle, r is the compression ratio and γ is the adiabatic index. Which relation defines the air standard efficiency ?
Options:
1) η = 1 – (1 / rγ-1)
2) η = 1 – (1 / rγ)
3) η = 1 – (1 / rγ+1)
4) η = 1 – (1 / rγ / γ-1)
Answer: η = 1 – (1 / rγ-1)
Q 37: For the same operating maximum pressure and temperature, which cycle will have the highest efficiency ?
Options:
1) Diesel cycle
2) Dual cycle
3) Otto cycle
4) None of these
Answer: Diesel cycle
Q 38: The mean effective pressure of Otto cycle is given by______.
Options:
1) Pm = {p1rk(rp – 1)(rkγ-1 – 1) / (γ – 1) (rk – 1)}
2) Pm = {p1rk(rp – 1)(rkγ+1 – 1) / (γ + 1) (rk – 1)}
3) Pm = {p1rk(rp + 1)(rkγ-1 – 1) / (γ – 1) (rk + 1)}
4) Pm = {p1rk(rp – 1)(rkγ-1 + 1) / (γ – 1) (rk – 1)}
Answer: Pm = {p1rk(rp – 1)(rkγ-1 – 1) / (γ – 1) (rk – 1)}
Q 39: What is the state at which phase change occurs without a change in pressure and temperature is known as ?
Options:
1) Critical state
2) Saturation state
3) Equilibrium state
4) None of these
Answer: Critical state
Q 40: What value of the dryness fraction (in %) represents the dry saturated state of vapour ?
Options:
1) 0
2) 25
3) 50
4) 100
Answer: 100
Q 41: Which factor contributes to the efficiency of the Otto cycle ?
Options:
1) Compression ratio
2) Operating pressure
3) Operating temperature
4) None of these
Answer: Compression ratio
Q 42: If a Carnot refrigerator has a COP of 6. What is the ratio of the lower to the higher absolute temperature ?
Options:
1) 1-6
2) 7-8
3) 6-7
4) 1-7
Answer: 6-7
Q 43: Which of the below stated are properties of a PMM-2 ?
1) When net work is equal to the heat absorbed and work efficiency is 100%.
2) Heat is exchanged from one heat reservoir only
3) It violates Kelvin-Planck statement.
4) It is hypothetical machine.
Options:
1) (1), (2) and (4)
2) (1), (3) and (4)
3) (2), (3) and (4)
4) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Answer: (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Q 44: Tonnes of refrigeration mean_______.
Options:
1) The weight of the machine is one tonne.
2) The weight of the refrigerant is one tonne.
3) The rate of the heat extraction is one tone.
4) None of these
Answer: The rate of the heat extraction is one tone.
Q 45: What is the ratio W/Q (W=work transfer from cycle, Q = heat transfer to the cycle) known as ?
Options:
1) Air standard efficiency
2) Specific consumption
3) Specific work transfer
4) Work ratio
Answer: Air standard efficiency
Q 46: What processes does Carnot cycle consist of ?
Options:
1) Two isothermal and two adiabatic processes
2) Two isothermal and two constant volume processes
3) Two isothermal and two constant pressure processes
4) Two constant pressure and two constant volume processes.
Answer: Two isothermal and two adiabatic processes
Q 47: What is the temperature at which a system goes under a reversible isothermal process without heat transfer ?
Options:
1) Absolute zero temperature
2) Critical temperature
3) Reversible temperature
4) Boiling temperature
Answer: Absolute zero temperature
Q 48: How is the thermal efficiency of an I.C engine related to compression ratio ?
Options:
1) Increase
2) Decrease
3) May increase or decrease
4) Remains same
Answer: Increase
Q 49: All the processes in an air standard cycle are assumed to be______.
Options:
1) Adiabatic
2) Irreversible
3) Isothermal
4) Reversible
Answer: Reversible
Q 50: Water flows through a turbine in which due to friction there is a temperature rise from 30oC to 35oC. If there is no heat transfer taking place during the process. What is the change in the entropy of water ?
Options:
1) 0.077
2) 0.079
3) 0.406
4) 0.496
Answer: 0.079
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Q 51: 1151 – In 18-4-11 HSS (High speed steel) the percentage of chromium is
Options:
1) 1%
2) 4%
3) 18%
4) 20%
Answer: 4%
Q 52: The pH value of neutral solution is
Options:
1) Equal to 7
2) Less than 7
3) Greater than 7
4) None of these
Answer: Equal to 7
Q 53: _______is better suited for lighter duty bearings.
Options:
1) Phosphor Bronze
2) Plastics
3) White metal
4) Monel metal
Answer: Phosphor Bronze
Q 54: ______is not the neutral refractory material.
Options:
1) Graphite
2) Karnelite
3) Chromite
4) Dolomite
Answer: Karnelite
Q 55: ________structure has maximum hardness.
Options:
1) Troostile
2) Pearlite
3) Martensite
4) Sorbite
Answer: Troostile
Q 56: ______has least coefficient of expension
Options:
1) Manganin
2) Invar
3) Constantan
4) Duralumin
Answer: Invar
Q 57: ________is the essential gradient of any hardened steel.
Options:
1) Carbon
2) Pearlite
3) Austenite
4) Martensite
Answer: Carbon
Q 58: ______structure can be studied by naked eye.
Options:
1) Atomic
2) Grain
3) Micro
4) Macro
Answer: Grain
Q 59: _______is used for bearing liner.
Options:
1) Brass
2) Bronze
3) Gun metal
4) Babbitt metal
Answer: Babbitt metal
Q 60: _______is the most Important element which controls the physical properties of steel.
Options:
1) Carbon
2) Chromium
3) Vanadium
4) Tungsten
span style=”color: #000000; font-size: 10pt;”>Answer: Carbon
Q 61: Practical fluids
Options:
1) Are viscous
2) Possess surface tension
3) Are compressible
4) Possess all the above properties
Answer: Possess all the above properties
Q 62: Property of a fluid by which its own molecules are attracted is called
Options:
1) Adhesion
2) Cohesion
3) Viscosity
4) Compressibility
Answer: Cohesion
Q 63: For very great pressures, viscosity of most gases and liquids
Options:
1) Remains same
2) Increases
3) Decreases
4) Shows erratic behavior
Answer: Increases
Q 64: The bulk modulus of elasticity
Options:
1) Has the dimensions of 1/pressure
2) Increases with pressure
3) Is large when fluid is more compressible
4) Is independent of pressure and viscosity
Answer: Increases with pressure
Q 65: Which of the following statements is not true ?
Options:
1) Fluids are capable of flowing
2) Fluids conform to the shape of the containing vessels
3) When in equilibrium, fluids cannot sustain tangential forces
4) When in equilibrium, fluids can sustain shear forces
Answer: When in equilibrium, fluids can sustain shear forces
Q 66: The conditions of the stable equilibrium of a floating body are
Options:
1) The meta-centre should lie above the centre of gravity
2) The centre of buoyancy and the centre of gravity must lie on the same vertical line
3) A righting couple should be formed
4) All options are correct
Answer: All options are correct
Q 67: A piece of metal of specific gravity 13.6 is placed in mercury of specific gravity 13.6, what fraction of it volume is under mercury ?
Options:
1) The metal piece will simply float over the mercury
2) The metal piece will be immersed in mercury by half
3) Whole of the metal piece will be immersed with its top surface just at mercury level
4) Metal piece will sink to the bottom
Answer: Whole of the metal piece will be immersed with its top surface just at mercury level
Q 68: If the surface of the liquid is convex, then
Options:
1) Cohesion pressure is negligible
2) Cohesion pressure is decreased
3) Cohesion pressure is increased
4) None of these
Answer: Cohesion pressure is increased
Q 69: Liquids transmit pressure equally in all the directions. This is according to
Options:
1) Boyle’s law
2) Archimedes law
3) Pascal’s law
4) Newton’s formula
Answer: Pascal’s law
Q 70: Mercury is often used in barometer because:
- It is the best liquid
- The height of barometer will be less
- Its vapor pressure is so low that it may be neglected
Options:
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Both A and B
4) Neither A nor B
Answer: Both A and B
Q 71: The losses due to sudden contraction are expressed by
- A) (v12 – v22) / 2g
- B) (v22 – v12) / 2g
- C) (v1 – v2)2 / g
- D) (v1 – v2)2 / 2g
Options:
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) None of these
Answer: None of these
Q 72: Cipolletti notch is designed as trapezoid with Its sides sloping at 1 horizontal and
Options:
1) 1 vertical
2) 2 vertical
3) 3 vertical
4) 4 vertical
Answer: 4 vertical
Q 73: The flow in venture flame takes place at
Options:
1) Atmospheric pressure
2) At pressure greater than atmospheric pressure
3) Vacuum
4) High pressure
Answer: Atmospheric pressure
Q 74: A hydraulic ram acts like
Options:
1) A centrifugal pump
2) A rotary pump
3) A reciprocating pump
4) An impulse pump
Answer: An impulse pump
Q 75: The rise of liquid along the walls of a revolving cylinder as compared to depression at the centre with respect to initial level s
Options:
1) Same
2) More
3) Less
4) More or less depending on speed
Answer: Same
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Q 76: The most economical section of a rectangular channel for maximum discharge is obtained when its depth is equal to
Options:
1) Half the breadth
2) Twice the breadth
3) Same as the breadth
4) Three-fourth of the breadth
Answer: Half the breadth
Q 77: In case of a two dimensional flow the components of velocity are given by u=ax; v= by, the point where no motion occurs, is known as
Options:
1) Critical point
2) Neutral point
3) Stagnation point
4) None of these
Answer: None of these
Q 78: The head loss in case of hot water flow through a pipe compared to cold water flow will be
Options:
1) Same
2) More
3) Less
4) More or less depending on range of temperatures
Answer: Less
Q 79: Maximum efficiency of transmission of power through a pipe is
Options:
1) 0.25
2) 0.3333
3) 0.5
4) 0.6667
Answer: 0.6667
Q 80: In the case of turbulent flow
Options:
1) It occurs in open channel
2) Losses are proportional to square of velocity
3) Velocity at boundary is zero
4) Shear stresses are more compared to laminar flow
Answer: Shear stresses are more compared to laminar flow
Q 81: Hydraulic grade line for any flow system as compared to energy line is
Options:
1) Above
2) Below
3) At same level
4) May be below or above depending upon velocity of flow
Answer: Below
Q 82: For maximum discharge through a circular open channel, the ratio of depth of flow to diameter of channel should be
Options:
1) 0.7
2) 0.5
3) 0.65
4) None of these
Answer: None of these
Q 83: A triangular section in open channel flow will be most economical when the vertex angle at the triangle base point is
Options:
1) 30 degree
2) 50 degree
3) 20 degree
4) None of these
Answer: None of these
Q 84: The value of coefficient of velocity depends upon
Options:
1) Slope of orifice
2) Size of orifice
3) Head of liquid above orifice
4) Friction at the orifice surface
Answer: Friction at the orifice surface
Q 85: The discharge through an orifice fitted in a tank can be increased by
Options:
1) Fitting a short length of pipe to the outside
2) Sharpening the edges of orifice
3) Fitting a long length of pipe to the outside
4) Fitting a long length of pipe to the inside
Answer: Fitting a short length of pipe to the outside
Q 86: Total pressure on the top of a closed cylindrical vessel completely filled with liquid is directly proportional to
Options:
1) Radius
2) Square of radius
3) cube of radius
4) None of these
Answer: None of these
Q 87: If flow in an open channel is gradually varied, then the flow will be
Options:
1) Steady uniform flow
2) Unsteady uniform flow
3) Steady non-uniform flow
4) Unsteady non-uniform flow
Answer: Steady non-uniform flow
Q 88: The energy loss in flow through nozzle as compared to venturimeter is
Options:
1) Same
2) More
3) Less
4) Unpredictable
Answer: More
Q 89: Orifice is an opening
Options:
1) With closed perimeter and of regular form through which water flows
2) With prolonged sides having length of 2 to 3 diameters of opening in thick wall
3) With partially full flow
4) In hydraulic structure with regulation provision
Answer: With closed perimeter and of regular form through which water flows
Q 90: The value of coefficient of discharge in comparison to coefficient of velocity is
Options:
1) More
2) Less
3) Same
4) Unpredictable
Answer: Less
Q 91: Heating of dry steam above saturation temperature is known as
Options:
1) Enthalpy
2) Superheating
3) Super saturation
4) Latent heat
Answer: Superheating
Q 92: The specific heat of superheated steam in kcal/kg is generally of the order of
Options:
1) 0.1
2) 0.3
3) 0.5
4) 0.8
Answer: 0.5
Q 93: Adiabatic process is
Options:
1) Essentially as isentropic process
2) Non-heat transfer process
3) Reversible process
4) Constant temperature process
Answer: Non-heat transfer process
Q 94: The diameter (in cm) of Cornish boiler is of the order of
Options:
1) 1 to 2
2) 1.5 to 2.5
3) 2 to 3
4) 2.5 to 3.5
Answer: 1 to 2
Q 95: Which of the following boilers is best suited to meet fluctuating demands ?
Options:
1) Babcock an and Wilcox
2) Locomotive
3) Lancashire
4) Cochran
Answer: Locomotive
Q 96: An engine indicator is used to determine the following
Options:
1) Speed
2) Temperature
3) Volume of cylinder
4) None of these
Answer: None of these
Q 97: Diesel fuel, compared to petrol is
Options:
1) Less difficult to ignite
2) Just about the same difficult to ignite
3) More difficult to ignite
4) Highly ignitable
Answer: More difficult to ignite
Q 98: The fuel air ratio in a petrol engine fitted with suction carburetor, operating with dirty air filter as compared to clean filter will be
Options:
1) Higher
2) Lower
3) Remain unaffected
4) Unpredictable
Answer: Unpredictable
Q 99: Which of the following is the lightest and most volatile liquid fuel ?
Options:
1) 6:1
2) 9:1
3) 12:1
4) 15:1
Answer: 15:1
Q 100: Ignition quality of petrol is expressed by
Options:
1) Octane number
2) Cetane number
3) Calorific value
4) Self-ignition temperature
Answer: Octane number
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