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# SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper 2018 Shift-1 (Mechanical Engineering)

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SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper – 2018 “held on 22 January 2018” Morning Shift (Mechanical Engineering)

Q 1: The number of links (I) which is required to form a kinematic chain can be expressed in term of the number of pairs (p) as_______
Options:
1) I = 2p – 4
2) I = 2p – 3
3) I = 2p – 2
4) I = 2p – 5
Answer: I = 2p – 4

Q 2: What is the total number of Links and joints in the mechanism as Options:
1) 3 and 3
2) 3and 2
3) 4 and 3
4) 4 and 4
Answer: 4 and 3

Q 3: What is the degree of freedom of the mechanism  shown below ? Options:
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

Q 4: The graph of turning moment diagram is drawn between_______
Options:
1) Crank angle and crank radius
2) Crank angle and crank effort
3) Crank effort and crank angle
4) Crank radius and crank angle
Answer: Crank effort and crank angle

Q 5: The mass of flywheel of a steam engine is 3250 kg with the radius of gyration of 1 m. The starting torque of the engine is 4500 N-m. What is the angular acceleration (rad/s2) of the flywheel ?
Options:
1) 3.4
2) 2
3) 2.48
4) 1.38

Q 6: A pulley is driven by a flat belt and the maximum  tension produced in the belt is of 1400 N. The belt has the density of 1000 kg/m3, 100 mm wide and 5 mm thick. What is the speed (m/sec) of the belt for the maximum power.
Options:
1) 32
2) 31
3) 30.55
4) 3.05

Q 7: The rotary internal combustion engine is the inversion of_______
Options:
1) Four bar link chain
2) Double slider crank chain
3) Single slider crank mechanism
4) Rocker crank mechanism
Answer: Single slider crank mechanism

Q 8: The pressure distribution in the uniform wear theory is______
Options:
1) Directly Proportional to radius
2) Directly proportional to the square of radius
3) Inversely proportional to radius
4) Inversely proportional to the square of radius

Q 9: When the friction lining is new, the wear varies________
Options:
1) Directly to radius
2) Inversely to radius
3) Directly to the square of radius
4) Inversely to the square of radius

Q 10: What is the radial distance of a tooth from the pitch to the top of the tooth known as ?
Options:
1) Dedendum
3) Pitch circle diameter
4) Module

Q 11: Which of the following statement is TRUE about the contact ratio ?
Options:
1) Varies directly to the length of the arc of contact
2) Inversely proportional to the module
3) Inversely proportional to the module
4) All options are correct
Answer: All options are correct

Q 12: Which of the following governors does not have central load attached to their sleeves ?
Options:
1) Hartnell governor
2) Proell governor
3) Porter governor
4) Watt governor

Q 13: Which of the following governors does not have central load attached to their sleeves ?
Options:
1) Porter governor
2) Watt governor
3) Proell governor
4) None of these

Q 14: What will be the vertical height (m) of a watt governor, if the speed of rotation is 80 rpm ?
Options:
1) 1.4
2) 1.14
3) 0.14
4) 0.11

Q 15: Which of the following term defines the size of the cam ?
Options:
1) Base circle
2) Prime circle
3) Pitch circle
4) Pitch curve

Q 16: What term is used for the combined effect of all the forces on a body ?
Options:
2) Stress
3) Strain
4) None of these

Q 17: Which of the following load does not act on the considerable length of the beam ?
Options:
1) Uniformly distributed
2) Triangular
3) Point
4) Uniformly varying

Q 18: Which term states the S.I unit of stress ?
Options:
1) KN/mm
2) N/mm2
3) N/mm3
4) m3/sec

Q 19: Maximum shear stress theory was postulated by_______
Options:
1) ST Venant
2) Mohr
3) Rankine
4) Tresca

Q 20: The equivalent length of the column when both the ends are fixed is______
Options:
1) 1
2) 1/2
3) 1/4
4) 2I

Q 21: The slenderness ratio of the columns is_____
Options:
1) Directly proportional to the effective length
2) Directly proportional to the least radius of gyration
3) Directly proportional to the square of effective length
4) Directly proportional o the square of least radius of gyration
Answer: Directly proportional to the effective length

Q 22: Rankine theory is applicable to the______
Options:
1) Short strut/column
2) Long column
3) Both short and long column
4) None of these
Answer: Both short and long column

Q 23: Which of the following assumptions is INCORRECT about the long column ?
Options:
1) The column behaves elastically
2) The load acts perfectly axial and passes through the centroid of the column section.
3) The weight of the column is neglected.
4) The material is non-homogeneous and anisotropic.
Answer: The material is non-homogeneous and anisotropic.

Q 24: What is the maximum shear stress on the wall of a thin cylinder, if it has a diameter of d, thickness of t and the gauge pressure in the cylinder is p ?
Options:
1) pd / t
2) pd / 4t
3) pd / 2t
4) pd / 8t
Answer: pd / 8t

Q 25: What is the volumetric strain in the thin cylinder subjected to internal pressure having hoop stress of 200 MPa, modulus of elasticity, E=200 Gpa and poisons ratio=0.25 ?
Options:
1) 20 / 1000
2) 2 / 1000
3) 0.2 / 1000
4) 0.02 / 1000
Answer: 2 / 1000
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Q 26: The property of the material to regain its original shape after deformation when the external forces are removed is________
Options:
1) Plasticity
2) Elasticity
3) Durability
4) None of these

Q 27: The correct shear force diagram for the cantilever beam with uniformly distributed load over the whole length of the beam is Q 28: Which of the following is the CORRECT bending moment diagram for the cantilever beam carrying uniformly varying load from zero at free and w/unit length at the fixed end ? Q 29: A rod of diamension 20 mm x 20 mm is carrying an axial tensile load of 10 KN. The tensile stress developed is________
Options:
1) 0.025 Mpa
2) 0.25 Mpa
3) 25 Mpa
4) 250 Mpa

Q 30: Which is the CORRECT  option for the polar moment of Inertia of the solid shaft ?
Options:
1) J – (π/64) d4
2) J – (π/32)d4
3) J – (π/16) d2
4) J – (π/16)d4
Answer: J – (π/32)d4

Q 31: The triple point on a P-V diagram is_______.
Options:
1) A line
2) A point
3) A triangle
4) Not present

Q 32: Which of the following statement related to entropy is TRUE ?
Options:
1) Minimum entropy is observed when the system is in equilibrium with the surrounding.
2) At absolute zero temperature, the solid solutions have non-zero entropy.
3) Substance in solid phase has the least entropy.
4) Entropy conservation takes place in all irreversible processes.
Answer: Substance in solid phase has the least entropy.

Q 33: If the COP of Carnot refrigerator is 4, then the thermal efficiency of the Carrot engine would be ______
Options:
1) 0.33
2) 0.25
3) 0.2
4) 0.18

Q 34: While working between temperatures 150 K and 300 K, the entropy change experienced by the Carnot engine during heat addition is 1 KJ/K the work produced (KJ) by the engine is______
Options:
1) 100
2) 150
3) 300
4) 600

Q 35: A heat engine working between the source at 200oC and rejects heat at 25oC receives 5 KW of heat. Work done for this engine is equal to 0 KW. Does this satisfy the inequality of Clausius ?
Options:
1) Yes
2) No
3) Cannot be determined
4) None of these

Q 36: An ideal gas with heat capacity ratio of 2 is used in an ideal Otto-cycle which operates between minimum and maximum temperatures of 200 K and 1800 K. What is the compression ration of the cycle for maximum work output ?
Options:
1) 1.5
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

Q 37: In an Otto cycle, air is compressed from 3 litres to 2.4 litres from a starting pressure of 1.5 kg/cm2. The net output per cycle is 400 KJ. What is the mean effective pressure (kPa) of the cycle ?
Options:
1) 500
2) 567
3) 667
4) 700

Q 38: The combination in a compression ignition engine is_______
Options:
1) Heterogeneous
2) Homogeneous
3) Laminar
4) Turbulent

Q 39: Which relation is the basis of Mollier Diagram ?
Options:
1) CP = (∂h / ∂T)P
2) CV = (∂Q / ∂T)T
3) CP – Cv = R
4) T = (∂h / ∂S)P
Answer: T = (∂h / ∂S)P

Q 40: Which of the following formula holds TRUE for dryness fraction ?
Options:
1) mV / (mv + mI)
2) mI / (mV + mI)
3) (mV + mI) / mV
4) (mV + mI) / mI
Answer: mV / (mv + mI)

Q 41: Which gas will produce the highest efficiency in an ideal Otto cycle for same compression ratio ?
Options:
1) Air
2) Carbon dioxide
3) Helium
4) Oxygen

Q 42: In Mollier diagram, the isotherm in the superheated region at low pressures becomes ______.
Options:
1) Diverge from one another
2) Horizontal
3) Parallel
4) Vertical

Q 43: If the heat rejected from the system is zero, then which of the following will hold TRUE ?
Options:
1) When net work is equal to the heat absorbed, work efficiency is 100%.
2) Heat is exchanged from one heat reservoir only.
3) It violates Kelvin-Plank statement.
4) All options are correct.
Answer: All options are correct.

Q 44: Clausius’ statement and Kelvin-Plank’s statement are_______.
Options:
1) Not connected
2) Two parallel statements of the second law
3) Violation of one does not violates the other
4) False statements
Answer: Two parallel statements of the second law

Q 45: For the same heat added and the same compression ratio,_______
Options:
1) Otto cycle is more efficient than diesel cycle.
2) Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle.
3) Both Diesel and Otto cycle are equally efficient.
4) Cannot be determined
Answer: Otto cycle is more efficient than diesel cycle.

Q 46: A reversible engine operates between temperature T1 and T2. The energy rejected by this engine acts as an input for another reversible engine at temperature T2, which rejects to a reservoir at temperature T3. What is the relation between T1, T2 and T3 ?
Options:
1) T2 = (T1 = T3) / 2
2) T2 = √(T12 + T32)
3) T2 = √T1T3
4) T2 = (T1 – T3) / 2
Answer: T2 = √T1T3

Q 47: Which equation defines the enthalpy (h) of a system ?
Options:
1) U + (pv / J)
2) U – (pv / J)
3) U + (R / Jpv)
4) U + Jpv
Answer: U + (pv / J)

Q 48: Which gas can attain the highest efficiency for the same compression rise ?
Options:
1) Any of the gases
2) Diatomic gases
3) Mono atomic gases
4) Tri-atomic gases
Answer: Mono atomic gases

Q 49: In Clausius theorem the reversible path is substituted by _________.
Options:
1) Reversible isobars
2) Reversible isotherms
3) Reversible isochoric
4) None of these

Q 50: Which of the relation represents an irreversible and possible process ?
Options:
1) 2) 3) 4) None of these
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Q 51: ________does not certain tin as an alloying element.
Options:
1) Babbitt metal
2) White metal
3) Solder
4) All options are correct

Q 52: Under microscope ferrite appears as
Options:
1) White
2) Light
3) Dark
4) None of these

Q 53: _______structure is obtained by austempering process of heat treatment.
Options:
1) Sorbite
2) Bainite
3) Martensite
4) Troostite

Q 54: Preheating is essential in welding
Options:
1) High speed steel
2) Cast Iron
3) All non-ferrous materials
4) None of these

Q 55: The melting point is the lowest for
Options:
1) Low carbon steel
2) High carbon steel
3) Cast iron
4) Wrought iron

Q 56: ______is commonly used for making  household utensils.
Options:
1) Duralumin
2) Hindalium
3) Y-alloy
4) Magnallium

Q 57: Ball bearings are generally made up of
Options:
1) Carbon steel
2) Carbon chrome steel
3) Stainless steel
4) Grey cast iron
Answer: Carbon chrome steel

Q 58: _____has high tendency to get work hardened.
Options:
2) Aluminium
3) Brass
4) Silver

Q 59: _______is the hardest known material
Options:
1) Cemented carbide
2) Ceramic
3) Diamond
4) Alloy steel

Q 60: ________is obtained by isothermal hardening operation.
Options:
1) Cementite
2) Sorbite
3) Acicular troostite
4) Bainite

Q 61: Fluid is a substance which offers no resistance to change of
Options:
1) Pressure
2) Flow
3) Shape
4) Volume

Q 62: Density of water is maximum at
Options:
1) 0oC
2) 0oK
3) 4oC
4) 100oC

Q 63: A perfect gas
Options:
1) Has constant viscosity
2) Has zero viscosity
3) Is incompressible
4) None of these
Answer: None of these

Q 64: A fluid in equilibrium can’t sustain
Options:
1) Tensile stress
2) Compressive stress
3) Shear stress
4) Bending stress

Q 65: For manometer, a better liquid combination is one having
Options:
1) Higher surface tension
2) Lower Surface tension
3) Surface tension is no criterion
4) High density and Viscosity
Answer: Higher surface tension

Q 66: The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an Immersed body is called
Options:
1) Upthrust
2) Buoyancy
3) Centre of pressure
4) None of these

Q 67: V = 0.0022t – (1.8 / t ) is the equation to determine kinetic viscosity of liquids by
Options:
1) Redwood Viscometer
2) Engler Viscometer
3) Saybolt universal viscometer
4) Newton Viscometer
Answer: Saybolt universal viscometer

Q 68: The capiliary rise at 20 degree Celsius in a clean glass tube of 1 mm bore containing water is approximately
Options:
1) 3 mm
2) 5 mm
3) 10 mm
4) 30 mm

Q 69: The rise or depression of liquid in a tube to surface tension with increase in size of tube will
Options:
1) Increase
2) Remain unaffected
3) May increase or decrease depending on the characteristics of liquid
4) Decrease

Q 70: In an Isothermal atmosphere the pressure
Options:
1) Decreases linearly with elevation
2) Remains constant
3) Varies in the same way as the density
4) Increases exponentially with elevation
Answer: Varies in the same way as the density

Q 71; The magnitude of rise of pressure due to water hammer in a rigid and non-eleastic pipe carrying water of density ρ and bulk modules k will be equal to

1. A) k / √ρ
2. B) √kρ
3. C) √(ρ / k)
4. D) k / ρ

Options:
1) A Only
2) B Only
3) C Only
4) D Only

Q 72: The flow of any fluid, real or ideal, must fulfil the following
Options:
1) Newton’s law of viscosity
2) Newton’s second law of viscosity
3) Velocity at boundary must be zero relative to the boundary
4) The continuity equation
Answer: The continuity equation

Q 73: The most economical section of circular channel for maximum discharge is obtained when (Where, d is the diameter of circular section)
Options:
1) Depth of water = 0.95 d
2) Wetter perimeter = 2.5 d
3) Hydraulic mean depth = 0.29 d
4) Any one of these
Answer: Any one of these

Q 74: Borda’s mouthpiece is
Options:
1) A short cylindrical tube projecting inward having length of 1/2  diameter
2) A convergent tube having length of 2 – 3 diameters
3) Most commonly used
4) Rarely used
Answer: A short cylindrical tube projecting inward having length of 1/2  diameter

Q 75: The critical velocity as
Options:
1) Maximum
2) Terminal velocity
3) Velocity when hydraulic jump occurs
4) Velocity above which the flow ceases to be streamlined
Answer: Velocity above which the flow ceases to be streamlined

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Q 76: Reynolds number for non-circular cross section is:
[ V = mean velocity
v = kinematic viscosity
P = Ratio of cross sectional area to the wetter perimeter]

1. A) VAP / v
2. B)P / v
3. C)2P / 4v
4. D)P / 4v

Options:
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) Only D

Q 77: In case of a two dimensional flow the components of velocity are given by u = ax; v = by, the streamlines will consist of a series of
Options:
1) Circular arcs
2) Parabolic arcs
3) Hyperbolic arcs
4) Elliptical arcs

Q 78: Friction factor of pipes depends on
Options:
1) Rate of flow
2) Fluid density
3) Viscosity
4) All options are correct
Answer: All options are correct

Q 79: Time of floe from one tank in which water level is h1 to another tank having level h2 will be proportional to

1. A) h1 – h2
2. B) √(h1 – h2)
3. C) √h1 – √h2
4. D) h13/2 – h23/2

Options:
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) Only D

Q 80: Which of the following represents steady uniform flow ?
Options:
1) Flow through an expending tube at an increasing rate
2) Flow through an expending tube at constant rate
3) Flow through a long pipe at decreasing rate
4) Flow through a long pipe at constant rate
Answer: Flow through a long pipe at constant rate

Q 81: Chezy’s equation is used to determine
Options:
1) Velocity of flow in open channel
2) Velocity of flow in pipe
3) Flow over weirs
4) Discharge through notch
Answer: Velocity of flow in open channel

Q 82: Bluff body is the body of such a shape that pressure drag as compared to friction drag is
Options:
1) Same
2) More
3) Less
4) Zero

Q 83: For best hydraulic rectangular cross-section of an open channel, its depth should be equal to
Options:
1) Width
2) Two times the width
3) Half of the width
4) Three-eighth of the width
Answer: Half of the width

Q 84: The value of coefficient of velocity for a sharp edged orifice is of the order of
Options:
1) 0.45
2) 0.5
3) 0.62
4) None of these
Answer: None of these

Q 85: The discharge over a sharp-edged rectangular notch of width w depth h is equal to

1. A) (2/3)Cdw√(2gh5/2)
2. B) (2/3)Cdw√(2gh)
3. C) (2/3)Cdw√(2gh3/2)
4. D) (8/15)Cdw√(2gh3/2)

Options:
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) Only D

Q 86: When a liquid  rotates at constant angular velocity about a vertical axis as a rigid body, the pressure
Options:
1) Increases linearly as its radical distance
2) Varies inversely as the altitude along any vertical line
3) Varies as the square of the radial distance
4) Decreases as the square of the radial distance
Answer: Varies inversely as the altitude along any vertical line

Q 87: The discharge through a semi-circular weir is proportional
Options:
1) H(-1/2)
2) H(1/2)
3) H(3/2)
4) none of these
Answer: None of these

Q 88: The rate of change of moment of momentum represents the
Options:
1) Force exerted by fluid
2) Torque applied by the fluid
3) Work done by the fluid
4) Power developed by the fluid
Answer: Torque applied by the fluid

Q 89: Separation of flow occurs when pressure gradient
Options:
1) Tends to approach zero
2) Becomes negative
3) Reduces to a value when vapor formation starts
4) None of these
Answer: None of these

Q 90: The ratio of actual discharge to theoretical discharge through an orifice is

1. A) Cc / Dd
2. B) Cd / Cv
3. C) Cv / Cd
4. D) Cc / Cv

Options:
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) Only D

Q 91: Coke is produced by
Options:
1) Pulverizing coal in Inert atmosphere
2) Heating wood in a limited supply of air at temperatures below 300oC
3) Strongly heating coal continuously for about 48 hours in the absence of air in a closed vessel
4) Binding the pulverized coal into briquettes.
Answer: Strongly heating coal continuously for about 48 hours in the absence of air in a closed vessel

Q 92: One kg of steam sample contains 0.8 kg dry steam; It’s dryness fraction is
Options:
1) 0.2
2) 0.8
3) 0.6
4) 0.5

Q 93: At which pressure (in kg/cm2) the properties of water and steam become identical
Options:
1) 0.1
2) 1
3) 100
4) 225.6

Q 94: Cochran boiler is a
Options:
1) Horizontal fire-tube boiler
2)  Horizontal water-tube boiler
3) Vertical water-tube boiler
4) Vertical fire tube boiler
Answer: Vertical fire tube boiler

Q 95: The diameter of tubes for natural circulation boiler as compared to controlled circulation boilers is
Options:
1) More
2) Less
3) Same
4) Could be more or less depending on other factors

Q 96: Supercharging is the process of
Options:
1) Supplying the Intake of an engine with air at a density greater than the density of the surrounding atmosphere
2) Providing forced cooling air
3) Injecting excess fuel for raising more load
4) Supplying compressed air to remove combustion products fully
Answer: Supplying the Intake of an engine with air at a density greater than the density of the surrounding atmosphere

Q 97: The accumulation of carbon in a cylinder results in Increase of
Options:
1) Clearance volume
2) Volumetric efficiency
3) Ignition time
4) Effective compression ratio
Answer: Effective compression ratio

Q 98: Which of the following is a false statement ? Excess quantities of Sulphur in diesel fuel are objectionable because it may cause the following
Options:
1) Piston ring and cylinder wear
2) Formation of hard coating on piston skirts
3) Oil sludge in the engine crank case
4) Detonation

Q 99: Installation of supercharger on a four-cycle diesel engine can result in the following percentage increase in power
Options:
1) Upto 25%
2) Upto 35%
3) Upto 50%
4) None of these
Answer: None of these

Q 100: In order to prevent formation of carbon on the Injector, the temperature (In oC) of nozzle tip should be
Options:
1) Less than 100
2) Between 100 – 250
3) Between 250 – 300
4) Between 400 – 500
Answer: Between 250 – 300
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