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# SSC Junior Engineer Exam Paper 2017 Shift-2 (Mechanical Engineering)

SSC Junior Engineers (JE) Exam – 2016 “held on 1st March 2017” Afternoon Shift (General Engineering)

Q 1: If ‘L’ is the span of a light suspension bridge, whose, each cable carries total weight (w) and the central dip is ‘y’, the horizontal pull at each support is _____.

Options:
1) wL/4y
2) wL/8y
3) wL/2y
4) wL/y

Q 2: The vehicle moving on a level circular path will exert pressure such that _____.

Options:
1) the reaction on the outer wheels will be more
2) the reaction on the inner wheels will be more
3) the reaction on the inner wheels as well as on the outer wheels will be equal
4) it depends on the speed

Answer: the reaction on the outer wheels will be more

Q 3: Which one of the following laws is not applicable for a simple pendulum?

Options:
1) the time period does not depend on its magnitude
2) the time period is proportional to its length
3) the time period is proportional to square root of its length
4) the time period is inversely proportional to square root of its acceleration due to gravity

Answer: the time period is proportional to square root of its length

Q 4: In order to double the period of a simple pendulum _____.

Options:
1) the mass of its bob should be doubled
2) the mass of its bob should be quadrupled
3) its length should be doubled
4) its length should be quadrupled

Q 5: A body is vibrating at 10 vibrations/second in Simple Harmonic Motion of 10 cm amplitude. The maximum velocity in cm/sec can be _____.

Options:
1) 100π
2) 50π
3) 200π
4) 100

Q 6: The sum of kinetic and potential energy of a falling body _____.

Options:
1) is constant at all points
2) varies from point to point
3) is maximum at starting and goes on increasing
4) is maximum at starting and goes on decreasing

Answer: is constant at all points

Q 7: If two bodies, one light and other heavy, have equal kinetic energy, which one has a greater momentum?

Options:
1) the heavy body
2) the light body
3) both have equal momentum
4) unpredictable

Answer: the heavy body

Q 8: A bucket of water weighing 10 kg is pulled up from a 20 m deep well by a rope weighing 1 kg/m length, then the work done is _____.

Options:
1) 200 kg-m
2) 400 kg-m
3) 500 kg-m
4) 600 kg-m

Q 9: Which of the following is an example of a body undergoing translational equilibrium?

Options:
1) a body at rest on a table
2) a body travelling in a circular path at a constant speed
3) a body rotating with constant angular speed about an axis
4) a body sliding down a frictionless inclined plane

Answer: a body at rest on a table

Q 10: A boy is swinging on a swing. If another boy sits along with him without disturbing his motion, then the time period of swing will _____.

Options:
1) increase
2) decrease
3) be doubled
4) remain the same

Answer: remain the same

Q 11: The type of motion when the acceleration is proportional to displacement is called _____.

Options:
1) translation
2) rotational
3) gyroscopic
4) simple harmonic

Q 12: The escape velocity of a body on earth _____.

Options:
1) increases with the increase of its mass
2) decreases with the increase of its mass
3) remains unchanged with variation of mass
4) varies as the square of the change in mass

Answer: remains unchanged with variation of mass

Q 13: The velocity of the satellite in an orbit close to earth’s surface depends on _____.

Options:
1) radius of the orbit only
2) acceleration due to gravity only
3) square root of product of radius of the orbit and acceleration due to gravity
4) product of radius of the orbit and gravitational constant

Answer: square root of product of radius of the orbit and acceleration due to gravity

Q 14: A circular disc rolls down an inclined plane, the fraction of its total energy associated with its rotation is _____.

Options:
1) 1/2
2) 1/3
3) 1/4
4) 2/3

Q 15: An object weighs 60 gm in air, 50 gm in water and 40 gm in oil. Then the specific gravity of the oil will be _____.

Options:
1) 0.25
2) 1
3) 1.5
4) 2

Q 16: The value of coefficient of velocity compared to coefficient of discharge _____.

Options:
1) is less
2) is more
3) has no relation
4) is the same

Q 17: Property of a fluid by which molecules of different kinds of fluids are attracted to each other is called _____.

Options:
2) cohesion
3) viscosity
4) compressibility

Q 18: The depth of water below the spillway and after hydraulic jump are 1 m and 6 m respectively. The head loss will be _____.

Options:
1) 1.04 m
2) 5 m
3) 1.7 m
4) 2.05 m

Q 19: If no resistance is encountered by displacement, such a substance is known as _____.

Options:
1) fluid
2) water
3) gas
4) ideal fluid

Q 20: Head loss in turbulent flow in a pipe _____.

Options:
1) varies directly as velocity
2) varies inversely as square of velocity
3) varies approximately as square of velocity
4) depends upon orientation of pipe

Answer: varies approximately as square of velocity

Q 21: The force exerted by the jet on fixed plate shown in the figure below is equal to:

Options:
1) AV2 sin θ
2) ρAV2 sin θ
3) ρAV2 cos θ
4) AV2 tan θ

Answer: ρAV2 sin θ

Q 22: A weir system in which the downstream water level of the weir nappe is higher than the crest is called _____.

Options:
1) submerged
2) overflowing
4) cipoletti

Q 23: For starting an axial flow pump, its delivery valve should be _____.

Options:
1) closed
2) open
3) depends on starting condition and flow desired
4) could be either open or closed

Q 24: Equation of continuity results from the principal of conservation of _____.

Options:
1) energy
2) flow
3) mass
4) momentum

Q 25: When a piping system is made up primarily of friction head and very little of vertical lift, then pipe characteristics should be _____.

Options:
1) horizontal
2) nearly horizontal
3) very steep
4) first rise and then fall

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Q 26: The hydraulic mean depth for a circular pipe of diameter ‘d’ running full is equal to _____.

Options:
1) d
2) d/3
3) d/2
4) d/4

Q 27: In a centrifugal pump, the liquid enters the pump from _____.

Options:
1) the top
2) the bottom
3) the centre
4) from sides

Q 28: Head loss in a flowing fluid is experienced due to _____.

1. friction at surface
B. change of direction
C. change of section of passage
D. obstruction in passage

Options:
1) only A
2) only B
3) only B and C
4) A, B, C and D

Answer: A, B, C and D

Q 29: High specific speed of turbine implies that it is _____.

Options:
1) propeller turbine
2) Francis turbine
3) Impulse turbine
4) Francis turbine or impulse turbine

Q 30: One dimensional flow is _____.

Options:
1) restricted to flow in a straight line
2) uniform flow
3) one which neglects changes in a transverse direction
4) the most general flow

Answer: one which neglects changes in a transverse direction

Q 31: Specific speed of a turbine depends upon _____.

Options:
1) speed, power and discharge
2) discharge and power
3) speed and head
4) speed, power and head

Q 32 If a mouthpiece is running full at the outlet, the vacuum at vena-contracta _____.

Options:
1) increases velocity of jet.
2) decreases velocity of jet
3) decreases the discharge
4) decreases the value of coefficient of contraction

Answer: increases velocity of jet.

Q 33: When a fluid flows in concentric circles, it is known as _____.

Options:
1) free circular motion
2) free rotational motion
3) free spiral vortex flow
4) free cylindrical vortex flow

Answer: free cylindrical vortex flow

Q 34: Maximum impulse will be developed in hydraulic ram when _____.

Options:
1) when valve closes suddenly
2) supply pipe is long
3) supply pipe is short
4) ram chamber is large

Answer: when valve closes suddenly

Q 35: Critical-depth meter is used to measure _____.

Options:
1) discharge in an open channel
2) hydraulic jump
3) depth of flow in channel
4) depth of channel

Answer: discharge in an open channel

Q 36: Medium specific speed of a pump implies that it is _____.

Options:
1) centrifugal pump
2) mixed flow pump
3) axial flow pump
4) axial flow pump or centrifugal pump

Answer: mixed flow pump

Q 37: The hydraulic grade line is _____.

Options:
1) always moving up
2) always moving down
3) always above the energy grade line
4) the velocity head below the energy grade line

Q 38: The ratio of depth of bucket for a Pelton wheel to the diameter of jet is of the order of _____.

Options:
1) 1
2) 1.2
3) 1.5
4) 1.8

Q 39: The contraction of area for flow through orifice in tank depends on _____.
A. shape of orifice
B. size of orifice
C. head in tank

Options:
1) only A
2) only A and B
3) only A and C
4) A, B and C

Answer: A, B and C

Q 40: The flow at critical depth in an open channel is _____.

Options:
1) maximum
2) minimum
3) zero
4) half of normal flow

Q 41: In Kaplan turbine runner, the number of blades is generally of the order _____.

Options:
1) 2 – 4
2) 4 – 8
3) 8 – 16
4) 16 – 24

Answer: 4 – 8

Q 42: Air vessels in reciprocating pump are used to _____.

Options:
1) smoothen flow
2) reduce acceleration to minimum
3) increase pump efficiency
4) save pump from cavitation

Answer: reduce acceleration to minimum

Q 43: A hydraulic intensifier normally consists of _____.

Options:
1) two cylinders, two rams and a storage device
2) a cylinder and a ram
3) two co-axial rams and two cylinders
4) a cylinder, a piston, storage tank and control valve

Answer: two co-axial rams and two cylinders

Q 44: Cavitation is caused by _____.

Options:
1) high velocity
2) high pressure
3) weak material
4) low pressure

Q 45: Which of the following pumps is used for pumping viscous fluids?

Options:
1) centrifugal pump
2) screw pump
3) reciprocating pump
4) jet pump

Q 46: Steel whose elements are used for the purpose of modifying the mechanical properties of plain carbon steel is called _____.

Options:
1) Alloy steel
2) Invar
3) Stainless steel
4) High speed steel

Q 47: Alloy steel containing 36% nickel is called _____.

Options:
1) Invar
2) Stainless steel
3) High speed steel
4) None of these

Q 48: Carbon steel is _____.

Options:
1) produced by adding carbon in steel
2) an alloy of iron and carbon with varying quantities of phosphorus and sulphur
3) purer than the cast iron
4) None of these

Answer: an alloy of iron and carbon with varying quantities of phosphorus and sulphur

Q 49: Percentage of carbon in steel is _____.

Options:
1) 0.1% to 0.8%
2) 0.35% to 0.45%
3) 1.8% to 4.2%
4) 0.1% to 1.5%

Answer: 0.1% to 1.5%

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Q 50: Hardness of steel depends on _____.

Options:
1) amount of cementite it contains
2) amount of carbon it contains
3) contents of alloying elements
4) method of manufacture of steel

Answer: amount of carbon it contains

Q 51: _____ is added to raise the yeild point of low carbon steel.

Options:
1) Silicon
2) Carbon
3) Phosphorous
4) Sulphur

Q 52: An alloy steel contains _____.

Options:
1) more than 0.5% Mn and 0.5% Si
2) less than 0.5% Mn and 0.5% Si
3) more than 0.35% Mn and 0.5% Si
4) less than 0.35% Mn and 0.5% Si

Answer: more than 0.5% Mn and 0.5% Si

Q 53: Alloy steel as compared to carbon steel is more _____.
A. tough
B. b
C. fatigue resistance

Options:
1) only A
2) only B
3) only C
4) None of these

Answer: None of these

Q 54: Steel which destroys by burning is called _____.

Options:
1) Alloy steel
2) Carbon steel
3) Silicon steel
4) Killed steel

Q 55: In steel, main alloy causing corrosion resistance is _____.

Options:
1) Manganese
3) Chromium
4) Cobalt

Q 56: The crest diameter of a screw thread is same as _____.

Options:
1) major diameter
2) minor diameter
3) pitch diameter
4) core diameter

Q 57: The function of a washer is to _____.

Options:
1) provide cushioning effect
2) provide bearing area
3) absorb shocks and vibrations
4) provide smooth surface in place of rough surface

Answer: provide bearing area

Q 58: The rivet for general purpose shown in the figure below is:

Options:
1) snap
2) pan
3) counter sunk
4) flat

Q 59: The key shown in the figure below is:

Options:
1) Lewis key
2) Kennedy key
3) Pin key
4) Barth key

Q 60: Fibrous fracture occurs in _____.

Options:
1) ductile material
2) brittle material
3) elastic material
4) hard material

Q 61: For tight leakage joints, following type of thread is best suited _____.

Options:
1) metric
2) buttress
3) NPT (National Pipe Threads)
4) acme

Q 62: A backing ring is used inside the pipe joint when making a _____.

Options:
1) butt weld
2) fillet weld
3) sleeve weld
4) socket weld

Q 63: Which of the following pipe joints would be suitable for pipes carrying steam?

Options:
1) flanged
3) bell and spigot
4) expansion

Q 64: Antifriction bearings are:-
A. Sleeve bearings
B. Hydrodynamic bearings
C.Thin lubricated bearings
D. Ball and roller bearings

Options:
1) only A
2) only B and C
3) only C
4) None of these

Answer: None of these

Q 65: In V-belt drive, belt touches _____.

Options:
1) at bottom
2) at sides only
3) both at bottom and sides
4) could touch anywhere

Answer: at sides only

Q 66: In standard taper roller bearings, the angle of taper of outer raceway is _____.

Options:
1) 5°
2) 8°
3) 15°
4) 25°

Q 67: Basic shaft is one _____.

Options:
1) whose upper deviation is zero
2) whose lower deviation is zero
3) whose lower as well as upper deviations are zero
4) does not exist

Answer: whose upper deviation is zero

Q 68: Allen bolts are _____.

Options:
1) self-locking bolts
2) designed for shock load
3) used in aircraft application
4) provided with hexagonal depression in head

Answer: provided with hexagonal depression in head

Q 69: If the tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is 60%, then ratio of rivet hole diameter to the pitch of rivets is _____.

Options:
1) 0.2
2) 0.33
3) 0.4
4) 0.5

Q 70: A riveted joint may fail due to:-
A. Shearing of the rivet
B. Shearing off the plate at an edge
C. Crushing of the rivet

Options:
1) only A
2) only B
3) only C
4) Any of A or B or C

Answer: Any of A or B or C

Q 71: The same volume of all gases would represent their _____.

Options:
1) densities
2) specific weights
3) molecular weights
4) gas characteristics constants

Q 72: Extensive property of a system is one whose value _____.

Options:
1) depends on the mass of the system, like volume
2) does not depend on the mass of the system, like temperature, pressure etc.
3) is not dependent on the path followed but on the state
4) is dependent on the path followed and not on the state

Answer: depends on the mass of the system, like volume

Q 73: In an isothermal process, the internal energy of gas molecules _____.

Options:
1) increases
2) decreases
3) remains constant
4) may increase/decrease depending on the properties of gas

Q 74: The more effective way of increasing efficiency of Carnot engine is to _____.

Options:
1) increase higher temperature
2) decrease higher temperature
3) increase lower temperature
4) decrease lower temperature

Answer: decrease lower temperature

Q 75: Under ideal conditions, isothermal, isobaric, isochoric and adiabatic processes are _____.

Options:
1) static processes
2) dynamic processes
3) quasi-static processes
4) stable processes

Q 76: Total heat of a substance is also known as _____.

Options:
1) internal energy
2) entropy
3) thermal capacity
4) enthalpy

Q 77: In a Carnot cycle, heat is transferred at _____.

Options:
1) constant pressure
2) constant volume
3) constant temperature
4) constant enthalpy

Q 78: Change of entropy depends upon _____.

Options:
1) change of mass
2) change of temperature
3) change of specific heats
4) change of heat

Answer: change of heat

Q 79: Compressed air coming out from a punctured football _____.

Options:
1) becomes hotter
2) becomes cooler
3) remains at the same temperature
4) may become hotter or cooler depending upon the humidity of the surrounding air

Q 80: The ratio of actual cycle efficiency to that of ideal cycle efficiency is called _____.

Options:
1) effectiveness
2) work ratio
3) efficiency ratio
4) isentropic efficiency

Q 81: Which of the following cycles is not a reversible cycle?
A. Carnot
B. Ericsson
C. Stirling
D. Joule

Options:
1) only A
2) only A and B
3) only C
4) None of these

Answer: None of these

Q 82: A system will be thermodynamic equilibrium only if it is in _____.
A. Thermal equilibrium
B. Mechanical equilibrium
C. Chemical equilibrium

Options:
1) only A
2) only B
3) only C
4) A, B and C

Answer: A, B and C

Q 83: Two gases A and B with their molecular weights 28 and 44 respectivelly, expand at constant pressures through the same temperature range. The ratio of quantity of work done by the two gases (A:B) is _____.

Options:
1) 7:11
2) 11:7
3) 4:11
4) 7:4

Q 84: Davis steering gear consists of _____.

Options:
1) Sliding pairs
2) Turning pairs
3) Rolling pairs
4) Higher pairs

Q 85: Properties of substances like pressure, temperature and density, in thermodynamic co-ordinates are _____.

Options:
1) path functions
2) point functions
3) cyclic functions
4) real functions

Q 86: The refrigeration plants are charged by refrigerants from the cylinder at the _____.

Options:
1) suction of compressor
2) crank case of compressor
3) evaporator

Q 87: Which of the following refrigerant characteristics change constantly during the cooling cycle?

Options:
1) pressure and phase
2) temperature and pressure
3) phase and flow
4) flow and pressure

Answer: temperature and pressure

Q 88: Moisture in a refrigerant system is removed by _____.
A. Driers
B. Filter driers
C. Desiccants

Options:
1) only A
2) only B
3) only C
4) A, B and C

Answer: A, B and C

Q 89: The most suitable refrigerant for a commercial ice plant is _____.

Options:
1) Brine
2) NH3
3) Freon
4) Air

Q 90: Fittings in ammonia absorption refrigeration system are made of _____.

Options:
1) Cast steel or forgings
2) Copper
3) Brass
4) Aluminium

Answer: Cast steel or forgings

Q 91: Lithium bromide in vapour absorption refrigeration system is used as _____.

Options:
1) refrigerant
2) cooling substance
3) auxiliary refrigerant
4) absorbent

Q 92: The condenser and evaporator tubes in a Freon refrigeration plant are made of _____.

Options:
1) steel
2) copper
3) brass
4) aluminium

Q 93: Vertical lines on pressure-enthalpy chart show constant _____.

Options:
1) pressure lines
2) temperature lines
3) total heat lines
4) entropy lines

Answer: total heat lines

Q 94: The coefficient of performance is the ratio of the refrigerant effect to the _____.
A. Heat of compression
B. Work done by compressor
C. Enthalpy increase in compressor

Options:
1) only A
2) only B
3) only C
4) A, B and C

Answer: A, B and C

Q 95: Moisture in Freon refrigeration system causes _____.

Options:
1) ineffective refrigeration
2) high power consumption
3) freezing automatic regulating valve
4) corrosion of whole system

Answer: freezing automatic regulating valve

Q 96: Efficiency of the Carnot engine is given as 80%. If the cycle direction be reversed, what will be the value of coefficient of performance of reversed Carnot cycle?

Options:
1) 1.25
2) 0.8
3) 0.5
4) 0.25

Q 97 During the sensible cooling process _____.

Options:
1) specific humidity remains constant
2) specific humidity increases
3) specific humidity decreases
4) specific humidity is unpredictable

Answer: specific humidity remains constant

Q 98: On psychrometric chart, wet bulb temperature lines are _____.

Options:
1) horizontal
2) vertical
3) straight inclined sloping downward to the right
4) curved

Answer: straight inclined sloping downward to the right

Q 99: If air is heated without changing its moisture content, the dew point will _____.

Options:
1) increase
2) decrease
3) remain the same
4) unpredictable

Answer: remain the same

Q 100: Air is normally dehumidified by _____.

Options:
1) injecting water
2) passing steam
3) heating
4) cooling