SSC Junior Engineer (JE) Exam “held in March 2017” Shift-1 (General Engineering)
Q 1 – For construction of structures under water, the type of lime used is _____.
Options:
1) hydraulic lime
2) fat lime
3) quick lime
4) pure lime
Answer: hydraulic lime
Q 2 – The compound of Portland cement which reacts immediately with water and also sets first is _____.
Options:
1) Tri-calcium silicate
2) Di-calcium silicate
3) Tri-calcium aluminate
4) Tetra calcium alumino ferrite
Answer: Tri-calcium aluminate
Q 3 – Rapid hardening cement attains early strength due to _____.
Options:
1) larger proportion of lime grounded finer than normal cement
2) lesser proportion of lime grounded coarser than normal cement
3) lesser proportion of lime grounded finer than normal cement
4) larger proportion of lime grounded coarser than normal cement
Answer: larger proportion of lime grounded finer than normal cement
Q 4 – The percentage of water for normal consistency is _____.
Options:
1) 5 % to 15%
2) 10% to 25%
3) 15% to 25%
4) 20% to 30%
Answer: 15% to 25%
Q 5 – Soundness test of cement determines _____.
Options:
1) quality of free lime
2) ultimate strength
3) durability
4) initial setting
Answer: quality of free lime
Q 6 – Bulking of sand is caused due to _____.
Options:
1) surface moisture
2) air voids
3) viscosity
4) clay contents
Answer: surface moisture
Q 7 – For a 50 kg cement bag, water required is _____.
Options:
1) 16.5 liters
2) 18.5 liters
3) 20.5 liters
4) 22.5 liters
Answer: 22.5 liters
Q 8 – Pick up the correct statement from the following Method of sawing timber _____.
Options:
1) tangentially to annual rings, is known as tangential method
2) in four quarters such that each board cuts annual rings at angles not less than 45°, is known as quarter sawing method
3) cut out of quarter logs, parallel to the medullary rays and perpendicular to annual rings is known as radial sawing
4) All options are correct
Answer: All options are correct
Q 9 – For the manufacture of plywood, veneers are placed so that grains of adjacent veneers are _____.
Options:
1) at right angles
2) parallel
3) inclined at 45°
4) inclined at 60°
Answer: at right angles
Q 10 – The portion of the brick without a triangular corner equal to half the width and half the length is called _____.
Options:
1) closer
2) queen closer
3) king closer
4) squint brick
Answer: king closer
Q 11 – The height of the sink of wash basin above floor level is kept _____.
Options:
1) 60 cm
2) 70 cm
3) 75 cm to 80 cm
4) 80 cm
Answer: 75 cm to 80 cm
Q 12 – Pick up the correct statement from the following.
Options:
1) In order to check up the average depth of excavation, ‘Dead mans’ are left at the mid-widths of borrow pits
2) The earthwork calculation in excavation is made from the difference in levels obtained with a level
3) The earthwork done in excavation is to form the road embankment includes the formation of correct profiles and depositing the soil in layers
4) All options are correct
Answer: All options are correct
Q 13 – If the formation level of a highway has a uniform gradient for a particular length and the ground is also having a longitudinal slope, the earthwork may be calculated by _____.
Options:
1) Mid-section formula
2) Trapezoidal formula
3) Prismoidal formula
4) All options are correct
Answer: All options are correct
Q 14 – The area of a sloping surface of a protective embankment of mean height d, side slopes S:1 and length L is _____.
Options:
1) d x d x s
2) √[(d2 x (ds2)]
3) L.D √(1+s2)
4) 2Ld √(1+s2)
Answer: L.D √(1+s2)
Q 15 – A cement concrete road is 1000 m long, 8 m wide and 15 cm thick over the sub-base of 10 cm thick gravel. The cubic content of concrete (1:2:4) for the road specified in is _____.
Options:
1) 300 m3
2) 600 m3
3) 900 m3
4) 1200 m3
Answer: 1200 m3
Q 16 – The cross-sectional area of the embankment of a canal fully in embankment, (refer the figure given below) is:-
Options:
1) 1/2(b1+b2)h
2) (b1+b2)h+ Sb2
3) (b1+b2)+2Sh2
4) 2[(b1+b2)(b+Sh)]
Answer: (b1+b2)+2Sh2
Q 17 – The following item of earthwork is not measured separately _____.
Options:
1) Setting out of works
2) Site clearance
3) dead men
4) All options are correct
Answer: All options are correct
Q 18 – Pick up the incorrect statement from the following _____.
Options:
1) No deduction is made for the volume occupied by reinforcement
2) No deduction is made for the openings up to 0.1 sq.m
3) No deduction is made for volumes occupied by pipes, not exceeding 100 sq. cm in cross- section
4) None of the these
Answer: None of the these
Q 19 – While estimating a reinforced cement structure the omitted cover of concrete is assumed _____.
Options:
1) at the end of reinforcing bar, not less than 25 mm or twice the diameter of the bar
2) in thin slabs, 12 mm minimum or diameter of the bar whichever is more
3) for reinforcing longitudinal bar in a beam 25 mm minimum or diameter of the largest bar which is more
4) All options are correct
Answer: All options are correct
Q 20 – For 100 sq. m cement concrete (1:2:4) 4 cm thick floor, the quantity of cement required is _____.
Options:
1) 0.90 m3
2) 0.94 m3
3) 0.98 m3
4) 1.00 m3
Answer: 0.94 m3
Q 21 – If h is the difference in height between end points of a chain of length l the required slope correction is _____.
Options:
1) h2/(2l)
2) h/(2l)
3) h2/l
4) h2/(4l)
Answer: h2/(2l)
Q 22 – Correction per chain length of 100 links along a slope of α radians is _____.
Options:
1) 100 α2
2) 100 α
3) 100 α3
4) 100 α(-1)
Answer: 100 α
Q 23 – Check lines (or proof lines) in Chain Surveying are essentially required _____.
Options:
1) to plot the chain lines
2) to plot the offsets
3) to indicate the accuracy of the survey work
4) to increase the out-turn
Answer: to indicate the accuracy of the survey work
Q 24 – For taking offsets with an optical square on the right hand side of the chain line it is held _____.
Options:
1) by right hand upside down
2) by left hand upright
3) by right hand upright
4) by left hand upside down
Answer: by left hand upright
Q 25 – The conventional sign shown in the figure below represents a.
Options:
1) road bridge
2) railway bridge
3) canal bridge
4) aquaduct
Answer: road bridge
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Q 26 – In an adjusted level when the bubble is central, the axis of the bubble tube becomes parallel to _____.
Options:
1) line of sight
2) line of collimation
3) axis of the telescope
4) None of the these
Answer: line of sight
Q 27 – An internal focusing type surveying telescope may be focused by the movement of _____.
Options:
1) objective glass of the telescope
2) convex-lens in the telescope
3) concave lens in the telescope
4) plano-convex lens in the telescope
Answer: concave lens in the telescope
Q 28 – A dumpy level is set up with its eye-piece vertically over a peg A. The height from the top of peg A to the center of the eye-piece is 1.540 m and the reading on peg B is 0.705 m. The level is then setup over B. The height of the eye-piece above peg B is 1.490 m and a reading on A is 2.195 m. The difference in level between A and B is _____.
Options:
1) 2.900 m
2) 3.030 m
3) 0.770 m
4) 0.785 m
Answer: 0.770 m
Q 29 – The constant vertical distance between two adjacent contours is called _____.
Options:
1) horizontal interval
2) horizontal equivalent
3) vertical equivalent
4) contour interval
Answer: contour interval
Q 30 – The direction of steepest slope on a contour is _____.
Options:
1) along the contour
2) at an angle of 45° to the contour
3) at right angles to the contour
4) None of the these
Answer: at right angles to the contour
Q 31 – Geologic cycle for the formation of soil, is _____.
Options:
1) Upheaval → transportation → deposition → weathering
2) Weathering → upheaval → transportation → deposition
3) Transportation → upheaval → weathering → deposition
4) weathering → transportation → deposition → upheaval
Answer: weathering → transportation → deposition → upheaval
Q 32 – Water content of a soil sample is the difference of the weight of the given sample at the given temperature and the weight determined after drying it for 24 hours at temperatures ranging from _____.
Options:
1) 80° to 90° C
2) 90° to 95° C
3) 95° to 100° C
4) 105° to 110° C
Answer: 105° to 110° C
Q 33 – Fundamental relationship between dry density (γd), bulk density (γ) and water content (ω) is _____.
Options:
1) γ = γd/(1+ω)
2) γd = γ/(1+ ω)
3) ω = γ/(1+γd )
4) ω = γ/(1-γd )
Answer: γd = γ/(1+ ω)
Q 34 – Pick up the correct statement from the following _____.
Options:
1) The void ratio in soils is defined as the ratio of the volume of voids to the volume of solids
2) The porosity of a soil is defined as the ratio of the volume of voids to the gross volume of the soil
3) The bulk density of a soil is defined as the unit weight of the soil
4) All options are correct
Answer: All options are correct
Q 35 – Alcohol is used in manometer, because _____.
Options:
1) its vapor pressure is low
2) it provides suitable meniscus for the inclined tube
3) its density is less
4) it provides longer length for a given pressure difference
Answer: its vapor pressure is low
Q 36 – The property of fluid by virtue of which it offers resistance to shear is called _____.
Options:
1) surface tension
2) adhesion
3) cohesion
4) viscosity
Answer: viscosity
Q 37 – The unit of kinematic viscosity is _____.
Options:
1) m2/sec
2) kg-sec/m2
3) newton-sec/m2
4) newton-sec2/m
Answer: m2/sec
Q 38 – The total pressure on the surface of a vertical sluice gate 2m x 1m with its top 2 m surface being 0.5 m below the water level will be _____.
Options:
1) 500 kg
2) 1000 kg
3) 1500 kg
4) 2000 kg
Answer: 2000 kg
Q 39 – Metacentric height is given as the distance between _____.
Options:
1) the centre of gravity of the body and the metacentre
2) the centre of gravity of the body and the centre of buoyancy
3) the centre of gravity of the body and the centre of pressure
4) centre of buoyancy and metacentre
Answer: the centre of gravity of the body and the metacentre
Q 40 – The difference of pressure between the inside and outside of a liquid drop is _____.
Options:
1) p = T x r
2) p = T/r
3) p = T/2r
4) p = 2T/r
Answer: p = 2T/r
Q 41 – The property by which a liquid opposes relative motion between its different layers is called _____.
Options:
1) surface tension
2) co-efficient of viscosity
3) viscosity
4) osmosis
Answer: surface tension
Q 42 – The atmospheric pressure with rise in altitude decreases _____.
Options:
1) linearly
2) first slowly then steeply
3) first steeply and then gradually
4) unpredictable
Answer: first slowly then steeply
Q 43 – Barometer is used to measure _____.
Options:
1) pressure in pipes, channels etc..
2) atmospheric pressure
3) very low pressure
4) difference of pressure between two points
Answer: atmospheric pressure
Q 44 – Flow meters based on obstruction principle like orifice plates can be used with Reynold’s number upto approximately _____.
Options:
1) 500
2) 1000
3) 2000
4) 4000
Answer: 2000
Q 45 – The state of the soil when plants fail to extract sufficient water for their requirements is _____.
Options:
1) maximum saturated point
2) permanent wilting point
3) ultimate utilization point
4) None of these
Answer: None of these
Q 46 – The field capacity of a soil is 25%, its permanent wilting point is 15% and specific dry unit weight is 1.5. If the depth of root zone of a crop is 80 cm, the storage capacity of the soil is _____.
Options:
1) 8 cm
2) 10 cm
3) 12 cm
4) 14 cm
Answer: 12 cm
Q 47 – According to the recommendations of Nagpur Conference the width formation of an ideal National Highway in hard rock cutting is _____.
Options:
1) 8.9 m
2) 7.9 m
3) 6.9 m
4) 6.5 m
Answer: 7.9 m
Q 48 – If L is the length of a rail and R is the radius of a curve, the versine h for the curve is _____.
Options:
1) a= L/4R
2) a= L2/4R
3) h= L2/8R
4) h= L2/16R
Answer: h= L2/8R
Q 49 – Pick up the incorrect statement from the following.
Options:
1) Manholes are provided in sewer pipes at suitable intervals
2) Catch basins are generally provided in sewers for carrying drainage discharge
3) Inlets are generally provided in all sewers
4) None of the these
Answer: Inlets are generally provided in all sewers
Q 50 – If q is the average sewage flow from a city of population P, the maximum sewage flow _____.
Options:
1) Q = [(4+√P)/(18+ √P)]q
2) Q = [(18 +P)/(4+ √P)]q
3) Q = [(18+√P)/(4 + √P)]q
4) Q = [(5+√P)/(15 + √P)]q
Answer: Q = [(18+√P)/(4 + √P)]q
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Q 51 – A body is said to be in equilibrium if _____.
Options:
1) it moves horizontally
2) it moves vertically
3) it rotates about its C.G.
4) None of these
Answer: None of these
Q 52 – The force acting normally on the cross section of a bar shown in the figure given below introduce_______.
Options:
1) compressive stress
2) tensile stress
3) shear stress
4) None of these
Answer: compressive stress
Q 53 – At yield point of a test piece, the material _____.
Options:
1) obeys Hooke’s law
2) behaves in an elastic manner
3) regains its original shape on removal of the load
4) undergoes plastic deformation
Answer: undergoes plastic deformation
Q 54 – If a concrete column 200 x 200 mm in cross-section is reinforced with four steel bars of 1200 mm2 total cross-sectional area. What is the safe load for the column if permissible stress in concrete is 5 N/mm2 and Es =15 Ec?
Options:
1) 264 MN
2) 274 MN
3) 284 MN
4) 294 MN
Answer: 284 MN
Q 55 – A steel rod of sectional area 25 sq. mm connects two parallel walls 5 m apart. The nuts at the ends were tightened when the rod was heated at 100° C. If αsteel = 0.000012/C°, Esteel = 0.2 MN/mm2, the tensile force developed at a temperature of 50° C is _____.
Options:
1) 80 N/mm2
2) 100 N/mm2
3) 120 N/mm2
4) 150 N/mm2
Answer: 120 N/mm2
Q 56 – The ratio of tangential and normal components of a stress on an inclined plane through θ° to the direction of the force is _____.
Options:
1) sinθ
2) cosθ
3) tanθ
4) cosθ
Answer: tanθ
Q 57 – Pick up the correct statement from the following.
Options:
1) For a uniformly distributed load, the shear force varies linearly
2) For a uniformly distributed load, bulk modular curve is a parabola
3) For a load varying linearly, the shear force curve is a parabola
4) All options are correct
Answer: All options are correct
Q 58 – At any point of a beam, the section modulus may be obtained by dividing the moment of inertia of the section by _____.
Options:
1) depth of the section
2) depth of the neutral axis
3) maximum tensile stress at the section
4) maximum compressive stress at the section
Answer: depth of the neutral axis
Q 59 – The moment of inertia of a circular section about any diameter D, is ____.
Options:
1) (πD2)/64
2) (πD4)/32
3) (πD3)/64
4) (πD4)/64
Answer: (πD4)/64
Q 60 – In case of principal axes of a section _____.
Options:
1) sum of moment of inertia is zero
2) difference of moment of inertia is zero
3) product of moment of inertia is zero
4) None of these
Answer: product of moment of inertia is zero
Q 61 – The locus of the moment of inertia about inclined axis to the principal axis is _____.
Options:
1) straight line
2) parabola
3) circle
4) ellipse
Answer: ellipse
Q 62 – The ratio of moments of inertia of a triangular section about its base and about a centroidal axis parallel to its base is _____.
Options:
1) 1
2) 1.5
3) 2
4) 3
Answer: 3
Q 63 – If aggregates completely pass through a sieve of size 75 mm and are retained on a sieve of size 60 mm, the particular aggregate will be flaky if its minimum dimension is less than _____.
Options:
1) 20.5 mm
2) 30.5 mm
3) 40.5 mm
4) 50.5 mm
Answer: 40.5 mm
Q 64 – For the construction of thin R.C.C. structures the type of cement to be avoided is _____.
Options:
1) ordinary Portland cement
2) rapid hardening cement
3) low heat cement
4) blast furnace slag cement
Answer: blast furnace slag cement
Q 65 – Percentage of pozzolanic material containing clay upto 80% used for the manufacture of pozzolana cement is _____.
Options:
1) 30%
2) 40%
3) 50%
4) 60%
Answer: 30%
Q 66 – Pick up the incorrect statement applicable to the field test of good cement.
Options:
1) When one thrusts one’s hand into a bag of cement, one should feel warm
2) The color of the cement is bluish
3) A handful of cement thrown into a bucket of water should sink immediately
4) All options are correct
Answer: All options are correct
Q 67 – Pick up the correct statement from the following.
Options:
1) The maximum size of a coarse aggregate is 75 mm and minimum is 4.75 mm
2) The maximum size of the fine aggregate is 4.75 mm and minimum 0.75 mm
3) The material having particles of size varying from 0.06 mm to 0.002 mm is known as silt
4) All options are correct
Answer: All options are correct
Q 68 – Sand generally contains salt if it is obtained from _____.
Options:
1) nala beds
2) river beds
3) sea beds
4) All options are correct
Answer: sea beds
Q 69 – Pick up the correct statement from the following.
Options:
1) Bulking of sand is caused due to formation of a thin film of surface moisture
2) Fine sand bulks more than coarse sand
3) With 10% moisture content by weight the bulking of sand is increased by 50%
4) All options are correct
Answer: All options are correct
Q 70 – If fineness modulus of sand is 2.5 it is graded as _____.
Options:
1) very fine sand
2) fine sand
3) medium sand
4) coarse sand
Answer: fine sand
Q 71 – An ordinary Portland cement when tested for its fineness, should not leave any residue on I.S. Sieve No.9, more than _____.
Options:
1) 5%
2) 10%
3) 15%
4) 20%
Answer: 10%
Q 72 – Pick up the correct statement from the following.
Options:
1) Insufficient quantity of water makes the concrete mix harsh
2) Insufficient quantity of water makes the concrete unworkable
3) Excess quantity of water makes the concrete segregated
4) All options are correct
Answer: All options are correct
Q 73 – Pick up the incorrect statement from the following.
Options:
1) A rich mix of concrete possesses higher strength than that a lean mix of desired workability with excessive quantity of water
2) The strength of concrete decreases as the water cement ratio increases
3) If the water cement ratio is less than 0.45, the concrete is not workable and causes honey-combed structure
4) Good compaction by mechanical vibrations, increases the strength of concrete
Answer: A rich mix of concrete possesses higher strength than that a lean mix of desired workability with excessive quantity of water
Q 74 – Pick up the correct statement from the following.
Options:
1) The concrete gains strength due to hydration of cement
2) The concrete cured at a temperature below 23° C, gains strength up to 28 days
3) The concrete does not set at freezing point
4) All options are correct
Answer: All options are correct
Q 75 – Hardening of cement occurs at _____.
Options:
1) rapid rate during the first few days and afterwards it continues to increase at a decreased rate
2) slow rate during the first few days and afterwards it continues to increase at a rapid rate
3) uniform rate throughout its age
4) None of these
Answer: None of these
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Q 76 – Pick up the correct statement from the following.
Options:
1) Higher workability indicates unexpected increase in the moisture content
2) Higher workability indicates deficiency of sand
3) If the concrete mix is dry, the slump is zero
4) All options are correct
Answer: All options are correct
Q 77 – The top diameter, bottom diameter and the height of a slump mould are _____.
Options:
1) 10 cm, 20 cm, 30 cm
2) 10 cm, 30 cm, 20 cm
3) 20 cm, 10 cm, 30 cm
4) 20 cm, 30 cm, 10 cm
Answer: 10 cm, 20 cm, 30 cm
Q 78 – Pick up the correct statement from the following.
Options:
1) Segregation is necessary for a workable concrete
2) Consistency does not affect the workability of concrete
3) If the slump increases, workability decreases
4) None of these
Answer: None of these
Q 79 – The grade of concrete M 150 means that compressive strength of a 15 cm cube after 28 days, is _____.
Options:
1) 100 kg/cm2
2) 150 kg/cm2
3) 200 kg/cm2
4) 250 kg/cm2
Answer: 150 kg/cm2
Q 80 – The preliminary test is repeated if the difference compressive strength of three test specimens, exceeds _____.
Options:
1) 5 kg/cm2
2) 8 kg/cm2
3) 10 kg/cm2
4) 15 kg/cm2
Answer: 15 kg/cm2
Q 81 – According to load factor method, the permissible load W on a short column reinforced with longitudinal bars and lateral stirrups is _____.
Options:
1) Stress in concrete x area of concrete
2) Stress in steel x area of steel
3) Stress in concrete x area of concrete + stress in steel x area of steel
4) None of these
Answer: Stress in concrete x area of concrete + stress in steel x area of steel
Q 82 – The length of the lap in a compression member is kept greater than [bar diameter x (Permissible stress in bar )/(Five times the bond stress)] or is _____.
Options:
1) 12 bar diameters
2) 18 bar diameters
3) 24 bar diameters
4) 30 bar diameters
Answer: 24 bar diameters
Q 83 – A short column 20 cm x 20 cm in section is reinforced with 4 bars whose area of cross section is 20 sq.cm. If permissible compressive stresses in concrete and steel are 40 kg/cm2 and 300 kg/cm2, the safe load on the column should not exceed _____.
Options:
1) 412 kg
2) 4120 kg
3) 412000 kg
4) None of these
Answer: None of these
Q 84 – A column is regarded as long column if the ratio of its effective length and lateral dimension exceeds _____.
Options:
1) 10
2) 15
3) 20
4) None of these
Answer: None of these
Q 85 – If the size of a column is reduced above the floor, the main bars of the columns _____.
Options:
1) continues up
2) bend inwards at the floor level
3) stops just below the floor level and separates lap bars provided
4) All options are correct
Answer: All options are correct
Q 86 – The pitch of the main bars in a simply supported slab should not exceed its effective depth by _____.
Options:
1) three times
2) four times
3) five times
4) six times
Answer: six times
Q 87 – Distribution reinforcement in a simply supported slab is provided to distribute _____.
Options:
1) load
2) temperature stress
3) shrinkage stress
4) All options are correct
Answer: All options are correct
Q 88 – In a simply supported slab the minimum spacing of distribution reinforcement should be four times the effective thickness of the slab or _____.
Options:
1) 20 cm
2) 30 cm
3) 40 cm
4) None of these
Answer: None of these
Q 89 – The modular ratio ‘m’ of a concrete whose permissible compressive stress is ‘C’ may be obtained from the equation _____.
Options:
1) m = 700/3C
2) m = 1400/3C
3) m = 2800/3C
4) m = 3500/3C
Answer: m = 2800/3C
Q 90 – For M 150 grade concrete (1 : 2 : 4) the moment of resistance factor is _____.
Options:
1) 0.87
2) 8.5
3) 7.5
4) 5.8
Answer: 8.5
Q 91 – If the thickness of a structural member is small as compared to its length and width, it is classified as _____.
Options:
1) one dimensional
2) two dimensional
3) three dimensional
4) None of these
Answer: two dimensional
Q 92 – Design of a riveted joint assumes that _____.
Options:
1) the bending stress in rivets is accounted for
2) the riveted hole is to be filled by the rivet
3) the stress in the plate is not uniform
4) the friction between plates is considered
Answer: the riveted hole is to be filled by the rivet
Q 93 – Rolled steel T-sections are used _____.
Options:
1) as columns
2) with flat strips to connect plates in steel rectangular tanks
3) as built up sections to resist axial tension
4) None of these
Answer: with flat strips to connect plates in steel rectangular tanks
Q 94 – With a percentage increase of carbon in steel, decreases its _____.
Options:
1) strength
2) hardness
3) brittleness
4) ductility
Answer: ductility
Q 95 – If P is the wind pressure in kg/cm2, v is the velocity in km/hour and K is constant of proportionality then _____.
Options:
1) P=K/v2
2) v=K/P2
3) P=Kv2
4) P=Kv
Answer: P=Kv2
Q 96 – Factor of safety is the ratio of _____.
Options:
1) yield stress to working stress
2) tensile stress to working stress
3) compressive stress to working stress
4) bearing stress to working stress
Answer: yield stress to working stress
Q 97 – The ratio of shearing stress to shearing strain within elastic limit, is known as _____.
Options:
1) modulus of elasticity
2) shear modulus of elasticity
3) bulk modulus of elasticity
4) tangent modulus of elasticity
Answer: shear modulus of elasticity
Q 98 – The rivets which are heated and then driven in the field are known _____.
Options:
1) power driven shop rivets
2) power driven field rivets
3) hand driven rivets
4) cold driven rivets\
Answer: power driven field rivets
Q 99 – The gross diameter of a rivet is the diameter of _____.
Options:
1) cold rivet before driving
2) rivet after driving
3) rivet hole
4) None of these
Answer: rivet after driving
Q 100 – Working shear stress on the gross area of a rivet as recommended by Indian Standards is _____.
Options:
1) 785 kg/cm2
2) 1025 kg/cm2
3) 2360 kg/cm2
4) None of the these
Answer: 1025 kg/cm2
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