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# RRB SSE (Senior Section Engineer) Exam 2015 Shift-2

RRB SSE  Senior section engineer (SSE)

Exam Duration:  120
Number of Questions:   150
Total Marks:   150
Correct: 1 mark
Wrong:  0.33 Negative marks

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Q 1: A large body of infinite heat capacity is known as_____
Option:
1) Thermal energy reservoir (TER)
2) Mechanical energy reservoir (MER)
3) Thermometer
4) Heat pump

Q 2: “Heat always flows from a body at a higher temperature to a body at a lower temperature” is the statement of_____
Options:
1) First law of Thermodynamics
2) Second law of thermodynamics
3) Third law of Thermodynamics
4) Zeroth law of thermodynamics

Q 3: The network output for any heat engine is given by
Options:
1) QL-QH
2) QL+QH
3) QH-QL
4) 2QL
Where, QH= magnitude of heat transfer between heat engine and source
QL= magnitude of heat transfer between heat engine and sink

Q 4: A cyclic device which produces work continuously at the expense of heat input is known as_____
Options:
1) Heat pump
2) Refrigerator
3) Heat engine
4) Throttling

Q 5: The substance for which prandtl number (Pr)<< 1 is characterized by_____
Options:
1) High rate of mass diffusion
2) high rate of heat diffusion
3) Low rate of heat diffusion
4) Low rate of mass diffusion
Answer: High rate of heat diffusion

Q 6: The Critical radius of insulation of cylinder is given by______
Options:
1) k/h
2) 2k/h
3) k/2h
4) k/4h

Q 7: Maximum special emissive power at temperature (T) is proportional to____
Options:
1) T5
2) T4
3) T5/2
4) T3

Q 8: Indicated specific fuel consumption is defined as_____
Options:
1) (Fuel consumption per hour) / (Indicated work output)
2) (Fuel consumption per hour) / (Indicated power output)
3) (Indicated power output) / (Fuel consumption per hour)
4) (Fuel consumption per distance travelled) / (indicated power output)
Answer: (Fuel consumption per hour) / (Indicated power output)

Q 9: Which of the following characteristics does not belong to CI engine
Options:
1) Self ignition temperature of its fuel is low
2) It’s compression ratio is comparatively higher
3) They are low speed engine
4) They are light weight engine.
Answer: They are light weight engine.

Q 10: The thermal efficiency of Otto cycle is a function of______
Options:
1) Compression ratio only
2) specific heat ratio only
3) Compression ratio and specific heat ratio
4) Clearance volume only

Q 11: Ignition quality of diesel is characterized by its_____
Options:
1) Boiling point
2) Cetane number
3) Octane nmber
4) Flash point

Q 12:  The property of sand by virtue of which it takes any desired pattern shapes under pressure and retains it after the pressure is removed is known as_____
Option:
1) Plasticity
2) Flow ability
3) Porosity
4) Collapsibility

Q 13: Which of the operation can not be performed on drill machine ?
Options:
1) Boring
2) Reaming
3) Counter boring
4) Facing

Q 14: The production of a conical surface by gradual reduction in diameter is known as
Options:
1) Taper turning
3) Knurling
4) Boring

Q 15: A network that does not have either voltage r current sources is called_____
Options:
1) Active network
2) Passive network
3) Resistive network
4) Dummy network

Q 16: Watt hour is the unit of____
Options:
1) Electric power
2) Electric capacity
3) Electric energy
4) Electric charge

Q 17:  An electric machine will have high efficiency when_____
Options:
1) Input/output ratio is low
2) Reactive power is more
3) kWh consumption is low
4) Losses are low

Q 18: Which single phase motor would you select for a tape recorder ?
Options:
1) Reluctance motor
2) Hysteresis motor
3) Synchronous motor
4) Universal motor

Q 19: A Buchholz relay can be installed on
Options:
1) Auto-transformer
2) Air-cooled transformer
3) Welding transformer
4) Oil cooled transformer

Q 20: A DC series motor is best suited for driving
Options:
1) Lathes
2) Cranes and hoists
3) Shears and punches
4) Machine tools

Q 21: The Power factor at resonance in R-L-C circuit is_____
Option:
1) Zero
2) Unity
3) 0.5 lagging

Q 22: Resistance of a wire is r ohms. The wire is stretched to double its length, then its resistance in ohms is_____
Options:
1) r/2
2) 4r
3) 2r
4) r/4

Q 23: Which of the following will remain the same in all parts of a series circuit ?
Options:
1) Voltage
2) Current
3) Power
4) Resistance

Q 24: First nuclear power station in india established in______
Options:
1) Tarapur
2) Kota
3) Kalpakkam
4) Narora

Q 25: The voltage levels for a negative logic system
Options:
1) Must necessarily be positive
2) Must necessarily be negative
3) Could be negative or positive
4) Must necessarily be either zero or 5V
Answer: Could be negative or positive
[sociallocker] Q 26: In a certain tap full wave rectifier, 100V is the peak voltage between the centre tap and one of the secondary. What is the maximum voltage across the reverse biased diode ?
Options:
1) 200 V
2) 141 V
3) 100 V
4) 86 V

Q 27: _______has the greatest mobility
Options:
1) Hole
2) Electron
3) Positive ion
4) Negative ion

Q 28: The mean free path for electron drift______with purity.
Options:
1) Increases
2) Decreases
3) First increases then decreases
4) Remain same

Q 29: How many numbers of NOR are gates required to realize AND gate.
Options:
1) 2
2) 4
3) 3
4) 5

Q 30: An npn transistor operated at lc= 5mA has a collector load resistor of 2 kilo ohms and its emitter is grounded. The voltage gain of this stage is about. Where VT=25 V (npn)
Options:
1) 100
2) 400
3) 25
4) 10

Q 31: The mostly heavily droped region in a BJT is______.
Options:
1) Collector
2) Emitter
3) Base
4) Both collector and base

Q 32: If all the transmission zeros of a network are at infinity then it is a____
Options:
1) Low pass filter
2) High pass filter
3) Band pass filter
4) Band stop filter

Q 33: In 50% amplitude modulated signal, if the total transmitted power is P, then the carrier power will be____
Options:
1) 1/3 P
2) 2/3 P
3) 2/2.25 P
4) 2/2.5 P

Q 34: In the Inverting op-amp circuit shown in figure, the resistance R2 is chose as R1 ll RF in order to______

Options:
1) Increase CMRR
2) Increase gain
3) Reduce offset voltage
4) Reduce offset current

Q 35: Which of the following is not used as a supplementary cementitious material ?
Options:
1) Fly ash
2) Gypsum
3) Rice husk ash
4) Silica fume

Q 36: According to IS 456, if the maximum aggregate size is increased from 20mm to 40mm, the minimum cement content requirement changes (in kg/cum) by
Options:
1) -20
2) 20
3) -30
4) 30

Q 37: A roof member directly supporting the roof covering or rafter and roof battens is called as______
Options:
1) Truss
2) Beam
3) Strut
4) Purlin

Q 38: Which of the following is not used in the design of concrete mixes as per the relevant Indian standard ?
Options:
1) Air content
span style=”color: #000000; font-size: 10pt;”>2) Water content
4) Bulk density of cement

Q 39: The negative ratio of transverse to axial strain is called as______
Options:
1) Young’s modulus
2) Shear modulus
3) Poisson’s ratio
4) Bulk modulus of elasticity

Q 40: The minimum time before striking the props to slabs (less than 4.5 m) as per IS 456 is_____
Options:
1) 14-day
2) 7-day
3) 3-day
4) 16-24 h

Q 41: The centre distance between individual fasteners in a line, in the direction of load / stress is called as____
Options:
1) Camber
2) Pitch
3) Specific distance
4) Stress lag

Q 42: According to IS 1200, granular sub-base used in pavement construction shall be measured as finished work in position in
Options:
1) Tonnage
2) Square m of plan area
3) Cubic metres
4) Thickness of the layer

Q 43: In surveying, the horizontal angle which a line makes with the magnetic meridian is called as______
Options:
1) Magnetic meridian
2) Grid meridian
3) Arbitrary meridian
4) Grid bearing

Q 44: A liquid forms an interface with another liquid or gas; the surface energy per unit area of the interface is known as
Options:
1) Surface tension
2) specific energy
3) Specific heat
4) Suction energy

Q 45: The property of soil mass pertaining to its susceptibility to decrease in volume under pressure is known as_____
Options:
1) Compactibility
2) Shrinkage
3) Compressibility
4) Expansion

Q 46: According to Darcy’s law, for laminar flow in a saturated soil, the rate of flow is proportional to the_____
Options:
1) Cross sectional area
3) Coefficient of permeability
4) Porosity of the soil

Q 47: The most efficient form of damping employed in electrical instruments is_____
Options:
1) Air friction
2) fluid friction
3) Eddy currents
4) None of these

Q 48: Moving Iron Instruments can be used for
Options:
1) Direct current and voltage
2) Alternating current and voltage
4) Both a and b

Q 49: PMMC ammeter have uniform scale because
Options:
1) Of eddy current damping
2) They are spring controlled
3) Their deflecting torque varies directly as current
4) Both spring controlled and having deflecting torque varies directly as current
Answer: Both spring controlled and having deflecting torque varies directly as current

Q 50: The meter suitable for only DC measurement
Options:
1) Moving iron type
2) Permanent magnet type
3) Electrodynamics type
4) Hot wire type

RRB Senior Section Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)

Q 51: For the measurement of electrical energy, we may use a
Options:
1) Wattmeter
2) kWh meter
3) Multimeter
4) Voltmeter, ammeter and PF meter
Answer: Voltmeter, ammeter and PF meter

Q 52: Identify the incorrect statement
Option:
1) The example of a grassland ecosystem is Grass-grasshopper-frog-snake-hawk
2) The example of a pond ecosystem is Phytoplankton-water fleas-small fish-tuna
3) The example of an arctic tundra ecosystem is lichens-reindeer-man
4) The example of a mangrove ecosystem is Algae-crabs-small carnivorous fish-large carnivorous fish.
Answer: The example of a mangrove ecosystem is Algae-crabs-small carnivorous fish-large carnivorous fish.

Q 53: The water borne disease, cholera is transmitted by_____
Options:
1) Entamoeba histolytica
2) Salmonella typhae
3) Vibrio comma
4) Giardia lamblia

Q 54: The turbidity in surface water is due to presence of_____
Options:
1) Dissolved organics
2) colloidal material
3) Dissolved inorganics
4) Dissolved colors

Q 55: Nitrous oxide is a_____
Options:
2) Good reflector of ultraviolet radiations
3) Good absorber of ultraviolet radiations
4) Good absorber of infrared radiations

Q 56: The prescribed permissible noise level, Leq for residential area at night time is_____
Options:
1) 45 dBA
2) 50 dBA
3) 55 dBA
4) 40 dBA

Q 57: The acid rain is basically caused due to formation of secondary pollutants such as_____
Options:
1) H2SO4, HCL and H2CO3
2) H2SO4, HNO3 and H2CO3
3) H2SO4, HCL and HNO3
4) H2SO4, and H2CO3

Q 58: Wi-Fi stands for______
Options:
1) Wireless Fidelity
2) Wired Fidelity
3) Wireless Field
4) Wireless Finite

Q 59: UNIX is a______
Options:
1) Real time operating system
3) Single-user operating system
4) Distributed operating system

Q 60:  Considering 2’s complement representation for negative numbers, -86 will be stored into an 8-bit memory space as
Options:
1) 10101010
2) 11000111
3) 11101101
4) 10111000

Q 61: considering X and Y as binary variables, the equivalent Boolean expression for X(X+Y) is
Options:
1) X
2) Y
3) X+Y
4) XY

Q 62: ‘C++’ is a_______
Options:
1) Low-level programming language
2) High-level programming language
3) Assembly language
4) Machine language

Q 63: Which of the following statements about High-Level language is correct ?
Options:
1) High-Level language is machine Independent
2) High-Level language is machine dependent
3) High-Level language is difficult than Assembly language to write programs
4) High-Level language programs require Assembler
Answer: High-Level language is machine Independent

Q 64: World Wide Web (WWW) was invented by______
Options:
1) Steve Jobs
2) Bill Gates
3) Tim Berners-Lee
4) Alan Turing

Q 65: Which of the following is not a ‘overwrite’ virus?
Options:
1) Trj.Reboot
2) Meve
3) Trivial.88.D
4) Way

Q 66: Which of the following is not a valid unit to represent the speed of CPU ?
Options:
1) MIPS
2) Hertz (Hz)
3) MFLOPS
4) Byte

Q 67: The 2’s compliment of the binary number (00111100)2 is
Options:
1) (11000100)2
2) (00110000)2
3) (11000011)2
4) (11110100)2

Q 68: A map of 12 cm x 10 cm represents an area of 75000 square Meter of a field. The R.F. of the scale is______
Options:
1) 1/625
2) 1/250
3) 1/2500
4) 1/ 6250000

Q 69: The curve traced by a point on straight line which rolls without slipping on a circle, is called______
Options:
1) Hypocycloid
2) Involute
3) Epicycloids
4) Cycloid

Q 70: The point at which line intersects the V.P., if extended, is known as
Options:
1) Horizontal trace
2) Auxiliary trace
3) Profile trace
4) Vertical trace

Q 71: Projection of an object shown by three views is known as____
Optional:
1) Perspective
2) Oblique
3) Orthographic
4) Isometric

Q 72: In comparison to an isometric projection, the appearance of an isometric view is_____
Options:
1) More realistic
2) More accurate
3) Smaller
4) Larger

Q 73: Alka is standing in a lift. The force exerted by the floor of the lift on the Alka’s foot is more than the weight of Alka if the lift Is_____
Options:
1) Moving upward with increasing speed
2) Moving downward with increasing speed
3) Moving Upward with decreasing speed
4) Moving upward with constant speed
Answer: Moving upward with increasing speed

Q 74: For an orbiting satellite, in agnitude
Options:
1) The kinetic energy is equal to the potential energy
2) The kinetic energy is twice the potential energy
3) The kinetic energy is half the potential energy
4) The kinetic energy is one-fourth the potential energy
Answer: The kinetic energy is half the potential energy

RRB Senior Section Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)

Q 75: An object of mass m1 collides with a stationary object of mass m2. The collsion is elastic.
There is complete transfer of kinetic energy if
Options:
1) m1=m2
2) m1>>m2
3) m1<<m2
4) the masses stick together.

Q 76: Which one of the following represents a standing wave ?
Options:
1) y(x,t) = 4.7 sin(5x-0.4t)
2) y(x,t) = 8.2 sin(2x-t)
3) y(x,t) =5.6 cos 0.5(t-x/2.4)
4) y(x,t) = 4 cos(3x) sin(11t)
Answer: y(x,t) = 4 cos(3x) sin(11t)

Q 77: Two identical thin convex lenses of same power P are placed in contact so that their optic axes coincide. The net power of the combination is
Options:
1) P
2) 2P
3) P/2
4) P/4

Q 78: Which one of following is not a force ?
Options:
1) Gravity
2) Friction
3) Electric Force
4) Electromotive Force

Q 79: In an Industrial area, a sample of 10 liters of air was found to contain 5 mL of sulphur dioxide gas. The concentration of sulphur dioxide gas in air in ppm is
Options:
1) 300
2) 400
3) 500
4) 600

Q 80:  For reaction 2NO2 (g)   N2O4(g)+60kj, an increase in temperature will
Options:
1) Favour the decomposition of N2O4
2) Favour the formation of N2O4
3) Result in the formation of a different reaction product
4) Stop the reaction.
Answer: Favour the decomposition of N2O4

Q 81: Which one of the following is a correct order of increasing electronegativity of elements ?
Options:
1) N > P > O > F
2) F > O > N > P
3) O > P > N > F
4) F > N > P > O
Answer: F > O > N > P

Q 82: The major product formed by treating n-butyl chloride with boiling solution of potassium hydroxide in ethanol is______
Options:
1) 2-Butene
2) n-Butanol
3) 1-Butene
4) Isobutanol

Q 83: Which one of the following aldehydes will not undergo aldol condensation when treated with an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide ?
Options:
1) C6H5CH2CHO
2) CH3CH2CHO
3) CH3CHO
4) HCHO

Q 84: Which one of the following electronic configuration represents a transition element in its ground state ?
Options:
1) 3d3 4s2
2) 2p6 3s1
3) 2s2 2p6
4) 3d10 4s2

Q 85: Which one of the following does not belong to the same class as others
Options:
1) Cat
2) Tiger
3) Lizard
4) Mouse

Q 86: A broad leaved plant was kept in a room with tube lights on. Will it carry out photosynthesis ?
Options:
1) No, Because plants photosynthesize only in sunlight
2) No, Because plants grow and survive only outdoors
3) Yes, Because its leaves were broad and big
4) Yes, Because its gets light for photosynthesis from the tube light
Answer: Yes, Because its gets light for photosynthesis from the tube light

Q 87: Choose the combination of statements which increase fertility of a field and crop yield

1. i) Use seeds of good quality
2. ii) Grow leguminous crop between other crops

iii) Prepare soil before sowing

1. iv) Water them twenty four hours

Options:
1) (i) and (ii)
2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Q 88: Which living beings are made of one cell and contain one DNA molecule. Some of them are useful to humans and some disease causing ?
Options:
1) Amoebae
2) Bacteria
3) Fungi
4) Plants

Q 89: Alimentary canal is______
Options:
1) Long and tube-like with organs that digest food in animals
2) The long tube within plants through which water moves up
3) The canal system of sponges
4) Tube through which eggs are laid by animals
Answer: Long and tube-like with organs that digest food in animals

Q 90: Mushrooms are______
Options:
1) Animals
2) Fungi
3) Plants
4) Protozoa

Q 91: Let x be the least number which on being divided by 5, 6,8,9,12 leaves in each case a remainder 1 but exactly divisible by 13. The sum of digits of x is______
Options:
1) 8
2) 9
3) 10
4) 12

Q 92: Let a=255x323x778, b=253x326x778
C=253x323x780, d=253x324x779
HCF of a,b,c and d is_______
Options:
1) 255x323x778
2) 253x323x778
3) 253x323x780
4) 254x323x778

Q 93: A person saves 25% of his income. Now his income increase by 20% and his expenditure increase by 10%. His percentage increase in savings is_______
Options:
1) 30
2) 40
3) 50
4) 60

Q 94: If A:B= 2:3, B:C=5:6 and C:D=8:9, then A:D is
Options:
1) 2:9
2) 20:81
3) 20:27
4) 40:81

Q 95: At the beginning of a term, the ratio of the number of students in a school under 12 years to those who are 12 years and above was 5.4. At the end of the term, the ratio was 4.5 as 30 students had reached the age of 12 during the term. If no student left or was admitted during the term, the total number of students in the school was______
Options:
1) 180
2) 360
3) 270
4) 540

Q 96: Two alloys A and B contain zinc and copper in the ratio 1:2 and 3;2 respectively. If 6 kg of A and 7.5 kg of B are melted to form a third alloy C, then the percentage of copper in C will be closest to________
Options:
1) 50
2) 49.15
3) 51.85
4) 52

Q 97: Two identical jars are full of solutions of acid and water. The solution of one jar contains 50% acid whereas solution of other jar contains % water. The contents of three jars are emptied into a third jar and mixed. The ratio of water to acid in the third jar is_____
Options:
1) 5:7
2) 7:5
3) 3:2
4) 2:3

Q 98: A computer is available for Rs.22750 cash payment or for Rs.6200 cash down payment and three equal annual installments of Rs.x. If the interest charged is 10% per annum. Compounded annually, the valve of x is_______
Options:
1) 5517
2) 5578
3) 6565
4) 6655

Q 99: A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs.13800 in 3 years. If rate of interest is increased by 30%, the same sum amounts to Rs.14340 in the same time. The rate of interest per annum is_______
Options:
1) 3%
2) 4%
3) 5%
4) 8%

RRB Senior Section Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)

Q 100: A  trader bought 864 articles and sold 800 of them for the price he paid for 864 article. He sold the remaining articles at the same price per article as the other 800. The percentage gain on entire transaction is_______
Options:
1)  %
2) 8%
3) %
4) 9%

Q 101: Ankit purchased an article for Rs.600 and sold it at the gain of 30%. From that amount, he purchased another article and sold it at a loss of 30%. In the entire transaction he has a______
Options:
1) Loss of 9%
2) Gain of 9%
3) Loss of 6.9%
4) Gain of 6.9%

Q 102: Two places A and B are 220km apart on a highway. Hari starts from A and Juhi from B at the same time on the same day using cars. If they travel in the same direction (A to B), they meet in hours, but in 2 hours 45 minutes when travelling towards each other. Speed of the car of Juhi, in km/hour, is
Options:
1) 20
2) 30
3) 50
4) 60

Q 103: A covers a certain distance in a certain time, If B covers half of this distance in the double time, the ratio of speeds of A and B is_____
Options:
1) 2:1
2) 4:1
3) 1:2
4) 1:4

Q 104: Two pipes A and B running together can fill a cistern in minutes. Pipe B takes 3 minutes more than A to fillit. The time, in minutes, taken by B alone to fill cistern is______
Options:
1) 15
2) 16
3) 18
4) 12

Q 105: 2men and 7 women complete a work in 14days, while 3 men and 8 women complete the same work in 11 days. In how many days will 8 men and 6 women complete 3 times of this work ?
Options:
1) 14
2) 21
3) 24
4) 28

Q 106: In a mathematics test in a class the average score of boys is 33 and that of girls is 42. If the average score of all the students in the class is 38, then what is the percentage of girls in the class ?
Options:
1)
2)
3)
4)

Q 107: Dewan travels in a car and covers 20% of his journey with 80km/hour, 2/5th part of Journey with 60 km/hour and rest at 40 km/hour. His average speed during the entire journey, in km/hour, is approximately
Options:
1) 50
2) 52
3) 60
4) 62

Q 108: If α and β are the roots of 2x2+3x-5=0, then the value of (β-1)(α-1)+|α-β| is
Options:
1) 0
2) -3/2
3) 5/2
4) 7/2

Q 109: If α and β are the root of the equation  , then the value of     is______
Options:
1) -991/1010
2) -1
3) 1000/991
4) 1

Q 110: (a+b)3+(b+c)3+(c+a)3-3(a-b)(b-c)(c+a) is factored as
Options:
1) (a+b+c)(a2+b2+c2+ab-bc-ca)
2) 2(a+b+c)(a2+b2+c2-ab-bc-ca)
3) 3(a+b+c)(a2+b2+c2+ab-bc-ca)
4) 3(a+b+c)(a2+b2+c2+ab-bc-ca)

Q 111: Which one of the following is not a factor of x3+2x2-9x-18 ?
Options:
1) x-3
2) x-2
3) x+2
4) x+3

Q 112: Let a1,a2,a3,…….be an arithmetic progression.
If = , then
The common difference of the progression is
Options:
1) 1
2) 1/10
3) 1/100
4) 1/1000

Q 113: The sum to infinity of the series:
………….is
Options:
1) 1/4
2) 1/6
3) 5/12
4) 7/12

Q 114: If 3sinθ+4cosθ=5, then the value of 4sinθ-3cosθ is
Options:
1) -5
2) -2
3) 1
4) 0

Q 115: From the top of a tower 50 m high the angles of depression of the top and bottom of a pole are found to be 45o and 60o respectively. The height of the pole, in metre, is
Options:
1) 50(√3-1)
2) 50(√3+1)
3) 50(3 – √3)
4) 50(√3-1)

Q 116: where is rock art found in Central India ?
Options:
1) Ujjain
2) Chanderi
3) Lakhudiyar
4) Bhimbetka

Q 117: What were the advantages that the gupta period had because of which it is considered the Golden age of Ancient India ?
Options:
2) Near Iron ore areas of Central India and South Bihar and the Byzantine trade route
3) Fertile agricultural land and growth of revenue from religions towns.
4) Increase in population and more artisans who would produce cloth for trade.
Answer: Near Iron ore areas of Central India and South Bihar and the Byzantine trade route

Q 118: “In the democracy which I have envisaged, a democracy established by non-violence, there will be equal freedom for all. Everybody will be his own master. It is to Join a struggle for such democracy that I invite you today.” Mahatma Gandhi
For starting which movement were the above lines spoken ?
Options:
1) Quit India
2) Home rule
3) Non Cooperation Movement
4) Khilafat

Q 119: What will happen to the hard rock when the softer rock below is eroded ?
Options:
1) Broken Hard rock will form an obstruction the waterfall
2) Hard rocks will collapse and the path of the river will deepen
3) A plunge pool will be formed by hydraulic action
4) Waterfall will slowly give way to the valley of the river.
Answer: A plunge pool will be formed by hydraulic action

Q 120: Which region of India does the intensity of Arabian sea cyclones affect most ?
Options:
1) Rann of Kutch
2) Gulf of Khambhat
3) Indus Delta

Q 121: Which aspect would need regulation if there is more Foreign Direct Investment in horticulture ?
Options:
1) Consumption of water and rights of farmers to water
2) Soil conservation, and renewal using natural processes
3) Subsidy to farmers, for spending time away from their farms
4) Education of farmers on advantages of growing other crops
Answer: Consumption of water and rights of farmers to water

Q 122: In survey during 2009-2010 reveals that none of the female workers were found engaged as ‘carpenters’, ’blacksmiths’, ’cobblers’, ’masons’ or ‘tractor drivers’ and hence no wage
Rate was reported for these occupations during the year 2009-10
Which aspect of the Constitution could stand violated in this situation.
Options:
1) Right to Education
2) Right to equal wages
3) Right to Equality
4) Right to work

Q 123: Which one is a fundamental Duty ?
Option:
1) Settling all border and international disputes peacefully
2) Establishing facilities’ for the development of agriculture.
3) Setting up cottage industries in rural areas for self employment.
4) Safeguarding the sovereignty, integrity and unity of India.
Answer: Safeguarding the sovereignty, integrity and unity of India.

Q 124: What information does the Gross Domestic product not show ?
Options:
1) Contribution of Industry towards the national Income
2) Expenditure on goods and services by the government
3) Income distribution across different sections of the population.
4) Purchasing power of the people in a country.
Answer: Income distribution across different sections of the population.

Q 125: What is the main problem faced in the use of solar panels for the production of power ?
Options:
1) Not enough sunshine
2) Poor storage batteries
3) High cost
4) Keeping fragile panels safe.

RRB Senior Section Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)

Q 126: How do e-commerce ventures build up trust of the buyers in their goods ?
Options:
1) Cash on delivery facility
2) Ensure a flexible return policy
4) Prompt delivery
Answer: Ensure a flexible return policy

Q 127: What was the mascot for the commonwealth Games held in India in 2010 ?
Options:
1) Bison
2) Peacock
3) Deer
4) Tiger

Q 128: For the 2016 Olympics, which team defeated the Men’s India Hockey team to secure the place ?
Options:
1) France
2) Germany
3) England
4) Italy

Q 129: What is the main consideration of China in reviving the New Silk Route ?
Options:
1) Being equal to the U.S.A as an economic power.
2) Countering the IMF policies.
3) Constitution of an Asian Trade bloc.
4) Helping neighboring countries develop

Q 130: Which of the following issues is a Priority for smart cities to address ?
Options:
1) Removal of old buildings and improvement of areas
2) Increase in office space and inclusion of industries.
3) Increasing ICT connectivity and use for work.
4) Reduction in traffic congestion and clean energy.
Answer: Reduction in traffic congestion and clean energy.

Q 131: In which city of India is the Agency for Remote sensing located ?
Options:
1) Sriharikota
3) Bengaluru
4) Thiruvananthapuram

Q 132: What is the minimum distance at which an echo can be heard ?
Options:
1) 25 metres
2) 17 metres
3) 60 metres
4) 30 metres

Q 133: The working of a jet engine is based on
Options:
1) Laws of Air pressure
2) Principle of Archimedes
3) Theory of Relativity
4) Newton’s law of action and reaction
Answer: Newton’s law of action and reaction

Q 134: What effect does the rotation of the Earth have on the wind system ?
Options:
1) Winds do not rise above 100 kms near the Equator
2) Ocean currents carry the wind in the direction they flow in
3) Winds are deflected to the right course in their course in the northern Hemisphere
4) Ocean current are faster flowing east ward.
Answer: Winds are deflected to the right course in their course in the northern Hemisphere

Q 135: What is the major component of Honey ?
Options:
1) Fructose
2) Sucrose
3) Maltose
4) Glucose

Q 136: One of the direct effects of the depletion of the ozone layer on human beings is
Options:
1) More asthmatic cases
2) More cases of eye cataracts
3) More cases of diabetes.
4) More intestinal disorders.
Answer: More cases of eye cataracts

Q 137: Water pollution in rivers is measured by the dissolved amount of
Options:
1) Ozone
2) Chlorine
3) Oxygen
4) Nitrogen

Q 138: What is the use of Monocytes in our blood ?
Options:
1) Increase the red blood cells
2) Help to absorb oxygen in the blood
3) Destroy the old, damaged cells
4) Increase the immune level of the body.
Answer: Destroy the old, damaged cells

Q 139:  What are the minerals and metals found in banana ?
Options:
1) Manganese, Iron, Copper
2) Copper, Iron, Zinc
4) Iron, Copper, Magnesium.

Q 140: Which mineral helps in absorbing oxygen in the blood ?
Options:
1) Iron
2) Calcium
3) Potassium
4) Zinc

Q 141: Pointing to a photograph, a lady told sumit, “I am the only daughter of this man and his son is your maternal uncle. “How is the lady related to Sumit’s Father ?
Options:
1) Sister-in-law
2) Sister
3) Mother
4) Wife

Q 142: Three of the number-pairs in the alternatives have numbers which hold the same relationship as the numbers in the number-pair given below. Find out the number-pair in which the two numbers do not hold the same relationship as the two numbers in the number-pair below.
14:6
Options:
1) 20:9
2) 9:4
3) 28:13
4) 50:24

Q 143: ‘Lend’ is related to ‘Borrow’ in the same way as ‘Friendly’ is related to:
Options:
1) Hatred
2) Cooperative
3) Hostile
4) Indifference

Q 144: In a group of six people, there are 3 males, 2 housewives, 2 lecturers and 2 lawyers. B is the wife of E, who is a lecturer. C and F are unmarried. A is a male lecturer and C is a female lawyer.
Who is F ?
Options:
1) Male lawyer
2) Female lawyer
3) Male lecturer
4) Female lecturer

Q 145: Arrange the following words in a meaningful logical sequence and choose the appropriate number sequence from the alternatives.
1) Block 2) State 3) Village 4) Country 5) Panchayat 6) District
Options:
1) 4,2,6,1,3,5
2) 3,5,1,6,2,4
3) 3,5,1,2,6,4
4) 5,1,6,2,4,3

Q 146: One term in the following number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
444, 220, 108, 52, 22, 10, 3
Options:
1) 220
2) 108
3) 52
4) 22

Q 147: In a certain code, ‘457’ means ‘sweet hot coffee’; ‘265’ means ‘very hot day’ and ‘823’ means ‘day follows night’. Which digit means ‘very’ in that code ?
Options:
1) 2
2) 5
3) 6
4) 7

Q 148: In certain language, ‘BACKWARD’ is coded as ‘KCABDRAW’, then in that language, ‘MOUNTAIN’ would be coded as:
Options:
1) NUOMNIAT
2) NUOMAINT
3) NIATNUOM
4) OMNUATNI

Q 149: A rat runs 12 ft towards West and turns right and runs 9ft. It turns right again and runs 7 ft, turns left and covers 5 ft, turns left again and covers 3 ft. Finally, It turns right and Covers 2ft. Which direction is the rat facing now ?
Options:
1) South
2) North
3) East
4) West

Q 150: The numbers in the following figures follow a pattern. Find the number which will replace the question mark

Options:
1) 28
2) 35
3) 32
4) 30