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# RRB Senior Section Engineer Exam Paper 2015 Shift- 4

RRB Senior section engineer (SSE)

Exam Duration:  120
Number of Questions:   150
Total Marks:   150
Correct: 1 mark
Wrong:  0.33 Negative marks

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Q 1: The area under the T-s diagram curve at any thermodynamic process represents_____
Options:
1) Heat rejected only
2) Heat absorbs only
3) Work done during the process
4) Heat absorbed and rejected

Q 2: Which one of the following is correct ?

The cyclic integral of (δQ – δW) for a process is:
Options:
1) Positive
2) Negative
3) Zero
4) Unpredictable

Q 3: The fundamental unit of enthalpy is:
Options:
1) MLT-2
2) ML-2T-1
3) ML2T-2
4) ML3T-2

Q 4: Units for thermal conductivity:
Options:
1) J/kg.K
2) J/mol.K
3) J.ohm/sec.K2
4) W/m.K

Q 5: In which one of the following materials, is the heat eaergy propagation minimum due to conduction heat transfer ?
Options:
2) Copper
3) Water
4) Air

Q 6: On heat transfer surface, fins are provided
Options:
1) To Increase temperature gradient so as to enhance heat transfer
2) To Increase turbulence in flow for enchancing heat transfer
3) To increase surface area to promote the rate of heat transfer
4) To decrease the pressure drop of the fluid
Answer: To increase surface area to promote the rate of heat transfer

Q 7: Which type of engine is used in heavy commercial vehicle
Options:
1) Diesel
2) Petrol
3) Compressed air
4) LPG

Q 8: Stroke of engine is
Options:
1) Volume of the cylinder
2) Length of the connecting rod
3) Internal dia of cylinder
4) Distance between TDC and BDC
Answer: Distance between TDC and BDC

Q 9: For the same compression ratio and the same heat input. The correct sequence of the increasing order of the thermal efficiencies of the given cycles is
Options:
1) Otto, Diesel, Dual
2) Diesel, Dual, Otto
3) Dual, Diesel, Otto
4) Dual, Otto, Diesel

Q 10: Function of turbocharger is
Options:
1) To increase the power
2) To decrease the thermal efficiency
3) To reduce the noise
4) To reduce fuel consumption

Q 11: The casting process which is probably responsible for the largest volume of castings produced is the……..process.
Options:
1) Permanent mould casting
2) Die casting
3) Centrifugal casting
4) Sand casting

Q 12: The most important factor for specifying the lathe machine is
Options:
1) The maximum diameter of the work it will swing
2) The length of bed
3) The maximum speed of the spindle
4) Height of the bed
Answer: The maximum diameter of the work it will swing

Q 13: The empty portion of cupola above the preheating zone is called as
Options:
1) Slack
2) Brow
3) Billet
4) Stack

Q 14: Metal deposited on to the work piece from the electrode
Options:
1) Is forced across the arc
2) Fall because of gravity
3) Is attracted towards the work piece due to the positive polarity of the work piece
4) Is attracted towards the work piece due to the negative polarity of the work piece
Answer: Is forced across the arc

Q 15: If a transformer has 50 turns in the primary winding and 10 turns in the secondary winding. What is the reflective resistance if the secondary load resistance is 250Ω ?
Options:
1) 250 Ω
2) 25 Ω
3) 6,250 Ω
4) 62,500 Ω

Q 16: In a d.c. motor, unidirectional torque is produced with the help of
Options:
1) Brushes
2) Commutator
3) End-plates
4) both (a) and (b)

Q 17: The counter e.m.f. of a d.c. motor
Options:
1) Often exceeds the supply voltage
2) Aids the applied voltage
3) Helps in energy conversion
4) Regulates its armature voltage

Q 18: The normal value of the armature resistance of a d.c. motor is
Options:
1) 0.005
2) 0.5
3) 10
4) 100

Q 19: The Eb/V ratio of d.c. motor is an Indication of its
Options:
1) Efficiency
2) Speed regulation
3) Starting torque
4) Running Torque

Q 20: The mechanical power developed by the armature of a d.c. motor is equal to
Options:
1) Armature current multiplied by back e.m.f.
2) Power input minus losses
3) Power Output multiplied by efficiency
4) Power output plus iron losses
Answer: Armature current multiplied by back e.m.f.

Q 21: The induced e.m.f. in the armature conductors of a d.c. motor is
Options:
1) Sinusoidal
2) Trapezoidal
3) Rectangular
4) Alternating

Q 22: The EMF equation e = Nωrφsinωrt is applicable to
Options:
1) AC systems with time variant field flux
2) DC systems with variant field flux
3) Both AC and DC systems with time invariant field flux
4) Both AC and DC systems with time variant field flux
Answer: Both AC and DC systems with time invariant field flux

Q 23: In AC rotating machines, the generated or speed EMF
Options:
2) Lags φ by 90o
3) Is in phase with working flux
4) Lags φ by 180o

Q 24: In an AC machine, the effect of distributing the turns in different slots, results in a further reduction of generated EMF by the factor kd . This factor is called
Options:
1) Distribution/speed factor
2) Coil pitch factor
3) Winding factor
4) Generation factor

Q 25: Which of the following is not a Property of an Amplifier ?
Options:
1) Gain
2) Linearity
3) Distortion
4) Loss
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Q 26: Zener diodes are used as:
Options:
1) Current regulators
2) Voltage regulators
3) RF detectors
4) AF detectors

Q 27: One important application for diodes is recovering information from transmitted signals. This is referred to as:
Options:
1) Regeneration
2) Ionization
3) Biasing
4) Demodulation

Q 28: The electrodes of a semi-conductor diode are known as:
Options:
1) Gate and source
2) Anode and Cathode
3) Collector and base
4) Cathode and drain

Q 29: What semi-conductor device glows red, yellow, or green, depending upon its chemical composition ?
Options:
1) A light-emitting diode
2) A fluorescent bulb
3) A neon bulb
4) A vacuum diode

Q 30: A transistor can be destroyed in a circuit by:
Options:
1) Excessive heat
2) Excessive light
3) Saturation
4) Cut-off

Q 31: The two basic types of fields effect transistors (FET) are:
Options:
1) NPN and PNP
2) Germanium and silicon
3) Inductive and capacitive
4) N and P channel

Q 32: Which component can amplify a small signal but must use high voltages ?
Options:
1) A vacuum tube
2) A transistor
3) An electrolytic capacitor
4) A multiple-cell battery

Q 33: The diode is an important part of a simple power supply. It converts AC to DC, since it:
Options:
1) Has a high resistance to AC but not to DC
2) Allows electrons to flow in only one direction from cathode to anode
3) Has a high resistance to DC but not to AC
4) Allows electrons to flow in only one direction from anode to cathode
Answer: Allows electrons to flow in only one direction from cathode to anode

Q 34: If two equal-value capacitors are connected in parallel, whaat is their capacitance ?
Options:
1) The same value of either capacitor
2) The value of one capacitor times the value of the other
3) Half the value of either capacitor
4) Twice the value of either capacitor
Answer: Twice the value of either capacitor

Q 35: According to IS 516, what is the minimum number of specimen to be tested for estimating the compressive strength
Options:
1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) 5

Q 36: A layer of wood formed during one year’s growth in a timber is called as
Options:
1) Bark
2) All-heart
3) Batch
4) Annual ring

Q 37: In general, consolidation of soil involves which of the following
Options:
1) Expulsion of air
2) Reduction in the shear stress of soil

Q 38: The time period for which a structure or a structural element is required to perform its function without damage is called as
Options:
2) Design life
3) Life cycle of that structure
4) Serviceability duration

Q 39: If a 6m high retaining wall retains dry sand of unit weight 18 kN/cubm and if the coefficient of at-rest earth pressure is 0.5, then the lateral earth pressure at a depth of 6m will be.
Option:
1) 54
2) 9
3) 108
4) 36

Q 40: In general, the coefficient of thermal expansion of concrete does not depend on which of the following factors
Options:
1) Type of cement
2) Type of aggregate
3) The cement content
4) The quality of water

Q 41: Which of the following is not applicable to limit state method ?
Options:
1) The stresses are obtained from design loads and compared
2) The method follows linear stress-strain behavior of both the materials i.e. steel and concrete
3) The ultimate stresses of the materials are used as allowable stresses
4) Partial safety factors are used
Answer: The method follows linear stress-strain behavior of both the materials i.e. steel and concrete

Q 42: Which of the following does not fall under tensioning devices used for prestressed concrete ?
Options:
1) Chemical
2) Thermal
3) Hydraulic
4) Rotating

Q 43: Which of the following is not a non-destructive test used for concrete ?
Options:
1) Rebound hammer
2) Pull-out
3) Ultra-sonic
4) Direct tensile test

Q 44: In surveying, the triangles having angles smaller than 30 degree are called as
Options:
1) Ideal triangles
2) Well-conditioned triangles
3) llI-conditioned triangles
4) Acute triangles

Q 45: A liquid undergoing a rigid body rotation in a container is said to have
Options:
1) Forced vortex motion
2) Circulation
3) Free vortex motion
4) Translation

Q 46: Cavitation is primarily associated with which of the following fluid properties
Options:
1) Specific gravity
2) Surface tension
3) Viscosity
4) Vapour pressure

Q 47: Heating effect of current is used in
Options:
1) Ammeters
2) Voltmeters
3) Both ammeters and voltmeters
4) Wattmeters

Q 48: The instrument used to check insulation of household wiring is
Options:
1) Megger
2) Ohmmeter
3) Multimeter
4) High resistance voltmeter

Q 49: If A = 629 ± 8 and B = 131 ± 3, A – B with range of doubt is
Options:
1) 498 ± 8
2) 498 ± 4
3) 498 ± 11
4) 498 ± 13

Q 50: Which of these instruments has highest power consumption ?
Options:
1) Dynamometer
2) Electrostatic
3) Moving coil
4) Hot wire
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Q 51: A power factor meter has
Options:
1) One current and one pressure circuit
2) One current circuit and two pressure circuits
3) Two current circuits and two pressure circuits
4) Two current circuits and one pressure circuit
Answer: One current circuit and two pressure circuits

Q 52: In final stage of ecological succession dynamic balance between species and physical environment takes place, which is called
Options:
1) Progressive ecosystem
2) Ideal ecosystem
3) Stable ecosystem
4) Climax ecosystem

Q 53: The major portion of the alkalinity in natural waters is caused by
Options:
1) Hydroxide, carbonate and bicarbonate
2) Hydroxide, phosphate and bicarbonate
3) Silicate, ammonia and bicarbonate
4) Hydroxide, ammonia and carbonate

Q 54: When a particle is suspended in water, two forces are acting on it, which are
Options:
1) Gravity and drag force
2) Gravity and buoyant force
3) Buoyant and drag force
4) Viscous and buoyant force

Q 55: Chlorofluorocarbons are
Options:
2) Good reflector of ultraviolet radiations
3) Good absorber of ultraviolet radiations
4) Good absorber of Infrared radiations

Q 56: If the statistical distribution of noise levels in terms of L1, L10, L50, L90 are given, the equivalent noise levels, Leq can be estimated as
Options:
1) Leq = L90 + (L10 – L60)2 / 60
2) Leq = L50 + (L10 – L90)2 / 60
3) Leq = L10 + (L10 – L90)2 / 60
4) Leq = L60 + (L10 – L90)2 / 60
Answer: Leq = L50 + (L10 – L90)2 / 60

Q 57: The glasses of artificial green house are
Options:
1) Transparent to incoming solar radiation but opaque to outgoing infrared radiation
2) Opaque to incoming infrared radiation but transparent to outgoing infrared radiation
3) Opaque to incoming solar radiation as well as outgoing infrared radiation
4) Opaque to incoming solar radiation but transparent to out going infrared radiation

Q 58: Accumulator is an integral component of
Options:
1) CPU
2) Hard Disk
3) RAM
4) Cache memory

Q 59: Number of bits needed to code 512 operations is
Options:
1) 4
2) 7
3) 8
4) 9

Q 60: Booting the computer system is a process which
Options:
1) Brings operating system from hard disk to main memory
2) Brings operating system from main memory to hard disk
3) Brings all users data from hard disk to main memory
4) Brings all users data from main memory to hard disk
Answer: Brings operating system from hard disk to main memory

Q 61: A variant of________is called flash memory.
Options:
1) Virtual memory
2) Cache memory
3) EEPROM
4) RAM

Q 62: The default alingnment of numeric values in MS-Excel is
Options:
1) Left
2) Right
3) Centre
4) Justify

Q 63: PROLOG is a
Options:
1) Procedural language
2) Logic programming language
3) Imperative language
4) Functional language

Q 64: In a binary number, the rightmost bit is called
Options:
1) Most significant bit
2) Least significant bit
3) Carry bit
4) Extra bit

Q 65: In Boolean Algebra, A’ (A + B) is equivalent to
Options:
1) A’B
2) AB’
3) AB
4) A’B’

Q 66: Usenet service enables a group of internet users
Options:
2) For file transfer
3) To exchange views/information on some common topic of interest
4) To boot remote computer
Answer: To exchange views/information on some common topic of interest

Q 67: Which of the following is not a Web browser ?
Options:
1) XHTML
2) FireFox
3) MacWeb
4) NetScape

Q 68: The plane of a circle makes an angle of 45o with HP and VP each. Its plane will be inclined to the “profile plane” (PP) at:
Options:
1) 90o
2) 30o
3) 60o
4) its plane will be parallel to PP.

Q 69: A rack is a gear in which:
Options:
1) Teeth are cut on a flat surface.
2) Teeth are cut on the periphery of a conical surface.
3) Teeth are cut on the outside surface of a disc.
4) Teeth are cut on the inside of an annular surface.
Answer: Teeth are cut on a flat surface.

Q 70: Which of the following scales can be used interchangeably ?
Options:
1) Comparative scale and diagonal scales,
2) Diagonal scales and plain scales,
3) Vernier scale and comparative scale,
4) Diagonal scale and vernier scale.
Answer: Diagonal scale and vernier scale.

Q 71: An ant sitting on the “second’s hand” of a clock moves at a constant speed aways from the centre. The path traced by the ant is:
Options:
1) Spiral
2) Involute
3) Epicycloid
4) Hypocycloid

Q 72: A square shaped plane is represented in orthographic view as plan, Elevation and Side view. The Isometric projections of all three views would appear to be:
Options:
1) All three views will be identical,
2) Isometric of side view and Elevation will be identical but that of plan will be different
3) All three views will be different,
4) Isometric of Plan and Elevation will be identical but that of side view will be different.
Answer: All three views will be different

Q 73: When a body is moving along a circular path with constant speed
Options:
1) Work done on it zero
2) Force acting on it zero
3) Its velocity remains constant
4) Its acceleration is zero
Answer: Work done on it zero

Q 74: According to Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom, the spectral lines corresponding to transitions from higher energy levels to energy level n = 2 belong to
Options:
1) P fund series
2) Lyman series
3) Panchen Series
4) Balmer series

Q 75: The working of an optical fibre is bases on
Options:
1) Dispersion of light
2) Total internal reflection
3) Polarisation of light
4) Diffraction of light
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Q 76: Fleming’s Right Hand Rule is used for the determination of direction of
Options:
1) Force acting on a current carrying conductor kept in a magnetic field
2) Motion of a current carrying conductor kept in on electric field.
3) Current induced in a conductor Due to its motion in a magnetic field
4) Deflection of a charged particle moving in a magnetic field
Answer: Current induced in a conductor Due to its motion in a magnetic field

Q 77: Which one of the following statements is correct ?
Options:
1) Resistance of semiconductor material  increases will rise in temperature
2) Internal resistance of a cell depends on the distance between its electrodes.
3) An alloy of tin and lead is used to make the element of an electric heater
4) Drift Velocity of electrons in a metal does not depend upon mass of the electron.
Answer: Internal resistance of a cell depends on the distance between its electrodes.

Q 78: A and B are two points at same distance from the centre of a short electric dipole on axial line and equatorial line respectively. E1 and E2 are respectively the resultant electric fields due to the dipole at these points. Identify the only correct condition between E1 and E2 from the following for this situation.
Options:
1) E1 = 4 E2
2) E2 = 4 E1
3) E1 = E2
4) E1 = 2E2

Q 79: You are provided a few homonuclear, diatomic molecules (as = given below). Identify the one which is paramagnetic in nature.
Options:
1) H2
2) C2
3) B2
4) N2

Q 80: Halogens have tendency to accept electrons and therefore work as oxidizing agent. The correct increasing order of oxidizing power of the halogens is
Options:
1) F2 < Cl2 < Br2 < l2
2) Br2 < l2 < F2 < Cl2
3) l2 < F2 < Cl2 < Br2
4) l2 < Br2 < Cl2 < F2
Answer: l2 < Br2 < Cl2 < F2

Q 81: Which one of the following reaction is not an example of redox reaction ?
Options:
1) 3Mg + N2 → Mg3N2
2) CuSO4 + Pb → PbSO4 + Cu
3) l2 + 3Cl2 → 2lCl3
4) CuSO4 + 4NH3 → [Cu(NH3)4] SO4
Answer: CuSO4 + 4NH3 → [Cu(NH3)4] SO4

Q 82: Following solution are prepared by mixing different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different concentrations, pH of which one of them will be equal to 1 ?
Options:
1) 100mL (M/10) HCL + 100mL (M/10) NaOH
2) 75mL (M/5) HCL + 25mL (M/5) NaOH
3) 55mL (M/10) HCL + 45mL (M/10) NaOH
4) 60mL (M/10) HCL + 40mL (M/10) NaOH
Answer: 75mL (M/5) HCL + 25mL (M/5) NaOH

Q 83: For obtaining a metal from its ore various metallurgical processes are adopted. Froth flotation process is metallurgy of
Options:
1) Oxide ores
2) Chloride ores
3) Sulphide ores
4) Carbonate ores

Q 84: Which one of the following is most viscous ?
Options:
1) CH3OH
2) CH2OH
l
CHOH
l
CH2OH
3) CH2OH
l
CH2OH
4) CH3CH2OH
CH2OH
l
CHOH
l
CH2OH

Q 85: In Human body, the fluids involved in exchange of substances between cells and their immediate environment are
Option:
1) Blood only
2) Lymph or extracellular fluid only
3) Lymph and blood
4) Water circulating in the body
Answer: Lymph or extracellular fluid only

Q 86: The scientific name of an organism consists of
Options:
1) One word written in italics
2) Two words written in italics
3) One word written in boldly
4) One word underlined
Answer: Two words written in italics

Q 87: In the diagram, names of two gases that should have been written instead of 1 and 2 are Options:
1) 1: Carbon-di-oxide;     2: Oxygen
2) 1: Oxygen;                  2: Carbon-di-oxide
3) 1: Hydrogen;               2: Nitrogen
4) 1: Nitrogen;                 2: Hydrogen

Q 88: When a person is bitten by a mosquito infected by Plasmodium he/She is likely to get
Options:
1) Typhoid
2) Malaria
3) Tuberculosis
4) Diarrhoea

Q 89: The organ which receives blood from veins and sends out blood through arteries to organs of body is
Option:
1) Heart
2) Liver
3) Stomach
4) Kidney

Q 90: The scientific name of human Homo sapiens means.
Options:
1) Erect walker
2) Wise talker
3) Wise hominid
4) Brainy bipedal

Q 91: Let x be the greatest number by which if 166, 199 and 298 are divided, then the reminder in each case is the same. The sum of digits of x is
Options:
1) 2
2) 4
3) 7
4) 11

Q 92: If m = 25x310x55x73,    n = 24x311x72x56
P = 26x39x54x74 and q = 24x311x54x711
Then LCM of m.n.p and q is
Options:
1) 3x(10)6x(21)10
2) 2x(10)6x(21)11
3) (10)5x(21)11
4) (10)6(21)11

Q 93: The ratio of the number of girls and boys who appeared in an examination was 16:9, and the ratio of the girls and boys passing the examination was 4:3. If 75% of boys passed the examination, then percentage of girls who passed the examination was
Options:
1) 25
2) 3) 4) 64
Answer: Q 94: If a:b=4:3, 3b=5c and 4c=9d, then a:d is
Options:
1) 1:5
2) 5:1
3) 9:1
4) 9:4

Q 95: The monthly incomes of A, B and C taken together is Rs. 79800. A spends 80% of his income, B spends 87.5% of his income and C spends 90% of his income. If the ratio of savings of A, B and C is 16:17:12, then the income of B exceeds the income of A by:
Options:
1) Rs.9500
2) Rs.3800
3) Rs.7600
4) Rs.13300

Q 96: From a vessel containing 64 liters of alcohol, 8 liters are drawn out and the vessel is filled up with equal quantity of water. This process is repeated two more times. How much alcohol (in litres) is now contained in the vessel ?
Options:
1) 40
2) 3) 4) 44
Answer: Q 97: In brand A, the ratio of two types oils x and y is 4:3 whereas in brand B. the ratio of x and y is 2:3. How much of A in liters should the mixed with 10 liters of B get a mixture of two oils x and y as 8:7 ?
Options:
1) 21
2) 28
3) 35
4) 42

Q 98: Hari borrowed a sum of money and returned it in three equal quarterly installments of Rs.92610 each. If the rate of interest charged was 20% per annum, compounded quarterly, then the sum (in Rs.) borrowed was.
Options:
1) 277830
2) 252200
3) 253200
4) 254200

Q 99: A sum of money doubles in 5 years at a certain rate per annum of simple interest and at a different rate triples in 12 years. Of the two rates, the higher rate of interest per annum is
Options:
1) %
2) 20%
3) %
4) 25%

Q 100: A person gains 20% by selling an article for a certain price. If he sells it at double the price, then the profit made will be
Options:
1) 40%
2) 100%
3) 120%
4) 140%
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Q 101: A dealer allows a discount of 16% on the marked price of a table which coast him Rs.1200, If he still gains 5%, the marked price of the table (in Rs.) is
Options:
1) 1360
2) 1400
3) 1500
4) 1560

Q 102: An aeroplane left 30 minutes later than scheduled time, and in order to reach the destination of 1500 Km, it had to increase to speed 250 km/hours from its usual speed.
Options:
1) 2 hours
2) hours
3) hours
4) 4 hours

Q 103: A man can row 6 km/hour in still water. When the river is running at 2 km/hours, it takes him 3 hours to row a place and back to the starting point. How far (in km) is the place ?
Options:
1) 6
2) 8
3) 10
4) 12

Q 104: A is twice as fast as B and B is twice as fast as C. If all of them working together can finish a work in 8 days, then in how money days will B do it alone?
Options:
1) 56
2) 42
3) 28
4) 14

Q 105: A and B together can do a piece of work in 24 days; B and C together can do it in 20 days and C and A together can do it in 30 days. They all work together for 12 days, where A and B leave. How many days more will C take to finish the work ?
Options:
1) 10
2) 12
3) 20
4) 24

Q 106: The average of 30 positive integers is x. If the first number is increased by 2, second by 4, third by 6, fourth by 8, and so on, then the average of the resulting numbers is y. The value of y-x is
Options:
1) 27
2) 29
3) 31
4) 33

Q 107: The average of marks obtained by 150 tudents was 40. If the average marks of passed students were 50 and that of failed students was 20. Then the number of students who passed the examination was
Options:
1) 80
2) 90
3) 100
4) 120

Q 108: If sum of the roots of the equation
3x2+(2k+1)x-k-5=0
Is equal to the product of the roots, then the sum of the reciprocal of roots is
Options:
1) -1
2) 1
3) -2
4) 2

Q 109: The value of m (m>0) such that the equation
X2+mx+64=0 and x2-8x+m=0 have real roots is
Options:
1) 4
2) 6
3) 8
4) 16

Q 110: Which one of the following is not a factor of
64x4+160x3-44x2-360x-225 ?
Options:
1) 2x+3
2) 2x-3
3) 4x+5
4) 4x-5

Q 111: Factorization of (x+2)(x-5)(x-1)-144 is
Options:
1) (x+3)(x+2)(x-2)(x-7)
2) (x+3)(x+2)2(x-7)
3) (x+3)(x-2)2(x-7)
4) (x-3)(x-2)2(x+7)

Q 112: If the ratio of the sum of n terms of two arithmetic progressions is (3n+8) : (7n+15), then the ratio of their 10th terms is
Options:
1) 65:148
2) 55:148
3) 65:138
4) 55:138

Q 113: If x=1+a+a2+………
And y=1+b+b2+………
Be infinite geometric series with |a|<| and |b|<| respectively. The sum of the infinite geometric series
1+ab+a2b2+…….Is
Options:
1) (x+y-1) / xy
2) xy / (x+y-1)
3) (x+y+1) / xy
4) xy / (x+y+1)

Q 114: The value of (2sin263o+1+2sin227o) / (3cos217o-2+3cos273o) Is
Options:
1) 4/3
2) 5/4
3) 3
4) 1

Q 115: An aeroplane flying horizontally 2 km above the ground is observed at an angle of 60o at a point on the ground. If, after 10 seconds, the elevation is observed to be 30o, the uniform speed (in km/hour) of the aeroplane is
Options:
1) 240√3
2) 360√3
3) 480√3
4) 600√3

Q 116: What is the main common tenets of Jainism and Buddhism ?
Options:
1) Right knowledge is necessary
2) Ahimsa will lead to no rebirth
3) Teacher is supreme master
4) Suffering can be ended by conquering desire.
Answer: Suffering can be ended by conquering desire.

Q 117: Who was the first Moghul ruler to support the translation of Sanskrit works into Persian ?
Options:
1) Jehangir
2) Akbar
3) Babur
4) Humayun

Q 118: Why is the Battle of Salbai 1782 significant in the establishment of British power in India?
Options:
1) The Marathas made a 20 year peace with the British and helped suppress Mysore.
2) The British were able to establish the Presidencies in Bombay, Calcutta and Madras
3) The Marathas were able to expand their territories and conquer Mysore
4) The British were able to trade with the interior of India and Conquer Oudh.
Answer: The Marathas made a 20 year peace with the British and helped suppress Mysore.

Q 119: In which zone will the sun never be overhead but present all the year ?
Options:
1) Arctic zone
2) Tropical zone
3) Temperate zone
4) Antarctic zone

Q 120: Which of these States has shown a higher increase of urban population compared to the National level ?
Options:
1) West Bengal
4) Maharastra

Q 121: Which two cities of Madhya Pradesh have include in the Delhi Mumbai Industrial Corridor ?
Options:
1) Ujjain and Gwalior
2) Bina and Indore
3) Neemuch and Shajapur
4) Rewa and Bina

Q 122: What is the reason why compulsory voting cannot be insisted in a democracy ?
Options:
1) The right of free speech
2) The right to dissent
3) Equality of all citizens
4) Right to work where one wants.

Q 123: Who is allowed to introduce a money bill in Parliament in India ?
Options:
1) Member
2) Minister
3) Speaker

Q 124: The development of which Industries does the Make in India effort which will increase GDP from the current 15% to 25% focuses on ?
Options:
1) Electronics, Automobile and shipbuilding
2) Consumer appliances, sports goods and robots
3) Engineering goods, electrical goods and chemicals
4) Paper, Textiles, and Sugar.

Q 125: In which sector are most farm workers leaving overcrowded farms moving into ?
Options:
1) Large manufacturing
2) Government employment
3) Small scale Industries
4) Informal sector
RRB Senior Section Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)
Q 126: What is the main focus of the ‘Prakash Path’ Policy ?
Options:
1) Use of LED and reduction in energy need in homes
2) Switch to renewable energy sources in rural areas
3) Diversion of energy needs from industry to agriculture
4) Increased use of natural gas for electricity production
Answer: Use of LED and reduction in energy need in homes

Q 127: Which form of heating in our home is similar to that of the Sun ?
Options:
1) Sound wave
2) Light wave
3) Microwave

Q 128: Why are metals good conductors of heat ?
Options:
1) Electrons are free
2) Atoms are tightly packed
3) Melting point is high
4) Particles are separate

Q 129: Which one of the following has reflection as its constructional basics ?
Options:
1) Periscope
2) Telescope
3) Microscope
4) Binocular Microscope

Q 130: Which gas is used for artificial ripening of green fruit ?
Options:
1) Calcium Carbide
2) Carbon Dioxide
3) Ethylene
4) Acetylene

Q 131: Which of the following gases is used for removing impurities in water ?
Options:
1) Hydrogen
2) Oxygen
3) Chlorine
4) Carbon Dioxide

Q 132: Which is the most abundant rare gas in the atmosphere ?
Options:
1) Helium
2) Argon
3) Neon
4) Xeon

Q 133: What s a biome ?
Options:
1) Animals, plants and fish found in a pond, or tree
2) A large community of naturally occurring trees and animals in an area
3) Natural processes which help to keep the environment clean.
4) The processes which relate the food producers and consumers
Answer: The processes which relate the food producers and consumers

Q 134: Which of the following food intake is the predominant supplier of sodium to our body ?
Options:
1) Vegetables
2) Sugar
3) Pulses
4) Salt

Q 135: Ancestors of which species are the Ramapithecus and Cro-Magnon ?
Options:
1) Neanderthal
2) Monkey
3) Orangutan
4) Modern man

Q 136: How many players are there in a kabaddi game
Options:
1) Five
2) Ten
3) Twelve
4) Seven

Q 137: What Is the bowling action which a leg spin bowler throws which spins from left to right ?
Options:
1) Googly
2) Doosra
3) Off spin
4) Seam

Q 138: What is the significant cutcome of the Iran Nuclear Deal ?
Options:
1) Chine will help Iran develop nuclear power
2) Iran will not acquire or produce Nuclear weapons.
3) New equipment will be shared for nuclear production
4) Iran will be able to monitor U.S. nuclear development
Answer: Iran will not acquire or produce Nuclear weapons.

Q 139: Which is considered the longest road tunnel in India ?
Options:
1) Maliguda tunnel Odisha
2) Pune – Mumbai tunnel
3) Patnitop Jawahar tunnel Kashmir
4) Punarjani Guha in kerala

Q 140: Which is the State symbol of Maharastra
Options:
1) Elephant
2) Pangolin
3) Blue Mormon Butterfly
4) Peacock

Q 141: ‘I defeated the only brother of the daughter of my paternal grandmother at chess, ‘ said Albert. Whom did Albert defeat ?
Options:
1) Son
2) Brother
3) Uncle
4) father

Q 142: 8 is to 51.2 as 7 is to….
Options:
1) 34.3
2) 25.6
3) 72.9
4) 62.5

Q 143: Question: Interrogation mark = …….. : exclamation mark
Options:
1) Sentence
2) Explanation
3) Surprise
4) Sorrow

Q 144: Travelling salesman Don needs to reach his headquarters urgently. He drives 10 km short of the midpoint at 60 kmph. Because of the traffic jam, he had to slow down for covering the remaining distance. He drove at 40 kmph and reched the destination in 100 minutes. How long was the drive ?
Options:
1) 74 kms
2) 76 kms
3) 100 kms
4) 75 kms

Q 145: Find the odd one out:
1,331     125    1    216    8    81    729    1,728
Options:
1) 81
2) 125
3) 1331
4) 64

Q 146: Four of the following five groups of letters are similar in a certain way: QRS, LMN, XWV, HIJ, UVW. Which is the odd one ?
Options:
1) LMN
2) QRS
3) XWV
4) UVW

Q 147: In a certain code, 538 means ‘sugar and spice’ and 347 means ‘tea with sugar’. If 489 means ‘tea and cake’, what is the code for ‘sugar and cake’ ?
Options:
1) 943
2) 853
3) 589
4) 839

Q 148: If COPPER is coded as SFQQPD, how will IRON be coded as ?
Options:
1) JSPO144
2) OPSJ
3) POSJ
4) OPJS

Q 149: Stephen, a fresher in the college, is looking for the main Library. He asks a senior who tells him: You are now facing the north. Turn left, walk to the Chemistry Block and turn right. Walk till you see the Fine Arts Block and take a left turn and you will reach the Main Library. In which direction is the last lap ?
Options:
1) East to West
2) West to East
3) North to South
4) South to North

Q 150: What number should come in the fourth square ? Options:
1) 37
2) 39
3) 48
4) 38