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Home / Newton Desk / RRB Senior Section Engineer Exam Paper 2014 Set-3

RRB Senior Section Engineer Exam Paper 2014 Set-3

RRB senior section engineer 

Exam Duration:  120
Number of Questions:   150
Total Marks:   150
Correct: 1 mark
Wrong:  0.33 Negative marks

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Q 1: When donor type impurity is added to a semi-conductor material
Options:
1) Electrons are generated and material is N-type
2) Electrons are generated and material is P-type
3) Holes are generated and material is called P-type
4) Holes are generated and material is called N-type
Answer: Electrons are generated and material is N-type

Q 2: To increase bandwidth, the distributed amplifier utilizes
Options:
1) Common base configuration
2) Transmission line
3) Turned Circuit
4) Cascade amplifier
Answer: Turned Circuit

Q 3: A p-n junction diode’s dynamic conductance is directly proportional to
Options:
1) The applied voltage
2) The temperature
3) Its current
4) The thermal voltage
Answer: Its current

Q 4: King closers are related to
Options:
1) Doors and windows
2) King post truss
3) Queen post truss
4) Brick Masonry
Answer: Brick Masonry

Q 5: Seasoning of timber is required to
Options:
1) Soften the timber
2) Harden the timber
3) Straighten the timber
4) Remove sap from the timber
Answer: Remove sap from the timber

Q 6: Batching in concrete refers to
Options:
1) Controlling the total quantity of each batch
2) Weighing accurately, the quantity of each material for a job before mixing
3) Controlling the quantity of each material into each batch
4) Adjusting the water to be added in each batch according to the moisture content of the materials being mixed in the batch.
Answer: Adjusting the water to be added in each batch according to the moisture content of the materials being mixed in the batch.

Q 7: Gypsum is used as an admixture in cement grouts for
Options:
1) Accelerating the setting time
2) Retarding the setting time
3) Increasing the plasticity
4) Reducing the grout shrinkage
Answer: Retarding the setting time

Q 8: The maximum defection of a fixed beam carrying a central load W is equal to (other notations standard)
Options:
1) WL3 / 48EI
2) WL3 / 96EI
3) WL3 / 192EI
4) 5 WL3 / 384 EI
Answer: 5 WL3 / 384 EI

Q 9: In a thin-wall T-section, the shear centre C is located at the point shown in
Options:
thin wall T section
Answer: B

Q 10: A simply supported beam is loaded as below
simply supported beam
Answer: B

Q 11: What is the radius of Mohr’s circle in case of bi-axial state of stress ?
Options:
1) Half the sum of the two principal stresses
2) Half the difference of the two principal stresses
3) Difference of the two principal stresses
4) Sum of the two principal stresses.
Answer: Half the difference of the two principal stresses

Q 12: What  is the moment at A for a frame shown below:
moment of inertia
Each vertical member has very large Moment of Inertia
Options:
1) PL / 2
2) PL / 4
3) PL / 8
4) PL / 16
Answer: PL / 2

Q 13: A structure has two degree of indeterminacy. The number of plastic hinges that would be formed at complete collapse is
Options:
1) 0
2) 1
3) 2
4) 3
Answer: 0

Q 14: For laminar flow between parallel plates separated by a distance 2h, head loss varies
Options:
1) Directly as h
2) Inversely as h
3) Directly as h2
4) Inversely as h3
Answer: Inversely as h3

Q 15: In Surveying, Offsets are
Options:
1) Lateral measurements made with respect to main survey line
2) Perpendiculars erected from chain lines
3) Taken to avoid unnecessary walking between stations
4) Measurements which are not made at right angles to the chain line
Answer: Lateral measurements made with respect to main survey line

Q 16: The true length of a line is known to be 200 m. When this ia measured with a 20 m tape, the length is 200.8 m. The correct length of the 20 m tape is
Options:
1) 19.92 m
2) 19.98 m
3) 20.04 m
4) 20.08 m
Answer: 19.92 m

Q 17: Shear failure of soils takes place when
Options:
1) The angle of obliquity is maximum
2) Maximum cohesion is reached in cohesive soils
3) φ reaches its maximum value in cohesionless soils
4) Residual strength of the soil is exhausted
Answer: The angle of obliquity is maximum

Q 18: What is the process of utilizing one data link for transmission of a group of variables known as ?
Options:
1) Encoding
2) Decoding
3) Demultiplexing
4) Multiplexing
Answer: Multiplexing

Q 19: In order to increase the range of a voltmeter
Options:
1) A low resistance is connected in parallel
2) A low resistance is connected in series
3) A high resistance is connected in parallel
4) A high resistance is connected in series
Answer: A high resistance is connected in series

Q 20: The internal resistance of the milliammeter must be very low for
Options:
1) High accuracy
2) High sensitivity
3) Minimum effect on the current in the circuit
4) Maximum voltage drop across the meter
Answer: Minimum effect on the current in the circuit

Q 21: In order to have fast, steady and accurate responses, the meters should have
Options:
1) Critical damping
2) Under damping
3) A very high damping coefficient
4) No damping
Answer: Critical damping

Q 22: In case of overdamping, the instrument will become
Options:
1) Oscillating
2) Dead
3) Fast and sensitive
4) Slow and lethargic
Answer:  Slow and lethargic

Q 23: In reference to Acid rain, what is correct statement
Options:
1) The pH value is below 5.6
2) It occurs due to presence of sulphuric acid or nitric acid in the atmosphere
3) Maximum acid is due to strong Carbonic Acid
4) Acid rain affects ecosystem
Answer:

Q 24: In Global Warming, the major contribution is due to
Options:
1) Carbon emission
2) Agriculture
3) Deforestation
4) Industry
Answer: Deforestation

Q 25: Which of the following mechanisms is Not for removing particulate matter from gas streams.
Options:
1) Gravitational setting
2) Electrostatic precipitation
3) Centrifugal impaction
4) Burning the particulate
Answer: Burning the particulate
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Q 26: Which one of the following is NOT Biotic components of ecology.
Options:
1) Consumers
2) Producers
3) Decomposers
4) Climate
Answer: Climate

Q 27: Match Col. X (Result) Col. Y (Cause)
   

Col.X Col.Y
(p) Water pollution 1. Combination of fossil fuel
(Q) Air pollution 2. Decaying of organic matter
(R) Noise pollution 3. Pesticides
(S) Soil pollution 4. High decibel

Options:
1) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
2) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
3) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
4) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4
Answer: P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

Q 28: Part of the Computer where data and instructions are held is
Options:
1) Register Unit
2) Accumulator
3) Memory Unit
4) CPU
Answer: Memory Unit

Q 29: In a Computer, Assembler is
Options:
1) A program that places programs into memory and prepares them for execution
2) A program that automate the translation of assembly language into machine language
3) A program that accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program
4) Is a program that appears to execute a source program if it were machine language
Answer: A program that automate the translation of assembly language into machine language

Q 30: Which of the following is NOT a register in Computer ?
Options:
1) Accumulator
2) Stack Pointer
3) Program Counter
4) Buffer
Answer: Buffer

Q 31: Which Network protocol is used to send e-mail ?
Options:
1) FTP
2) SSH
3) POP 3
4) SMTP
Answer: SMTP

Q 32: The use of a cache in Computer system increases the
Options:
1) Available memory space for the program
2) Available memory space for the data
3) Available speed of memory access
4) Addressing range of CPU
Answer: Available speed of memory access

Q 33: A microprocessor has 24 address lines and 32 data lines. If it uses 10 bits of opcode, the size of its Memory Buffer Register is
Options:
1) 22 bits
2) 24 bits
3) 32 bits
4) 14 bits
Answer: 32 bits

Q 34: In a microprocessor when a CPU is interrupted, it
Options:
1) Stops execution of instructions
2) Acknowledges interrupt and branches off subroutine
3) Acknowledges interrupt and continues
4) Acknowledges interrupt and watts for the next instruction from the interrupting device
Answer: Acknowledges interrupt and watts for the next instruction from the interrupting device

Q 35: The MODEM is used with a personal computer to do which of the following ?
Options:
1) Convert from serial to parallel and vice versa
2) Convert signals between TTL and RS232 C standard and vice versa
3) Convert from digital to analog signals and vice versa
4) To convert the computer to a long distance communication link
Answer: Convert from digital to analog signals and vice versa

Q 36: The term digitization refers to
Options:
1) Conversion of analogue into digital
2) Conversion of digital into analogue
3) Use of analogue from of electricity
4) A form of changing physical quantities
Answer: Conversion of analogue into digital

Q 37: Which is NOT a wireless Technology
Options:
1) Blue Tooth
2) A conventional telephone
3) Wi-fi
4) Wi-Max
Answer: A conventional telephone

Q 38: In an Engineering drawing in double stroke Gothic lettering. Which is correct.
Options:
1) Letters are drawn thin
2) The lettering template is used to draw the outline of letter
3) This is not preferred for ink drawings
4) This is having non-uniform line width
Answer: The lettering template is used to draw the outline of letter

Q 39: Match Col X (Category) and Col. Y (Recommended Scale) in reference to an Engineering drawing.
     

Col.X Col.Y
P Enlarging 1. 1 : 500
Q Full Scale 2. 10 : 1
R Reducing Scale 3. 1 : 1
4. 1 : 20

Options:
1) P-4, Q-1, R-2, P-3
2) P-2, Q-3, R-4, R-1
3) P-1, Q-3, R-2, P-4
4) P-2, Q-1, R-4, Q-3
Answer: P-2, Q-3, R-4, R-1

Q 40: If RF is 1/60000 and distance to be shown on drawing is 7.5 km. What is the length of line on drawing ?
Options:
1) 12.5 cm
2) 8 cm
3) 45 cm
4) 10 cm
Answer: 12.5 cm

Q 41: A parabola can be constructed on a drawing by the methods EXCEPT
Options:
1) Eccentricity Method
2) Rectangle Method
3) Parallelogram Method
4) Asymptote Method
Answer: Asymptote Method

Q 42: Which of the Statements is NOT correct
Options:
1) Isometric scale is used to draw isometric projection
2) Isometric scale is not used to draw isometric view
3) A square is seen as rectangle in isometric
4) A rectangle is seen as parallelogram in isometric
Answer: Isometric scale is not used to draw isometric view

Q 43: A particle moves along a circular path with constant speed What is the nature of its acceleration ?
Options:
1) It is zero
2) It is Uniform
3) Its direction changes
4) Its magnitude changes
Answer: Its direction changes

Q 44: A body is at rest on the surface of the earth. Which of the following Statements is correct ?
Options:
1) No force is acting on the body
2) Only weight of the body acts on it
3) Net download force is equal to net upward force
4) None of these is correct
Answer: Net download force is equal to net upward force

Q 45: The specific Heat of the gas in an isothermal process is
Options:
1) Zero
2) Infinite
3) Negative
4) Remains constant
Answer: Remains constant

Q 46: In a Simple Harmonic Oscillator, at the mean position
Options:
1) Kinetic Energy is minimum, Potential Energy is maximum
2) Both Kinetic and Potential Energies are maximum
3) Kinetic Energy is maximum, Potential Energy is minimum
4) Both Kinetic and Potential Energies are minimum
Answer: Kinetic Energy is maximum, Potential Energy is minimum

Q 47: Mirage is a phenomenon due to
Options:
1) Reflection of light
2) Refraction of light
3) Total internal reflection of light
4) Diffraction of light
Answer: Total internal reflection of light

Q 48: Which of the following cannot be speed-time (v-t) graph of a body in motion ?
Options:
speed time v t graph
Answer: C

Q 49: Avogadro’s number NA means
Options:
1) Number of protons in nucleus of an atom
2) Number of atoms in one gram atom of an element
3) Sum of the number of protons and the neutrons in the nucleus of an atom
4) Number of protons or electrons in one gram of Sodium
Answer: Number of atoms in one gram atom of an element

Q 50: Isotopes of the same element have
Options:
1) Same number of neutrons
2) Same atomic mass
3) Same number of protons
4) Different atomic number
Answer: Same number of protons

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Q 51: In a reaction between Zinc and Iodine, Zinc Iodide is formed. What is being oxidized ?
Options:
1) Zinc ions
2) Iodide ions
3) Zinc Atom
4) Iodine
Answer: Zinc Atom

Q 52: Which of the following halogens is the best oxidizing agent ?
Options:
1) F2
2) Cl2
3) Br2
4) I2
Answer: F2

Q 53: Nitrogen is used to fill electric bulbs because it
Options:
1) Is lighter than air
2) Makes the bulb to give more light
3) Does not support combustion
4) Is non-toxic
Answer: Does not support combustion

Q 54: Froth floatation process for the concentration of Ores is an illustration of the practical application of
span style=”font-size: 10pt; color: #000000;”>Options:
1) Adsorption
2) Absorption
3) Coagulation
4) Sedimentation
Answer: Absorption

Q 55: The process of increasing fertility of soil by earthworms is known as
Options:
1) Organic farming
span style=”font-size: 10pt; color: #000000;”>2) Vermicompositing
3) Eutrophication
4) Worm Casting
Answer: Vermicompositing

Q 56: The most abundant element present in the plants is:
Options:
1) Iron
2) Carbon
3) Nitrogen
4) Manganese
Answer: Carbon

Q 57: An enzyme brings about
Options:
1) Decrease in reaction time
2) Increase in reaction time
3) Increase in activation energy
4) Reduction in activation energy
Answer: Decrease in reaction time

Q 58: Kidneys are not only organs of excretion, their work is supplemented by
Options:
1) Liver
2) Heart
3) Large intestine
4) Skin
Answer: Liver

Q 59: The longest cell in the body of an animal is
Options:
1) Osteocytes
2) Neuron
3) Large intestine
4) Skin
Answer: Neuron

Q 60: Vitamin needed for blood coagulation is
Options:
1) E
2) D
3) K
4) C
Answer: C

Q 61: The 1929 session of Indian Congress is of significance in the history of the Freedom Movement because the
Options:
1) Attainment of self-Government was declared as the objective of the Congress
2) Attainment of Poorna Swaraj was adopted as the goal of the Congress
3) Non Cooperation Movement was launched
4) Civil Disobedience Movement
Answer: Attainment of Poorna Swaraj was adopted as the goal of the Congress

Q 62: The movement that came to an abrupt end due to the Chauri Chaura incident was the
Options:
1) Wahabi Movement
2) Home, Rule Movement
3) Non-Cooperation Movement
4) Civil Disobedience Movement
Answer: Non-Cooperation Movement

Q 63: Match the following:

P) C.R. Das 1. Bardoli Satyagraha
Q) Vallabh Bhai Patel 2. Swarajist
R) Abdul Ghaffar khan 3. Khilafatist
S) Maulana Azad 4. Khudai Khidmatgar

Options:
1) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
2) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
3) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
4) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
Answer: P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

Q 64: Money can be spent out of the Consolidated Fund of India
Options:
1) With the approval of the President
2) With the approval of the Parliament
3) With the approval of the CAG
4) With the approval of the above authorities
Answer: With the approval of the Parliament

Q 65: Which of the following is not a condition for becoming a Citizen of India ?
Options:
1) Birth
2) Descent
3) Acquiring property
4) Naturalisation
Answer: Acquiring property

Q 66: The Oath of office is conducted to the President of India by
Options:
1) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
2) The Chief Justice of India
3) The Vice-President of India
4) The Prime-Minister of India
Answer: The Chief Justice of India

Q 67: Dew is caused when
Options:
1) Humid air condenses on cool surface
2) The sky is overcast at night
3) The air is colder than the earth’s surface
4) The wind is too dry to cause rainfall
Answer: Humid air condenses on cool surface

Q 68: Corbett National Park is in
Options:
1) Bihar
2) Madhya Pradesh
3) Uttarakhand
4) Himachal Pradesh
Answer: Uttarakhand

Q 69: Which crop requires water-logging for its cultivation ?
Options:
1) Tea
2) Coffee
3) Rice
4) Mustard
Answer: Rice

Q 70: One can open a Savings Account in India except in
Options:
1) A National Bank
2) A Cooperative Bank
3) A Private Bank
4) Reserve Bank of India
Answer: Reserve Bank of India

Q 71: The Term “Inside Trading” is related to
Options:
1) Share Market
2) Horse racing
3) Taxation
4) Public expenditure
Answer: Share Market

Q 72: The term MOM was in news in relation to
Options:
1) CAG report
2) Asian Games
3) Mangalyaan
4) Election Commission
Answer: Mangalyaan

Q 73: Merdeka Cup is associated with
Options:
1) International Table Tennis
2) Badminton
3) Hockey
4) International Football
Answer: Hockey

Q 74: Recenlty, referendum for Independence was held in
Options:
1) Hongkong
2) Ireland
3) Scotland
4) Germany
Answer: Scotland

Q 75: Match Col.X (Sportsperson) and Col.Y (Sports):
   

Col.X Col.Y
P. Jitu Rai 1. Badminton
Q. Heena Sidhu 2. Wrestling
R. Jwala Gutta 3. Shooting
S. Yogeshwar Dutt

Options:
1) P-3, Q-3, R-1, S-2
2) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-2
3) P-2, Q-2, R-1, S-3
4) P-3, Q-1, R-1, S-2
Answer: P-3, Q-3, R-1, S-2

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Q 76: Which of the following celebrities was recently appointed as “Brand Ambassador” of Telengana ?
Options:
1) Deepika Pallikal
2) VVS Laxman
3) Saina Nehwal
4) Sania Mirza
Answer: Sania Mirza

Q 77: EBOLA is a
Options:
1) Virus disease confirmed in West Africa
2) Name of Tsunami
3) Name of anti-terrorist operation in Arab Country
4) Volcano in Africa Hills
Answer: Virus disease confirmed in West Africa

Q 78: BKS lyengar, who died recently, was a world renowned________
Options:
1) Yoga Guru
2) Artist
3) Folk Singer
4) Film Director
Answer: Yoga Guru

Q 79: Which Country has recently launched “Gandhi Inspired Tourist Attraction Project” ?
Options:
1) England
2) South Africa
3) USA
4) Japan
Answer: South Africa

Q 80: Who among the following has designed the logo and slogan of the “Swachch Bharat Abhiyan”
Options:
1) Neelam Bhattacharjee
2) Anant and Bhagyashree
3) Uday kumar
4) Virman Kohli
Answer: Anant and Bhagyashree

Q 81: The slogan of Asian Games Incheon 2014 was
Options:
1) Green, Clean and Friendship
2) We Cheer, We Share, We Win
3) Diversity Shines here
4) The Games of Your Life
Answer: Diversity Shines here

Q 82: The “Helmand Province” of Aghanistan is famous for cultivation of
Options:
1) Tobacco
2) Wheat
3) Cotton
4) Opium
Answer: Opium

Q 83: Main objective of newly announced “Pradhanmantri Jan-Dhan Yojna” is______ ?
Options:
1) To provide a bank account to every poor
2) To provide a interest free loan to farmers
3) To provide financial assistance to tribal communication
4) To provide free medical facility to minority people
Answer: To provide a bank account to every poor

Q 84: Consider the following pairs :
1) Garba : Gujarat
2) Mohiniattam : Odisha
3) Yakshagana : Karnataka
Options:
1) 1 only
2) 2 and 3 only
3) 1 and 3 only
4) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: 1, 2 and 3

Q 85: Devdas and Parinite are Principal literacy works by
Options:
1) Rabindra Nath Tagore
2) Sarat Chandra Chatterjee
3) Satyajit Ray
4) Munshi Premchand
Answer: Sarat Chandra Chatterjee

Q 86: The capacity of two pots is 120 litres and 56 litres respectively. The capacity of a container which can exactly measure the contents of the two pots is
Options:
1) 7500 cc
2) 7850 cc
3) 8000 cc
4) 9500 cc
Answer: 7850 cc

Q 87: A sum of Rs.312 was divided among 60 boys and some girls in such a way that each boy gets Rs.3.60 and each girl Rs.2.40. The number of girls is
Options:
1) 35
2) 40
3) 60
4) 65
Answer: 40

Q 88: Some students planned a trip. The budget for food was Rs.500. But 5 of them failed to go and thus the cost of food for each member increased by Rs. How many students attended the trip ?
Options:
1) 15
2) 20
3) 25
4) 30
Answer: 20

Q 89: In a class, there are two sections A and B. If 10 students of section B shift over to section A, the strength of A becomes three times the strength of B, But, if 10 students shift over from A to B, both A and B are equal in strength. How many students are there in sections A and B ?
Options:
1) 50 and 30
2) 45 and 15
3) 90 and 40
4) 80 and 40
Answer: 50 and 30

Q 90: 1250 articles were distributed among students of a class. Each student got twice as many articles as the number of students in that group. The number of students in the group was:
Options:
1) 25
2) 45
3) 50
4) 100
Answer: 25

Q 91: The average of marks of 28 students in Maths was 50.8 students left the school and then the average increased by 5 What is the average of marks obtained by the students who left the school ?
Options:
1) 37.5
2) 42.5
3) 45
4) 50.5
Answer: 37.5

Q 92: Six persons went to a hotel for meals. Five of them spent Rs.32 each on their meals while the 6th person spent Rs80 more than the average expenditure of all the six. Total money spent by all the person is:
Options:
1) Rs.192
2) Rs.240
3) Rs.288
4) Rs.336
Answer: Rs.288

Q 93: The sum of two numbers is 2490. If 6.5% of one number is equal to 8.5% of the other, the greater number is:
Options:
1) 1079
2) 1380
3) 1411
4) 1250
Answer: 1411

Q 94: X is 40 years old and Y is 60 years old. How many years ago was the ratio of their ages 3:5 ?
Options:
1) 5 years
2) 10 years
3) 20 years
4) 37 years
Answer: 10 years

Q 95: In measuring the sides of a rectangle errors of 5% and 3% in excess are made. The error percent in the calculated area is
Options:
1) 8.35%
2) 7.15%
3) 8.15%
4) 6.25%
Answer: 8.15%

Q 96: If a frame is sold at Rs.60, there is a loss of 15%. For a profit of 2%. The frame is to be sold at
Options:
1) Rs.70
2) Rs.72
3) Rs.75
4) Rs.85
Answer: Rs.72

Q 97: On selling 100 pens, a shopkeeper gains price of 20 pens. His gain percentage is
Options:
1) 25%
2) 20%
3) 15%
4) 12%
Answer: 20%

Q 98: Rs.680 is divided among A,B,C such that A gets 2/3 of what B gets and B gets 1/4  of what C gets. Then their shares are respectively
Options:
1) Rs.75, Rs.325, Rs.280
2) Rs.80, Rs.120, Rs.480
3) Rs.90, Rs.210, Rs.380
4) Rs.100, Rs.200, Rs.380
Answer: Rs.80, Rs.120, Rs.480

Q 99: X, Y and Z start a business. X invests 3 times as much as Y invests and Y invests (2/3)rd of what Z invests. Then the radio of capitals of X, Y, Z is
Options:
1) 3 : 9: 2
2) 6 : 10 : 15
3) 5 : 3 : 2
4) 6 : 2 : 3
Answer: 6 : 2 : 3

Q 100: A man, a woman and a boy can together complete a piece of work in 3 days, If a man alone can do it in 6 days and a boy alone in 18 days, how long will a woman take to complete the work ?
Options:
1) 9 days
2) 21 days
3) 24 days
4) 27 days
Answer: 9 days

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Q 101: A tap can fill a cistern in 8 hours and another tap can empty it in 16 hours, If both the taps are open, the time taken to fill the tank will be
Options:
1) 8 hrs.
2) 10 hrs.
3) 16 hrs.
4) 24 hrs.
Answer: 16 hrs.

Q 102: Two trains approach each other at 30 km/hr and 27 km/hr from two places 342 km apart. After how many hours will they meet ?
Options:
1) 5 hrs.
2) 6 hrs.
3) 7 hrs.
4) 12 hrs.
Answer: 6 hrs.

Q 103: The speed of a 150 m long train is 50 kmph. How much time will it take to pass a 600 m long platform ?
Options:
1) 50 sec
2) 54 sec
3) 60 sec
4) 64 sec
Answer: 54 sec

Q 104: In how many tears, a sum will be thrice of it at simple interest @ 10% per annum ?
Options:
1) 15 years
2) 20 years
3) 30 years
4) 40 years
Answer: 20 years

Q 105: A sum of money amounts to Rs.9680 in 2 years and Rs.10648 in 3 years. The rate of interest per annum on compounded basis is
Options:
1) 5%
2) 10%
3) 15%
4) 20%
Answer: 10%

Q 106: The perimeters of a circular field and a square field are equal. If the area of the square field is 12100m2, the area of the circular field will be
Options:
1) 15500 m2
2) 15400 m2
3) 15200 m2
4) 15300 m2
Answer: 15400 m2

Q 107: If the height of a cone is doubled, then the increase in its volume is
Options:
1) 100%
2) 200%
3) 300%
4) 400%
Answer: 200%

Q 108: An angle is one fifth of its supplement. The measure of the angle is
Options:
1) 15o
2) 30o
3) 75o
4) 150o
Answer: 30o

Q 109: The angle of elevation of a ladder leaning against a wall is 60o and the foot of the ladder is 7.5 m away from the wall. The length of the ladder is
Options:
1) 15 m
2) 14.86 m
3) 15.64 m
4) 15.8 m
Answer: 15 m

Q 110: Select the option to replace ? such that pattern in given number series is continued.
      6, 13, 25, 51, 101, ?
Options:
1) 201
2) 202
3) 203
4) 205
Answer: 203

Q 111: Select the option to replace ? in given alphabet series to continue the pattern.
    WFB, TGD, QHG, ?
Options:
1) NIJ
2) NIK
3) NJK
4) OIK
Answer: NIK

Q 112: In given letter series, some of the letters are missing which are given in that order in options. Select the correct option.
    _bcdbc_dcabd_bcdbc_dc_bd
Options:
1) aaaaa
2) ccccc
3) bbbbb
4) ddddd
Answer: aaaaa

Q 113: Select the option that shows similar relation as between given words.
   Attack : Defend
Options:
1) Gradual : Abrupt
2) Sedate : Calm
3) Assign : Allot
4) House : Home
Answer: Gradual : Abrupt

Q 114: Select the option such that relation between words on either side is similar.
     Vigilant : Alert : : Viable : ?
Options:
1) Active
2) Hopeless
3) Feasible
4) Useful
Answer: Feasible

Q 115: Select the odd one out.
Options:
1) Iron
2) Nickel
3) Cobalt
4) Aluminium
Answer: Iron

Q 116: D is taller than C and E. A is not as tall as E. C is taller than A. D is not as tall as B. Who among them is next to the tallest one ?
Options:
1) A
2) D
3) B or D
4) C
Answer: D

Q 117: X walks 10 km towards North. From there, he walks 6 km towards South. Then, he walks 3 km towards East. How far and in which direction is he with reference to his starting point ?
Options:
1) 5 km West
2) 5 km North-East
3) 7 km East
4) 7 km West
Answer: 5 km North-East

Directions: (Question No. 118 & question No. 119): Choose the Correct Option for given classes.
venn diagram
Q 118: Men, Women, Human Beings
Answer: D

Q 119: Doctors, Lawyers, Professionals
Answer: D

Q 120: Select the Option to replace ? in Problem Figure to continue the pattern.
    
Answer: C

Q 121: Consider the following Statements
A real gas obeys perfect gas law at very
1) High temperatures
2) High pressure
3) Low pressures
Which of these Statements is/are correct ?
Options:
1) 1 alone
2) 1 and 3
3) 2 alone
4) 3 above
Answer: 2 alone

Q 122: Which one of the following is correct ?
 The specific volume of water when hested from 0oc
Options:
1) First increases and then decreases
span style=”font-size: 10pt; color: #000000;”>2) First decreases and then increases
3) Increases steadily
4) Decreases steadily
Answer: First decreases and then increases

Q 123: Two blocks which are at different states are brought into contact with each other and allowed to reach a final state of thermal equilibrium. The final temperature attained is specified by the
Options:
1) Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
2) First Law of Thermodynamics
3) 2nd Law of Thermodynamics
4) 3rd Law of Thermodynamics
Answer: Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics

Q 124: A composite wall consists of two layers of different materials having conductivities K1 and K2. For equal thickness of the two layers, the equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab will be
Options:
1) K1 + K2
2) K1 + K2
3) 2K1K2 / (K1 + K2)
4) (K1 + K2) / K1K2
Answer: 2K1K2 / (K1 + K2)

Q 125: The presence of nitrogen in the products of combustion ensures that
Options:
1) Complete combustion of fuel takes place
2) Incomplete combustion of fuel takes place
3) Dry products of combustion are analysed
4) Air is used for the combustion
Answer: Air is used for the combustion

RRB Senior Section Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)

Q 126: Which one of the following is the most significant property to be considered in the selection of material for the manufacture of locating pins and dril jig bushes used in jigs and fixtures ?
Options:
1) Wear Resistance
2) Elasticity
3) Shear Strength
4) Tensile Strength
Answer: Shear Strength

Q 127: What term is used to designed the direction of the predominant surface pattern produced by machining operation ?
Options:
1) Roughness
2) Lay
3) Waviness
4) Cutt off
Answer: Waviness

Q 128: Steady State Heat flow implies
Options:
1) Negligible flow of heat
2) No difference of temperature between the bodies
3) Constant heat flow rate i.e. heat flow rate independent of time
4) Uniform rate in temperature rise of a body
Answer: Constant heat flow rate i.e. heat flow rate independent of time

Q 129: What is the main shaft of an engine that controls the movement of piston ?
Options:
1) Axle
2) Drive shaft
3) Crank shaft
4) Cam shaft
Answer: Drive shaft

Q 130: For small and intricate castings, the sand grains should be
Options:
1) Fine
2) Medium
3) Crank shaft
4) Cam shaft
Answer: Fine

Q 131: In Submerged Arc Welding, the arc is produced between
Options:
1) A bare metal electrode and work piece
2) A tungsten electrode and work piece
3) A carbon electrode and work piece
4) Any type of electrode can be used
Answer: A bare metal electrode and work piece

Q 132: For Welding process, which is NOT correct.
Options:
1) Welding size depends on contact area of the face of Electrodes
2) Metal fusion takes place by raising the temperature to fusion point
3) In pressure welding, the ends of metals pieces are joined in Elastic state
4) Gas flame is used as heat source in gas welding
Answer: Metal fusion takes place by raising the temperature to fusion point

Q 133: In overhead welding position, which is correct option.
Options:
1) Work pieces lie flat, welding is done from upper side of joint
2) Welding is performed from the underside of joint
3) This position is most simple operation as compared to flat position
4) Most suitable for Submerged Arc process
Answer: This position is most simple operation as compared to flat position

Q 134: Soft iron is used in the manufacture of electromagnets because of its
Options:
1) High saturation magnetization only
2) Low retentivity only
3) Low coercive field only
4) High saturation magnetization, low retentivity and coercive field
Answer: Low coercive field only

Q 135: Which of the following is piezo-electric material ?
Options:
1) Quartz
2) Silica Sand
3) Corundum
4) Polystyrene
Answer: Quartz

Q 136: Which three-phase connection can be used in a transformer to introduce a phase difference of 30o between its output and corresponding input line voltage ?
Options:
1) Star-Delta
2) Star-Star
3) Delta-Delta
4) Delta-Zigzag
Answer: Star-Delta

Q 137: If two conductors carry current in the same direction
Options:
1) Conductors attract each other
2) Conductors are in resonance
3) Conductors repel each other
4) Voltage between two conductors increases
Answer: Conductors attract each other

Q 138: According to Joule’s Law, heat energy produced by a Current I while flowing through a conductor of Resistance R for a Length L and Time T, is proportional to
Options:
1) T only
2) I2RT
3) I2RL
4) IRL2
Answer: I2RT

Q 139: Reciprocal of magnetic permeability is
Options:
1) Conductance
2) Susceptance
3) Reluctivity
4) Permittivity
Answer: Permittivity

Q 140: A material is said to have become superconductor when
Options:
1) Its resistance becomes negative
2) Its resistance becomes very small
3) Its resistance decreases
4) Its resistance becomes zero
Answer: Its resistance becomes very small

Q 141: When a given transformer is operating at its rated voltage with reduced frequency. Its
Options:
1) Iron losses are reduced
2) Flux density remains unaffected
3) Core flux density is increased
4) Core flux density is reduced
Answer: Core flux density is increased

Q 142: The armature core of a d.c. machine is usually made of laminated sheets in order to
Options:
1) Reduce hysteresis loss
2) Reduce armature copper losses
3) Reduce eddy current
4) Increases its surface area for better dissipation of heat
Answer: Reduce eddy current

Q 143: To reduce air pollution due to smoke, _______are used in thermal power plants.
Options:
1) Reheaters
2) Electrostatic precipitators
3) Superheaters
4) Induced draft fans
Answer: Electrostatic precipitators

Q 144: Match Col.X (Instrument) with Col.Y (Use)
  

Col.X Col.Y
P Transformer 1, Measures Current
Q Rectifies 2. Insulation Resistance
R Ammeter 3. Steps down Voltage
S Megger meter 4. Converts AC input to Unipolar output

 
Options:
1) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
2) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
3) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
4) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
Answer: P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Q 145: FET is a device which has
Options:
1) High input impedance and is current controlled
2) Low input impedance and voltage controlled
3) High input impedance and is voltage controlled
4) Low input Impedance and is current controlled
Answer: High input impedance and is voltage controlled

Q 146: Which gate corresponds to the action of parallel switches ?
Options:
1) AND gate
2) OR gate
3) NAND gate
4) NOR gate
Answer: OR gate

Q 147: Which of the following contributes to harmonics distortion in amplifiers ?
Options:
1) Non-linearity in active device
2) Defective device
3) Presence of noise
4) Positive feedback
Answer: Non-linearity in active device

Q 148: Select the Statement which is NOT correct
Options:
1) The magnetic amplifier is device for amplifying electrical signals
2) A transistor is composed of semiconductor material
3) p-n diode is based upon p-n junction
4) Potentiometer controls audio signals
Answer: Potentiometer controls audio signals

Q 149: The main advantage of a bridge rectifier over full wave with centre tapped transformer is
Options:
1) Less ripple
2) No transformer
3) Peak inverse voltage of each diode is half
4) PIV of each diode is double
Answer: No transformer

Q 150: Wheatstone bridge is used to measure
Options:
1) Low values of current and high values of current
2) High values of current
3) Low value of voltages
4) Resistance values
Answer: Resistance values
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