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RRB Junior Engineer Exam Paper 2015 Set-7

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Exam Duration:  120
Number of Questions:   150
Total Marks:   150
Correct: 1 mark
Wrong:  0.33 Negative marks

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Q 1: Which one of the following thermodynamics process approximates the steaming of food in a pressure cooker ?
Options:
1) Isenthalpic
2) Isobaric
3) Isochoric
4) Isothermal
Answer: Isochoric
 
Q 2: Ice kept in a well-insulated thermo flask is an example of which system ?
Options:
1) Closed system
2) Isolated system
3) Open system
4) Non-flow adiabatic system
Answer: Isolated system
 
Q 3: The two reference fuels used for cetane rating are
Options:
1) Cetane and iso-octane
2) Cetane and tetraethyl lead
3) Cetane and n-heptane
4) Cetane and α-methyl naphthalene
Answer: Cetane and α-methyl naphthalene
 
Q 4: In some carburetors, meter rod and economizer device are used for
Options:
1) Cold starting
2) Idling
3) Power enrichment
4) Acceleration
Answer: Power enrichment
 
Q 5: Where does mixing of fuel and air take place in case of diesel engine ?
Options:
1) Injection pump
2) Injector
3) Engine cylinder
4) Inlet manifold
Answer: Engine cylinder
 
Q 6: Heat pipe is widely used now a days, because
Options:
1) It acts as an insulator
2) It acts as conductor and insulator
3) It acts as a superconductor
4) It acts as a fin
Answer: It acts as a superconductor
 
Q 7: Ice is very close to a
Options:
1) Gray body
2) Black body
3) White body
4) Specular body
Answer: Black body
 
Q 8: Misrun is a casting defect which occurs due to
Options:
1) Very high pouring temperature of the metal
2) Insufficient fluidity of the molten metal
3) Absorption of gases by the liquid metal
4) Improper alignment of the mould flask
Answer: Insufficient fluidity of the molten metal
 
Q 9: In which of the following are metal moulds used
Options:
1) Green sand mould
2) Dry sand mould
3) Die casting process
4) Loam moulding
Answer: Die casting process
 
Q 10: Which one of the following is an advantage of forging ?
Options:
1) Good surface finish
2) Low tooling cost
3) Close tolerance
4) Improved physical property
Answer: Improved physical property
 
Q 11: In the forging operation, fullering is done to
Options:
1) Draw out the material
2) Bend the material
3) Upset the material
4) Extrude the material
Answer: Draw out the material
 
Q 12: In oxy-acetylene gas welding, for complete combination, the volume of oxygen required per unit of acetylene is
Options:
1) 1
2) 1.5
3) 2
4) 2.5
Answer: 2.5
 
Q 13: Oxy-acetylene reducing flame is used while carrying out the welding on
Options:
1) Mild steel
2) High carbon steel
3) Gray cast iron
4) Alloy steels
Answer: High carbon steel
 
Q 14: Crater wear is predominant in
Options:
1) Carbon steel tools
2) Tungsten carbide tools
3) High speed steel tools
4) Ceramic tools
Answer: Tungsten carbide tools
 
Q 15: An Ideal current source has
Options:
1) Large value of voltage
2) Large value of current
3) Infinite internal resistance
4) Zero internal resistance
Answer: Infinite internal resistance
 
Q 16: Mesh analysis is based on
Options:
1) Kirchhoff’s Voltage law
2) Kirchhoff’s Current law
3) Law of Conservation of Momentum
4) Law of Conservation of Energy
Answer: Kirchhoff’s Voltage law
 
Q 17: The RMS value of a sine wave is 100 A. Its peak value is
Options:
1) 70.7 A
2) 141 A
3) 63.6 A
4) 126 A
Answer: 141 A
 
Q 18: In a transformer, electric power is transferred from primary coil to secondary
Options:
1) Through air
2) By electric field
3) Through insulating medium
4) By magnetic flux
Answer: By magnetic flux
 
Q 19: Which part of transformer is subjected to maximum heating
Options:
1) Frame
2) Core
3) Oil
4) Winding
Answer: Winding
 
Q 20: Armature coil of a DC machine is usually made up of
Options:
1) Mica
2) Copper
3) Brass
4) Graphite
Answer: Copper
 
Q 21: The output power of any electric motor is taken from
Options:
1) Frame
2) Commutator
3) Coupling mounted on shaft
4) Armature
Answer: Coupling mounted on shaft
 
Q 22: The type of DC generator used for arc welding is
Options:
1) series generator
2) Shunt generator
3) Cumulative Compound generator
4) Differential Compound generator
Answer: Differential Compound generator
 
Q 23: A metal bar may be heated electronically by
Options:
1) Emission heating
2) Dielectric heating
3) Induction heating
4) Conductive heating
Answer: Induction heating
 
Q 24: Diesel engine used in power plants are usually
Options:
1) Air cooled
2) Supercharged
3) Horizontal
4) High Speed
Answer: Supercharged
 
Q 25: Conduction electrons have more mobility than holes because they
Options:
1) Are lighter
2) Have negative charge
3) Need less energy to move them
4) Experience collision frequency
Answer: Need less energy to move them
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Q 26: Valency of silicon is
Options:
1) 4
2) 3
3) 5
4) 2
Answer: 4
 
Q 27: The PN junction diode is a
1) Passive device
2) Vaccum tube
3) Unilateral device
4) Bilateral device
Answer: Unilateral device
 
Q 28: Reverse saturation current in germanium diode, is of the order of
Options:
1) 1 nano Ampere
2) 1 micro Ampere
3) 1 milli Ampere
4) 10 milli Ampere
Answer: 1 micro Ampere
 
Q 29: A PIN diode is frequently used as a
Options:
1) Peak clipper
2) Voltage regulator
3) Harmonic generator
4) Switching diode for frequencies upto Ghz range
Answer: Switching diode for frequencies upto Ghz range
 
Q 30: Lowest output resistance is obtained in the configuration
Options:
1) CE
2) CB
3) CC
4) CC and CE both equally
Answer: CC
 
Q 31: Ripple factor of a full wave rectifier without filter will be
Options:
1) 0.2
2) 0.48
3) 0.24
4) 1.21
Answer: 0.48
 
Q 32: The decimal equivalent of hexadecimal number BAD is
Options:
1) 111013
2) 5929
3) 3416
4) 2989
Answer: 2989
 
Q 33: The system on which digital system usually operates is
Options:
1) Binary
2) Decimal
3) Octal
4) Hexa decimal
Answer: Binary
 
Q 34: A+AB gets simplified to
Options:
1) A+B
2) AB
3) A
4) B
Answer: A
 
Q 35: A clay sample has a void ratio 0.54 in dry state. The specific gravity of soil solids is 2.7. What is the shrinkage limit of the soil ?
Options:
1) 8.5%
2) 10.0%
3) 17.0%
4) 20.0%
Answer: 20.0%
 
Q 36: Among the clay minerals, the one having the maximum swelling tendency is
Options:
1) Kaolinite
2) Illite
3) Montmorillonite
4) Halloysite
Answer: Montmorillonite
 
Q 37: The reinforced concrete beam curved in plane is designed for
Options:
1) Bending moment and shear
2) Bending moment and torsion
3) Bending moment
4) Bending moment, shear and torsion
Answer: Bending moment, shear and torsion
 
Q 38: The type of stress induced in the foundation bolts fixing a column to its footing is
Options:
1) Pure compression
2) Bearing
3) Pure tension
4) Bending
Answer: Pure tension
 
Q 39: Which of the following tape is least affected by temperature changes and is highly precise
Options:
1) Linen tape
2) Metallic tape
3) Steel tape
4) Invar tape
Answer: Invar tape
 
Q 40: A series of closely spaced contour lines represents a
Options:
1) Steep slop
2) Gentle slop
3) Uniform slop
4) Plane slop
Answer: Steep slop
 
Q 41: The process of inspiring the subordinates to do a work or achieve an objective is called as
Options:
1) Management
2) Supervision
3) Motivation
4) Communication
Answer: Motivation
 
Q 42: As Per IS specification, the maximum final setting time for ordinary Portland cement should be
Options:
1) 30 minutes
2) 1 hour
3) 6 hours
4) 10 hours
Answer: 10 hours
 
Q 43: Bleeding of concrete is said to occur when
Options:
1) Finer particles settle down at the bottom
2) Coarser particles get separated
3) Cement past rises to the surface of concrete
4) Finer particles collect in isolated pockets
Answer: Cement past rises to the surface of concrete
 
Q 44: The capillary rise at 20oC in clean glass tube of 1 mm diameter, containing water is
Options:
1) 15 mm
2) 50 mm
3) 20 mm
4) 30 mm
Answer: 30 mm
 
Q 45: Newton’s law of viscosity depends upon the
Options:
1) Stress and strain in the fluid
2) Shear stress, pressure and velocity
3) Shear stress and rate of strain
4) Viscosity and shear stress
Answer: Shear stress and rate of strain
 
Q 46: Which one of the following is defined as force per unit length
Options:
1) Surface tension
2) Compressibility
3) Capillarity
4) Viscosity
Answer: Surface tension
 
Q 47: Which of the following are needed both for protection and  metering ?
Options:
1) Wattmeters
2) Instrument transformers
3) Energy meters
4) Power factor meters
Answer: Instrument transformers
 
Q 48: In a thermocouple temperature transducer, the output voltage is usually measured by
Options:
1) High resistance ammeter
2) High resistance voltmeter
3) High resistance milli-voltmeter
4) Low resistance voltmeter /ammeter
Answer: High resistance milli-voltmeter
 
Q 49: A moving Iron instrument gives correct reading when used at
Options:
1) Low frequency
2) High frequency
3) Only one frequency
4) All frequencies up to a certain value
Answer: Only one frequency
 
Q 50: Induction wattmeter can be used in
Options:
1) AC circuit only
2) DC circuit only
3) Both AC and DC circuit
4) AC 3 phase only
Answer: AC circuit only

RRB Junior Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)

Q 51: Assertion (A): Shunt of an ammeter has a low resistance.
Reason (R): Shunt may be connected in series or in parallel with ammeter.
Options:
1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true, R is false
4) A is false, R is true
Answer: A is true, R is false
 
Q 52: The prescribed water consumption for restaurants is
Options:
1) 100 litres per seat per day
2) 125 litres per seat per day
3) 70 litres per seat per day
4) 50 litres per seat per day
Answer: 70 litres per seat per day
 
Q 53: The permissible/ desirable drinking water standard for total dissolved solids is
Options:
1) 600 mg/l
2) 500 mg/l
3) 400 mg/l
4) 1000 mg/l
Answer: 500 mg/l
 
Q 54: In BOD3 determination of sewage, the initial dissolved oxygen is measured to be 8.9 mg/l. however, After 3 day incubation at 27oC temperature, the dissolved oxygen is found to be 1.9 mg/l. If the dilution factor is 1 : 50, the BOD5 of the sewage would be
Optons:
1) 350 mg/l
2) 35 mg/l
3) Cannot be determined
4) 7.0 mg/l
Answer: Cannot be determined
 
Q 55: The continuous exposure of pollutant benzo (α) pyrene may cause
Options:
1) Damage of trachea
2) Swelling in bronchus
3) Respiratory system failure
4) Lung cancer
Answer: Lung cancer
 
Q 56: The noise level of 10 dB is how many times more powerful than the noise level of 1 dB
Options:
1) 100 times
2) 10 times
3) 1000 times
4) 10000 times
Answer: 10 times
 
Q 57: The green house gases as per their decreasing order of effectiveness are
Options:
1) CFC, N2O, CO2, CH4
2) CO2, CH4, N2O and CFC
3) CH4, CO2, N2O and CFC
4) CFC, CH4, CO2, and N2O
Answer: CO2, CH4, N2O and CFC
 
Q 58: Which of the following acts as the central nervous system for other components of the computer system ?
Options:
1) Registers
2) Primary memory
3) Arithmetic and logic unit
4) Control unit
Answer: Control unit
 
Q 59: Which of the following is not a pointing device ?
Options:
1) Mouse
2) Trackball
3) Joystick
4) Keyboard
Answer: keyboard
 
Q 60: Which of the following is not a valid property to characterize storage unit ?
Options:
1) Storage capacity
2) Size
3) Access time
4) Cost per bit of storage
Answer: Size
 
Q 61: The time elapsed between the submission of a job and obtained the results is known as
Options:
1) Seek time
2) Latency
3) Turnaround time
4) Execution time
Answer: Turnaround time
 
Q 62: The binary representation of the decimal number 45.25 is
Options:
1) (101101.01)2
2) (101101.10)2
3) (101010.01)2
4) (101010.10)2
Answer: (101101.01)2
 
Q 63: Considering X and Y as binary variables, the Boolean expression X+Y+1 is equivalent to
Options:
1) X
2) 1
3) 0
4) Y
Answer: 1
 
Q 64: In assembly language_______are used to represent operation codes.
Options:
1) Alphabets
2) Pseudo codes
3) Mnemonics
4) Symbols
Answer: Mnemonics
 
Q 65: Which of the following is not a word processor ?
Options:
1) MS-Word
2) Notepad
3) Wordpad
4) WordPress
Answer: WordPress
 
Q 66: The length of an IPv4 address is
Options:
1) 8 bits
2) 16 bits
3) 32 bits
4) 64 bits
Answer: 32 bits
 
Q 67: Internet Explorer is a
Options:
1) Web browser
2) Web search engine
3) Hypertext transfer protocol
4) Web data store
Answer: Web browser
 
Q 68: A square shaped plane rests on HP with its plane lying on HP. Its front view would appear as a:
Options:
1) Square of reduced size
2) Square of equal size
3) Rhombus
4) Straight line
Answer: Straight line
 
Q 69: A joint that facilitates rotation about axis but arrests displacement is a:
Options:
1) Cotter joint
2) Knuckle joint
3) Spigot joint
4) Socket joint
Answer: Knuckle joint
 
Q 70: A one metre distance is to be measured in decimeter, centimeter and millimeter units. Which type of scale do you suggest ?
Options:
1) Plain scale
2) Comparative scale
3) Digonal scale
4) Either plain scale or diagonal scale will serve the purpose
Answer: Digonal scale
 
Q 71: A circle rolls without slipping on a flat surface. The path traced by a point, lying on circle’s periphery during its rolling is:
Options:
1) Involute
2) Hyperbola
3) Epicycloid
4) Cycloid
Answer: Cycloid
 
Q 72: Vertical edges of an object appear in its isometric view as:
Options:
1) Vertical
2) Inclined at 30o clockwise
3) Inclined at 30o counter clockwise
4) Inclined at 15o
Answer: Vertical
 
Q 73: An object of mass m at rest is acted upon by a force. The velocity-time graph (velocity on y-axis and time on x-axis) is found be a straight line passing through origin and inclined to x-axis with slope c. The force acting on the object is.
Options:
1) 0
2) m/c
3) m c
4) 2m c
Answer: m c
 
Q 74: The SI unit of gravitational constant. G is
Options:
1) N m2 kg-2
2) N m-2 kg-2
3) N kg2 m-2
4) m2 kg-1 s-2
Answer: N m2 kg-2
 
Q 75: A force acting on an object of mass m changes its velocity during its course of motion In which of the following cases, the work done by the force is maximum ?
Options:
1) When velocity of the object changes from 0 to v m/s
2) When velocity of the object changes from v m/s to 2 v m/s
3) When velocity of the object changes from 2 v m/s to 3 v m/s
4) When velocity of the object changes from 3 v m/s to 4 v m/s
Answer: When velocity of the object changes from 3 v m/s to 4 v m/s

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Q 76: In a longitudinal sound wave, the particles of the medium move
Options:
1) About their position of rest in a direction parallel to the direction of propagation of disturbance
2) About their position of rest in a direction perpendicular to the direction of propagation of disturbance
3) From one place to another in a direction parallel to the direction of propagation of disturbance
4) From one place to another in a direction perpendicular to the direction of propagation of disturbance
Answer: About their position of rest in a direction parallel to the direction of propagation of disturbance
 
Q 77: Rays of light are evident on a concave mirror parallel to the principal axis. After reflection, they meet at
Options:
1) Infinity
2) The centre of curvature
3) At focus
4) At a point half way to the focus
Answer: A focus
 
Q 78: A conducting wire of length 1 and resistance R is cut into two equal parts. The two parts are then connected in parallel. The resistance of the combination is
Options:
1) R/2
2) R/4
3) R
4) 2R
Answer: R/4
 
Q 79: A student heats a beaker containing water continuously and measures the temperature as a function of time. She found that the temperature of water increases with time. After sometime, It becomes constant in spite of heat being supplied. The temperature remains constant up to a certain stage. The value of the constant temperature of water is
Options:
1) 25oC
2) 45oC
3) 85oC
4) 100oC
Answer: 100oC
 
Q 80: Which one of the following is correct regarding the electrolytic refining of impure copper ?
Options:
1) Impure copper is taken as the cathode
2) Pure copper is deposited at the anode
3) Pure copper is deposited at the cathode
4) Impurities are settled as the cathode mud
Answer: Pure copper is deposited at the cathode
 
Q 81: On heating with an alkaline solution of KMnO4, ethanol produces
Options:
1) Ethanoic acid
2) Ethanol
3) Methanol
4) Methanoic acid
Answer: Ethanoic acid
 
Q 82: A triatomic oxide of an element “X’ reacts with hydrochloric acid to produced the solution of a diatomic salt and water. Which of the following is correct about the formula of the oxide and its chemical nature ?
Options:
1) The formula is XO and it is acidic in nature.
2) The formula is XO and it is basic in nature.
3) The formula is X2O and it is acidic in nature.
4) The formula is X2O and it is basic in nature.
Answer: The formula is X2O and it is basic in nature.
 
Q 83: Lime water turns milky on passing through it On passing excess of carbon dioxide gas, milkiness disappears. It is due to the formation of
Options:
1) CaCO3
2) CaHCO3
3) Ca (HCO3)2
4) Ca(OH)2
Answer: Ca (HCO3)2
 
Q 84: Eka-aluminium predicted by Mendeleev was found to have properties similar to
Options:
1) Scandium
2) Gallium
3) Germanium
4) Thallium
Answer: Gallium
 
Q 85: One of the causes of death of marine birds is
Options:
1) Leaked oil from ships
2) Overfishing by human beings
3) Oceanic waves
4) Wet feathers
Answer: Leaked oil from ships
 
Q 86: Which is the reproductive organ of Angiosperms ?
Options:
1) Root hairs
2) Nodes of branches
3) Flower
4) Fruit
Answer: Flower
 
Q 87: Bt Cotton is
Options:
1) Hybrid Cotton
2) A new species of Cotton
3) A wild species of Cotton
4) Genetically modified Cotton
Answer: Genetically modified Cotton
 
Q 88: One feature of mammals common to all mammals without exception is
Options:
1) Presence of hair
2) Presence of mammary glands
3) Giving birth to babies (viviparity)
4) Seven vertebrae in the neck
Answer: Presence of mammary glands
 
Q 89: When a scientific name is written, the names of genus and species are
Options:
1) Both begun with small letters
2) Both begun with capital letters
3) Genus name is begun with capital letter and species name with small letter
4) Genus name is begun with small letter and species name with capital letter
Answer: Genus name is begun with capital letter and species name with small letter
 
Q 90: When you chew bread it begins to taste sweet because
Options:
1) Saliva is sweet to taste
2) Saliva releases the sugar in bread
3) Saliva turns starch in bread into sugar
4) Saliva turns the protein in bread into amino acids
Answer: Saliva turns starch in bread into sugar
 
Q 91: Let x be the greatest number that divides 55, 127 and 175 leaving the same remainder in each case. The remainder in each case is
Options:
1) 3
2) 5
3) 7
4) 9
Answer: 7
 
Q 92: LCM of the numbers a, b, c and d, where a = 25x113x134, b=24x115x135, c=24x115x133 and d=23x114x134 Is
Options:
1) (2x11x13)5
2) 25x114x135
3) (2x11x13)4
4) 24x115x134
Answer: 25x114x135
 
Q 93: In an examination, a student secured 30% marks and failed by 42 marks and another student who secured 50% marks, got 42 more marks than the minimum marks to pass. The pass percentage is
Options:
1) 33
2) 35
3) 38
4) 40
Answer: 40
 
Q 94: If A : B = 2 : 3, 5B = 4C and 2C = 5D, then A : B : C : D is
Options:
1) 6 : 8 : 12 : 15
2) 8 : 12 : 15 : 6
3) 8 : 15 : 12 : 6
4) 8 : 12 : 6 : 15
Answer: 8 : 12 : 15 : 6
 
Q 95: Ratio of monthly incomes of A and B is 4 : 3 and that of their expenditures is 3:2. If each of them saves Rs.5000 per month, then the sum of monthly incomes of A and B in Rs is
Options:
1) 21000
2) 28000
3) 35000
4) 42000
Answer: 35000
 
Q 96: Two equal jars are filled with the solutions of spirit and water. In the first jars, the ratio of spirit and water is 5:7 and that in the second is 7:13 The contents of the jars are then emptied into a single container. The ratio of spirit and water in it is
Options:
1) 23 : 37
2) 37 : 23
3) 35 : 33
4) 3 : 4
Answer: 23 : 37
 
Q 97: 150  grams of an alloy of copper and zinc contains 60% copper (by weight0. The quantity of copper (in grams) must be mixed up with this alloy so as to get another alloy containing 70% copper is
Options:
1) 60
2) 55
3) 50
4) 45
Answer: 50
 
Q 98: A shopkeeper sells an article for Rs.96 and earns double the profit than he would have earned had he sold it for Rs.88. If he sells the article at Rs.110, his percent profit is
Options:
1) 20
2) 25
3) 37.5
4) 34.1
Answer: 37.5
 
Q 99: The marked price of a TV is Rs.32500. After allowing a discount of 20% to a customer, a shopkeeper still makes a profit of 30%. If he sells the TV at the marked price, his profit percent is
Options:
1) 50
2) 56.8
3) 62.5
4) 70
Answer: 62.5
 
Q 100: A boat moves down stream at the rate of 1 km in 7\frac{1}{2} minutes and upstream at the rate of 5 km an hour. The speed of the boat (in km/hour) in still water is
Options:
1) 3
2)  4\frac{1}{2}
3) 5
4)  6\frac{1}{2}
Answer: 6\frac{1}{2}

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Q 101: A man takes 6 hours 15 minutes in walking to a certain place and riding back. He would have gained 2 hours 40 minutes by riding both ways. How long would he take to walk both ways ?
Options:
1) 8 hours 35 minutes
2) 8 hours 55 minutes
3) 9 hours 55 minutes
4) 10 hours 35 minutes
Answer: 8 hours 55 minutes
 
Q 102: A loan has to be returned in two equal annual installments. If the rate of interest is 16% per annum compounded  annually and each installment is of Rs 3364, then the loan is of Rs
Options:
1) Rs.5328
2) Rs.5400
3) Rs.5700
4) Rs.6728
Answer: Rs.5400
 
Q 103: Simple interest on a certain sum is 1/16 of the principal. If the numbers representing the rate of interest in percent per annum and in years be equal, then the rate of interest is
Options:
1) 2.5
2) 3
3) 3.5
4) 4
Answer: 2.5
 
Q 104: A and B can do a piece of work in 8 days, B and C in 24 days and A and C in 36 days. In what time (in days) can A do it alone ?
Options:
1)  28\frac{2}{6}
2) 48
3) 54
4)  56\frac{3}{5}
Answer: 48
 
Q 105: Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 10 and 24 minutes respectively. Both pipes having being opened at the same time. When should the first pipe be turned off so that the cistern may be completely filled in 9 minutes
Options:
1) 6 minutes 15 seconds
2) 5 minutes 30 seconds
3) 3 minutes 45 seconds
4) 4 minutes 45 seconds
Answer: 6 minutes 15 seconds
 
Q 106: If the sum of five consecutive positive integers is 40, then the average of first and last integers is
Options:
1) 6
2) 8
3) 9
4) 10
Answer: 8
 
Q 107: Five years ago, the average age of A, B and C was 20 years. Four years ago, the average age of A and B was 19 years. C’s present age (in years)
Options:
1) 23
2) 25
3) 27
4) 29
Answer: 29
 
Q 108: The values of a, for which the equation
X2-(3a-1)x+2a2+2a-11=0 will have equal roots are
Options:
1) 4, 5
2) 5, 6
3) 6, 9
4) 5, 9
Answer: 5, 9
 
Q 109: The quadratic equation, whose roots are reciprocal of the roots of
3x2-7x+8=0, is
Options:
1) 8x2-7x+3=0
2) 8x2+7x-3=0
3) 8x2-7x-3=0
4) 8x2+7x+3=0
Answer: 8x2-7x+3=0
 
Q 110: One of the factors of (x+2)(x-3)(x-5) + 40 is
Options:
1) x2+x-16
2) x2-x-16
3) x2+x-10
4) x2-x+10
Answer: x2-x-16
 
Q 111: Factorization of x4-5x3+14x2-20x+16 is
Options:
1) (x2-2x+4) (x2-3x+4)
2) (x2-2x-4) (x2-3x-4)
3) (x2+2x+4) (x2-3x+4)
4) (x2+2x-4) (x2-3x-4)
Answer: (x2-2x+4) (x2-3x+4)
 
Q 112: If the sums of first n terms of two arithmetic progressions are in the ratio (2n+1) : (n+1), then the ratio of their 10th terms is
Options:
1) 39 : 20
2) 37 : 22
3) 37 : 19
4) 21 : 11
Answer: 39 : 20
 
Q 113: The sum of the infinite geometric series 10+8+6\frac{2}{5}+………….is
Options:
1) 42
2) 48
3) 50
4) 52
Answer: 50
 
Q 114: The value of tan10o tan25o tan45o tan65o tan80o / (Sin269o+Sin221o) + (Cos251o+Cos239o) is
Options:
1) 2
2)1
3) 1/2
4) 1/4
Answer: 1/2
 
Q 115: An observer 1.5 m tall is 45 m away from a tower. The angle of elevation of the top of the tower from his eyes is 300. The height (in m) of the tower is approximately
Options:
1) 25.9
2) 27.5
3) 27.8
4) 29.9
Answer: 27.5
 
Q 116: Match List 1 with List 2 and select the correct answer from the codes given below in the list

List 1 (King) List 2 (Kingdom)
A. Pradyota 1. Magadha
B. Udayana 2. Vatsa
C. Prasenjita 3. Avanthi
D. Ajatsatru 4. Kosala

 
Options:
1) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
2) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
3) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
4) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
Answer: A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
 
Q 117: Who among the following was the first Bhakti saint to use Hindi for propagation of his message ?
Options:
1) Dadu
2) Kabir
3) Ramananda
4) Tulsidas
Answer: Ramananda
 
Q 118: Who was the first Indian native ruler to accept the system of Subsidiary Alliance ?
Options:
1) Scindia of Gwalior
2) Nizam of Hyderabad
3) Dalip Singh of Punjab
4) Gaikwad of Baroda
Answer: Nizam of Hyderabad
 
Q 119: Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(Country-Capital)
Options:
1) Indonesia-Jakarta
2) Maldives-Mali
3) North Korea-Seoul
4) Zimbabwe-Harare
Answer: North Korea-Seoul
 
Q 120: If a small raindrop falls through air,
Options:
1) Its velocity goes on decreasing
2) Its velocity goes on increasing
3) Its value goes on increasing for some time and then becomes constant
4) It falls with constant speed for some time and then its velocity increases
Answer: Its value goes on increasing for some time and then becomes constant
 
Q 121: Neap tides occur during which of the following phases of moon
Options:
1) First quarter only
2) First and Third quarter
3) Second and third quarter
4) Fourth quarter
Answer: First and Third quarter
 
Q 122: If a moving body doubles its velocity. Then its kinetic energy becomes
Options:
1) Double
2) Four times
3) Same
4) Three times
Answer: Four times
 
Q 123: The blackboard seems black because it
Options:
1) Reflects every colour
2) Does not reflect any colour
3) Absorbs black colour
4) Reflects black colour
Answer: Does not reflect any colour
 
Q 124: The magnetic lines of force produced through a bar magnet
Options:
1) Cross inside the magnetic body
2) Only cross across the neutral point of the magnet
3) Only cross across the north pole and south pole
4) Does not cross anywhere in the magnet
Answer: Does not cross anywhere in the magnet
 
Q 125: The schedule of the Constitution of India which contains specific provisions for the administration and control of scheduled areas in several states ?
Options:
1) Third
2) Fifth
3) Seventh
4) Ninth
Answer: Fifth

RRB Junior Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)

Q 126: Who among the following Prime Ministers resigned before facing a vote of no-confidence in the Lok Sabah ?
Options:
1) Chandra Sekhar
2) Morarji Desai
3) Chaudhary Charan Singh
4) V.P. Singh
Answer: Chaudhary Charan Singh
 
Q 127: When was the Jawaha Rojgar Yojana Launched ?
Options:
1) 1985
2) 1987
3) 1989
4) 1991
Answer: 1989
 
Q 128: National Agricultural Insurance Scheme replacing Comprehensive Corp Insurance Scheme was introduced in the year ?
Options:
1) 1997
2) 1998
3) 1999
4) 2000
Answer: 1999
 
Q 129: Which of the following pairs are correctly matched

Enterprise Industrial Group
1. VSNL Bharati Group
2. Mundra SEZ Adani Group
3. CMC Ltd Tata Group
4. IPCL Reliance Group

 
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Options:
1) 1, 2 and 3
2) 1, 2 and 4
3) 3 and 4
4) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: 2, 3 and 4
 
Q 130: Merdeka cup is associated with
Options:
1) Cricket
2) Football
3) Rugby
4) Hockey
Answer: Football
 
Q 131: The five intertwined rings or circles flag made of which colours (from left to right)
Options:
1) Blue, Yellow, black, green and red
2) Yellow, red, green, black and blue
3) Red, green, black, yellow and blue
4) Yellow, green, black, blue and red
Answer: Blue, Yellow, black, green and red
 
Q 132: Maximum amount of energy (ATP) is liberated on oxidation of
Options:
1) Fats
2) Protein
3) Starch
4) Vitamin
Answer: Fats
 
Q 133: The scientist who studied about wheat rust problem
Options:
1) H.C.Bose
2) K.C.Mehta
3) Birbal Shani
4) D.D.Pant
Answer: K.C.Mehta
 
Q 134: Ornithology is the study of
Options:
1) Mammal
2) Birds
3) Fishes
4) Bar
Answer: Birds
 
Q 135: Which one of the following was used as a chemical weapon in the First World War
Options:
1) Carbon mono-oxide
2) Hydrogen cyanide
3) Mustard gas
4) Water gas
Answer: Mustard gas
 
Q 136: Which of the following is used in making ointment for curing skin disease ?
Options:
1) ZnCO3
2) ZnSO4
3) ZnO
4) ZnS
Answer: ZnCO3
 
Q 137: The characteristic odour of garlic is due to
Options:
1) A chloro compound
2) A sulphur compound
3) A fluorine compound
4) Acetic acid
Answer: A sulphur compound
 
Q 138: Who was presented the Man Booker International Prize for 2015 in London on May 20, 2015 ?
Options:
1) George Szirtes
2) Lesley Nneka Arimah
3) Laszlo Krasznahorkai
4) Kevin Javed Hosein
Answer:  Laszlo Krasznahorkai
 
Q 139: Maharashtra’s first Indian Institute of Information Technology (IIIT) will be setup in which city ?
Options:
1) Nagpur
2) Aurangabad
3) Navi Mumbai
4) Pune
Answer: Nagpur
 
Q 140: French director Jacques Audiard won the Palme d’ or, the top honour of the 68th Cannes film festival on May 24, 2015 for which film ?
Options:
1) Son of soul
2) Dheepan
3) The Lobster
4) The Measure of a Man
Answer: Dheepan
 
Q 141: Pointing to a lady, Shabnam said, “She is the daughter of the mother of my brother’s father.” Who is the lady to Shabnam ?
Options:
1) Granddaughter
2) Daughter
3) Sister
4) Aunt
Answer: Aunt
 
Q 142: The first two numbers on the left of the sign ‘::’ are related in a certain way. The same relationship holds for the second pair of numbers on the right side of the sign ‘::’ of which one is missing. Find the missing one from the alternatives.
27 : 9 : 125 : ?
Options:
1) 5
2) 12
3) 25
4) 45
Answer: 25
 
Q 143: Touch is related to feel in the same way as hear is related to:
Options:
1) Listen
2) Noise
3) Loudness
4) Vibrate
Answer: Listen
 
Q 144: Among five friends A, B, C, D and E, B is elder to C while D and A are elder to E. If in terms of age, A is between C and E, which of the following is necessarily true ?
Options:
1) B is younger to D
2) D is elder to C
3) C and D are of the same age
4) C is elder to E
Answer: C is elder to E
 
Q 145: Arrange the following words in a meaningful logical sequence and choose the appropriate number sequence from the alternatives.

  1. Rainbow 2. Happy 3. Cloud   4. Rain   5. Children   6. Sun

Options:
1) 2, 5, 6, 4, 1, 3
2) 3, 4, 6, 1, 5, 2
3) 3, 4, 1, 6, 5, 2
4) 4, 3, 6, 1, 5, 2
Answer: 3, 4, 6, 1, 5, 2
 
Q 146: One term in the following number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
344, 217, 126, 66, 28, 9
Options:
1) 217
2) 126
3) 66
4) 28
Answer: 66
 
Q 147: If BET = 27 and HEAD = 18, then LOAD will be equal to:
Options:
1) 32
2) 42
3) 22
4) 20
Answer: 32
 
Q 148: If ‘THUMPING’ is coded as ‘MUHTGNIP’, then ‘PERCEIVE’ would be coded as:
Options:
1) EVIECREP
2) CREPEVIE
3) EPCRIEEV
4) CREPEIEV
Answer: CREPEVIE
 
Q 149: Sonali’s school bus picks her from her house, takes one right turn and then two successive left turns to reach her school. If the bus is facing South when it reaches the school, which dirwction was the bus facing when it left Sonali’s house ?
Options:
1) East
2) South
3) North
4) West
Answer: West
 
Q 150: The numbers in the following figures follow a pattern. Which number would replace the question mark ?
pattern reasoning
Options:
1) 65
2) 70
3) 80
4) 110
Answer: 80
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