RRB JE exam
Exam Duration: 120
Number of Questions: 150
Total Marks: 150
Correct: 1 mark
Wrong: 0.33 Negative marks
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Q 1: First law of thermodynamics deals with
Options:
1) Conservation of heat
2) Conservation of momentum
3) Conservation of mass
4) Conservation of energy
Answer: Conservation of energy
Q 2: An isothermal process is governed by
Options:
1) Boyle’s Law
2) Charle’s Law
3) Gay-Iussac’s Law
4) Avogadro’s law
Answer: Boyle’s Law
Q 3: A carburetor is used to supply
Options:
1) Petrol, air and lubricating oil
2) Air and diesel
3) Petrol and lubricating oil
4) Petrol and air
Answer: Petrol and air
Q 4: A diesel engine has compression ratio from
Options:
1) 6 to 10
2) 10 to 15
3) 15 to 25
4) 25 to 40
Answer: 15 to 25
Q 5: Heat is closely related with
Options:
1) Energy
2) Temperature
3) Entropy
4) Enthalpy
Answer: Temperature
Q 6: Metals are good conductor of heat because
Options:
1) Their atoms collide frequently
2) Their atoms are relatively far apart
3) They contain free electron
4) They have high density
Answer: Their atoms collide frequently
Q 7: Heat conduction in gases is due to
Options:
1) Electromagnetic waves
2) Motion of electrons
3) Mixing motion of the different layers of the gas
4) Elastic impact of molecules
Answer: Elastic impact of molecules
Q 8: In shielding arc welding
Options:
1) Large electrode is used
2) Welding rod coated with slag is used
3) Welding rod coated with flux material is used
4) Welding rod is not used
Answer: Welding rod coated with flux material is used
Q 9: Oxyacetylene flame having more amount of C2H2 is called
Options:
1) Oxidizing flame
2) Neutral flame
3) Carburizing flame
4) Red flame
Answer: Carburizing flame
Q 10: Nose radius is expressed in
Options:
1) Degree
2) Radian
3) mm
4) Steradian
Answer: mm
Q 11: An ideal tool material is the one which
Options:
1) Has very long life
2) Has same life at all cutting speed
3) Produces no heat during cutting
4) Produces smooth surface finish
Answer: Has same life at all cutting speed
Q 12: Chills are used in casting moulds to
Options:
1) Achieve directional solidification
2) Reduce possibility of blow holes
3) Reduce the freezing time
4) Increase the smoothness of surface
Answer: Achieve directional solidification
Q 13: The two parts of a sand casting mould are called
Options:
1) Gate and sprue
2) Upper and drag
3) Cope and drag
4) Cope and bottom
Answer: Cope and drag
Q 14: An engine operates between temperature limits of 900 K and T2; and another between T2 and 400 K. For both the engines to be equally efficient. T2 should be equal to
Options:
1) 600 K
2) 650 k
3) 625 K
4) 700 K
Answer: 600 K
Q 15: A network or circuit that does not contain any source of emf is known as
Options:
1) Active network
2) Linear circuit
3) Bilateral network
4) Passive network
Answer: Passive network
Q 16: The number of brushes in the commutator depends upon
Options:
1) Speed of armature
2) Type of winding
3) Voltage
4) Amount of current to be collected
Answer: Amount of current to be collected
Q 17: The phenomenon of “crawling” in an induction motor occurs due to
Options:
1) Improper design of machine
2) Low voltage supply
3) High load
4) Harmonics developed in the motor
Answer: Harmonics developed in the motor
Q 18: Determine the speed control method for a DC motor shown in the following figure:
Options:
1) Field diverter method
2) Armature diverter method
3) Tapped Field Control
4) Resistance diverter control
Answer: Field diverter method
Q 19: A no-load test is performed on a transformer to determine
Options:
1) Magnetising current only
2) Core losses only
3) Efficiency
4) Magnetising current and losses
Answer: Magnetising current and losses
Q 20: The ratio of secondary turns to primary in a transformer is 3. If the emf in the secondary coil is 600 V. emf in the primary will be
Options:
1) 1800 V
2) 900 V
3) 200 V
4) 600 V
Answer: 200 V
Q 21: The shaded pole motor is used for
Options:
1) High starting torque
2) Low starting torque
3) Medium starting torque
4) Very high starting torque
Answer: Low starting torque
Q 22: The equipment installed in power plants to reduce air pollution due to smoke is called
Options:
1) De superheaters
2) Economiser
3) Preheater
4) Electrostatic Precipitators
Answer: Electrostatic Precipitators
Q 23: Which of the following is not a welding accessory ?
Options:
1) Goggles
2) Vacuum cleaner
3) Gloves
4) Electrode holder
Answer: Vacuum cleaner
Q 24: The key job of the relay is to
Options:
1) Increase voltage
2) Search the family
3) Reduce resistance
4) Stop the current flow
Answer: Search the family
Q 25: 1001012 is equal to decimal number
Options:
1) 47
2) 37
3) 21
4) 17
Answer: 37
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Q 26: A counter has N flip flops. The total number of states are
Options:
1) N
2) N2
3) 4N
4) 2n
Answer: 2n
Q 27: In an n-p-n transistor, the majority carriers in the base are
Options:
1) Holes
2) Electrons
3) Both holes and electrons
4) Either electrons or holes
Answer: Holes
Q 28: Which of the following is used for generating time varying wave forms ?
Options:
1) MOSFET
2) PIN diode
3) Tunnel diode
4) UJT
Answer: UJT
Q 29: The voltage across a zener diode
Options:
1) Is constant in forward direction
2) Is constant in reverse direction
3) Is constant in both forward and reverse direction
4) Is not constant
Answer: Is constant in reverse direction
Q 30: Which of these has highly doped p and n region ?
Options:
1) PIN diode
2) Tunnel diode
3) Photodiode
4) Schottky diode
Answer: Tunnel diode
Q 31: At room temperature a semiconductor material is
Options:
1) Perfect Insulator
2) Super conducting
3) Slightly conducting
4) Slightly conducting
Answer: Slightly conducting
Q 32: Which of the following has highest conductivity ?
Options:
1) Silver
2) Aluminium
3) Platinum
4) Tin
Answer: Silver
Q 33: In TV, an electrical disturbance (noise) affects
Options:
1) Neither the video nor the audio signals
2) Only the audio signals
3) Both the video and audio signals
4) Only the video signals
Answer: Only the video signals
Q 34: In a mercury arc rectifier, characteristic blue luminosity is due to
Options:
1) High temperature
2) Electron streams
3) Ionization
4) Colour of mercury
Answer: Ionization
Q 35: The stress below which a material has a high probability of not failing under reversal of stress is known as
Options:
1) Tolerance limit
2) Elastic limit
3) Proportional limit
4) Endurance limit
Answer: Endurance limit
Q 36: A pycnometer is used to determine
Options:
1) Water content and voids ratio
2) Specific gravity and dry density
3) Water content and specific gravity
4) Voids ratio and dry density
Answer: Water content and specific gravity
Q 37: For M20 grade of concrete, the maximum shear stress shall not exceed
Options:
1) 1.6 N/mm2
2) 1.9 N/mm2
3) 2.8 N/mm2
4) 2.2 N/mm2
Answer: 2.8 N/mm2
Q 38: Lacings are subjected to
Options:
1) Transverse loading
2) Axial loading plus bending
3) Axial loading plus shear force
4) Axial loading only
Answer: Axial loading only
Q 39: The flow profile of a fluid depends upon
Options:
1) Velocity of the fluid only
2) The diameter of the tube only
3) The Reynold number
4) The surface roughness
Answer: The Reynold number
Q 40: In PERT analysis, event means
Options:
1) Start or finish of a task
2) Time taken for a task
3) End of an activity
4) Work involved in the project
Answer: Start or finish of a task
Q 41: Plaster of paris is obtained by calcining
Options:
1) Gypsum
2) Bauxite
3) Lime stone
4) Commonly available timber
Answer: Structural timber
Q 42: Plywood is obtained from
Options:
1) Bamboo
2) Teak wood
3) Structural timber
4) Commonly available timber
Answer: Structural timber
Q 43: Which of the following device is not used to measure the rate of flow
Options:
1) Venturimeter
2) Pitot tube
3) Orificemeter
4) Rotameter
Answer: Pitot tube
Q 44: Intersection method of detailed plotting is most suitable for
Options:
1) Forests
2) Urban areas
3) Hilly areas
4) Plains
Answer: Hilly areas
Q 45: Coarse grained soils are best compacted by a
Options:
1) Drum roller
2) Rubbed tyred roller
3) Sheep’s foot roller
4) Vibratory roller
Answer: Vibratory roller
Q 46: Percentage of carbon content in mild steel is
Options:
1) Less than 0.25
2) Between 0.25 to 0.7
3) Between 0.7 to 1.5
4) Greater than 1.5
Answer: Less than 0.25
Q 47: An induction meter can handle current upto
Options:
1) 10 A
2) 30 A
3) 60 A
4) 100 A
Answer: 100 A
Q 48: Induction type single phase energy meters measure electric energy in
Options:
1) kW
2) Wh
3) kWh
4) VAR
Answer: kWh
Q 49: Which of the following is/are an essential part of a motor meter ?
Options:
1) An operating torque system
2) A braking device
3) Revolution registering device
4) Operating torque system, braking device and Revolution registering device
Answer: Operating torque system, braking device and Revolution registering device
Q 50: _________is an instrument which measures the insulation resistance of an electric circuit relative to earth and one another.
Options:
1) Tangent galvanometer
2) Meggan
3) Current transformer
4) Thermisto
Answer: Meggan
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Q 51: The household energy meter is
Options:
1) An indicating instrument
2) A recording instrument
3) An integrating instrument
4) Both integrating and indicating instrument
Answer: An integrating instrument
Q 52: In house water connection, a ferrule is provided, which is a
Options:
1) Small sized curved pipe made of a flexible material
2) Right angled sleeve made of brass or gun metal
3) Galvanised iron pipe of size less than 50 mm diameter
4) Flexible connection between the water main and the service pipe
Answer: Right angled sleeve made of brass or gun metal
Q 53: The prescribed permissible limit of chloride in drinking water is
Options:
1) 15 mg/l
2) 200 mg/l
3) 250 mg/l
4) 300 mg/l
Answer: 250 mg/l
Q 54: The water treatment plants are generally designed for a period of
Options:
1) 50 years
2) 30 years
3) 40 years
4) 25 years
Answer: 30 years
Q 55: The oxides of nitrogen at higher concentration levels affect a fabric resulting its colour to change from
Options:
1) White to black
2) White to grey
3) White to yellow
4) White to pink
Answer: White to yellow
Q 56: Two machines are working in a noisy environment. Machine are jointly producing 75 dBA noise level. However, the background noise level is also 75 dBA. The summation of these two noise levels is
Options:
1) 150 dBA
2) 75 dBA
3) 78 dBA
4) 81 dBA
Answer: 78 dBA
Q 57: In stratosphere, the ozone concentration
Options:
1) Increases with altitude
2) Found maximum at mid and decreases either side
3) decreases with altitude
4) Uniformaly distributed within the sphere
Answer: Found maximum at mid and decreases either side
Q 58: Mouse is a(an) ________
Options:
1) Input device
2) Output device
3) Storage device
4) Both input and Output device
Answer: Input device
Q 59: Which of the following is not true about EEPROM ?
Options:
1) Random access memory
2) Electrically erasable programmable read only memory
3) Non-volatile memory
4) Sequential access memory
Answer: Sequential access memory
Q 60: Which of the following is not a valid category of “system bus” in a computer system ?
Options:
1) Data bus
2) Control bus
3) Address bus
4) Memory bus
Answer: Memory bus
Q 61: EBCDIC stands for_________
Options:
1) Extended Binary Coded Data Interchange Code
2) Expanded Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
3) Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
4) Expanded Binary Coded Data Interchange Code
Answer: Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
Q 62: The octal representation of 195.25 is________
Options:
1) (303.20)s
2) (302.02)s
3) (313.20)s
4) (323.20)s
Answer: (303.20)s
Q 63: Considering X as a binary variable, the Boolean expression X + X’ is equivalent to
Options:
1) X
2) 1
3) 0
4) X’
Answer: 1
Q 64: The 2’s compliment of the binary number (11111111)2 is
Options:
1) (10000000)2
2) (00000000)2
3) (00000001)2
4) (01010101)2
Answer: (00000001)2
Q 65: Which of the following operating systems is case sensitive ?
Options:
1) Unix
2) MS-DOS
3) MS-Windows
span style=”color: #000000; font-size: 10pt;”>4) Mac OS X
Answer: Unix
Q 66: Class ‘C’ IP addresses use__________bits for Host ID.
Options:
1) 8
2) 16
3) 24
4) 32
Answer: 8
Q 67: Which of the following is not an e-mail protocol ?
Options:
1) POP
2) IMAP
pan style=”color: #000000; font-size: 10pt;”>3) SMTP
span style=”color: #000000; font-size: 10pt;”>4) FTP
Answer: FTP
Q 68: The diagonal scale is used to represent
Options:
1) Three consecutive units
2) Two consecutive units
3) Diagonal of square
4) Diagonal of rectangle
Answer: Three consecutive units
Q 69: If a line is parallel to H.P. and inclined to V.P., its true length will be seen in
Options:
1) Front view
2) Top view
3) Side view
4) Both front and top views
Answer: Top view
Q 70: If both the front and top views of a plane arc straight lines, it may be
Options:
1) Perpendicular to both horizontal and vertical planes
2) Parallel to horizontal plane and perpendicular to vertical plane
3) Perpendicular to horizontal plane and parallel to vertical plane
4) Parallel to both horizontal and vertical planes
Answer: Perpendicular to both horizontal and vertical planes
Q 71: For orthographic projections, BIS recommends the following projections.
Options:
1) Fourth-angle projection
2) Third-angle projection
3) First-angle projection
4) Second-angle projection
Answer: First-angle projection
Q 72: A square lamina perpendicular to the H.P. and inclined to V.P., Its
Options:
1) V.T. will be perpendicular to the reference line
2) H.T. will be parallel to the reference line
3) V.T. will be parallel to the reference line
4) V.T. will be inclined to the reference line
Answer: V.T. will be perpendicular to the reference line
Q 73: A force gives a certain mass an acceleration a. If the force is doubled and mass is reduced to half of its original value, the acceleration becomes
Options:
1) a
2) 2a
3) 4a
4) 6a
Answer: 4a
Q 74: Let F1 and F2 be the force between two bodies separated by a distance d and 2d respectively. Then F2/F1 is
Options:
1) 2
2) 1/2
3) 4
4) 1/4
Answer: 1/4
Q 75: The time taken to perform 320 J of Work at a rate of 64 W is
Options:
1) 0.2 s
2) 5 s
3) 10 s
4) 64 s
Answer: 5 s
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Q 76: Radha uses a source A of frequency f and Meera uses another source B of frequency 2 f to produce sound waves in a school science laboratory. Let λA and λB represent the wavelength of waves produced by sources A and B respectively. Then λB / λA is
Options:
1) 1
2) 2
3) 0.5
4) 4
Answer: 0.5
Q 77: An object is placed at a distance less than one focal length from a thin convex lens. Which of the following best describes the image formed ?
Options:
1) Erect, virtual and enlarged
2) Erect, virtual and diminished
3) Inverted, real and enlarged
4) Inverted, real and diminished
Answer: Erect, virtual and enlarged
Q 78: When two identical resistors are connected in series across a battery, the power dissipated is 10 W. If these resistors are connected in parallel across the same battery, the total power dissipated will be
Options:
1) 10 W
2) 20 W
3) 40 W
4) 80 W
Answer: 40 W
Q 79: Which of the following chemical equation represents the reaction of roasting process ?
Options:
1) ZnCO3 → ZnO + CO2
2) ZnO + C → Zn + CO
3) 2CuS + O2 → 2CuO + 2SO2
4) Cu + O2 → 2CuO
Answer: 2CuS + O2 → 2CuO + 2SO2
Q 80: The charges on aluminum and sulphate ions are +3 and -2 repectively. The correct molecular formula of aluminum sulphate is
Options:
1) Protection of its surface from atmospheric gases
2) A physical change
3) A process of oxidation
4) A process of Reduction
Answer: A process of oxidation
Q 81: Corrosion of Iron is
Options:
1) Protection of its surface from atmospheric gases
2) A physical change
3) A process of oxidation
4) A process of Reduction
Answer: A process of oxidation
Q 82: Which one of the following set of elements is written in increasing order of their atomic radii ?
Options:
1) K Na Li
2) Br F Cl
3) O F Cl
4) O N P
Answer: O N P
Q 83: Which one of the following is an amphoteric oxide ?
Options:
1) Na2O
2) SO3
3) Ag2O
4) ZnO
Answer: ZnO
Q 84: Which reaction of an alcohol would produce a sweet smelling compound ?
Options:
1) Esterification
2) Addition
3) Decomposition
4) Dehydration
Answer: Esterification
Q 85: Which statement about viruses is not true ?
Options:
1) Contain DNA
2) Are used for Genetic Engineering
3) Some cause diseases
4) Are living organisms
Answer: Are living organisms
Q 86: From which chamber of the heart does Pulmonary artery carry blood to the lungs ?
Options:
1) Left Ventricle
2) Left Atrium
3) Right Atrium
4) Right Ventricle
Answer: Right Ventricle
Q 87: A layer of gas prevents solar radiations to go back into space and causes Global Warming. Which gas is it ?
Options:
1) Oxygen
2) Carbon dioxide
3) Sulphur dioxide
4) Nitrogen
Answer: Carbon dioxide
Q 88: Who gave the ‘Laws of Inheritance’ and is considered as ‘The Father of Genetics’ ?
Options:
1) Gregor Johann Mendel
2) Charles Darwin
3) Isaac Newton
4) James Watson
Answer: Gregor Johann Mendel
Q 89: The time taken by the fetus (developing embryo) to complete development inside the mother’s womb is approximately
Options:
1) 6 months
2) 8 months 10 days
3) 280 days
4) 320 days
Answer: 280 days
Q 90: After food is synthesized by the leaves of the plant, it reaches other parts of the plant through
Options:
1) Xylem
2) Phloem
3) Cell to cell by osmosis
4) Cell to cell by diffusion
Answer: Phloem
Q 91: The HCF of two numbers is 12 and their LCM is 72. If one number is 48, the other number is
Options:
1) 18
2) 24
3) 36
4) Data is inconsistent
Answer: Data is inconsistent
Q 92: The largest number which divides by 125 and 187, leaving remainders 5 and 7 respectively is
Options:
1) 60
2) 30
3) 20
4) 10
Answer: 60
Q 93: If a : b = 5 : 12 and b : c = 8 : 5, then a : c is
Options:
1) 3 : 2
2) 2 : 3
3) 1 : 1
4) 4 : 5
Answer: 2 : 3
Q 94: If 27, 12, 24, x are in proportion, then x is equal to
Options:
1) 9
2) 30
3) 54
4) 60
Answer: 54
Q 95: Successive discounts of 30% and 20% are equivalent to a single discount of
Options:
1) 40%
2) 44%
3) 45%
4) 50%
Answer: 44%
Q 96: In how many tears rupees 500 will amount to rupees 800 at simple interest of 10%
Options:
1) 6
2) 8
3) 10
4) 16
Answer: 6
Q 97: Compound interest on Rs.16000 for 1 year at 10% per annum compounded half yearly is
Options:
1) 1600
2) 1640
3) 1680
4) 3360
Answer: 1640
Q 98: If C.P. of articles is equal to S.P. of 12 articles, then in the whole transaction there is a
Options:
1) Loss of 25%
2) Loss of 20%
3) Profit of 25%
4) Profit of 20%
Answer: Profit of 25%
Q 99: To gain 20% after allowing a discount of 5%, the shopkeeper should mark the price of the article which cost him Rs.950 as
Options:
1) Rs.1000
2) Rs.1100
3) Rs.1200
4) Rs.1300
Answer: Rs.1200
Q 100: A shopkeeper mixes 60kg of sugar which costs him Rs.20 per kg with 40 kg of sugar which costs him Rs.25 per kg. He sells the mixture at Rs.26 per kg. His gain percent is
Options:
1) (200 / 11)%
2) (300 / 11)%
3) (200 / 13)%
4) (300 / 13)%
Answer: (200 / 11)%
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Q 101: In two vessels A and B, the sprit and water are in the ratio of 7 : 2 and 5 : 3 respectively. The ratio in which these are mixed to obtain new mixture which contains spirit and water in the ratio 5 : 2 is
Options:
1) 9 : 8
2) 8 : 9
3) 21 : 10
4) 45 : 32
Answer: 45 : 32
Q 102: Speed of a boat in still water is 15 km/h. the speed of the stream is 3 km/h. The time taken to go 6 km upstream in minutes is
Options:
1) 20
2) 30
3) 24
4) 25
Answer: 30
Q 103: A train 120 m long is moving at 40 km/h. The time in seconds, it will take to pass another train 100 m long which is moving at 32 km/h in the opposite direction from the moment they meet is
Options:
1) 11
2) 22
3) 44
4) 88
Answer: 11
Q 104: A can do a piece of work in 20 day and B can do the same work in 30 days. If they work together, the number of days required to do the same work is
Options:
1) 18
2) 16
3) 14
4) 12
Answer: 12
Q 105: P and Q can do a piece of work in 10 days, Q and R in 12 days and R and P in 15 days. In how many days R alone can do the same work ?
Options:
1) 70
2) 60
3) 40
4) 30
Answer: 40
Q 106: The average of squares of first five whole numbers is
Options:
1) 6
2) 7.5
3) 9
4) 11
Answer: 6
Q 107: The average of 21 observations is 40. Out of these observations the average of first 11 observations is 38 and the last 11 observations is 41. The 11th observation is
Options:
1) 19
2) 20
3) 29
4) 39
Answer: 29
Q 108: The first term of an AP is 18 and third term is 10. Its 21st term is
Options:
1) 98
2) 62
3) – 98
4) – 62
Answer: – 62
Q 109: The third term of a G.P. is 16 and sixth term is –128. The common ratio of the G.P. is
Options:
1) 2
2) – 2
3) 4
4) – 4
Answer: – 2
Q 110: The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground which is 30 m away from the foot of the tower is 45o. The height of the tower is
Options:
1) 15 m
2) 10√3 m
3) 30 m
4) 30√3 m
Answer: 30 m
Q 111: From a point on the bridge across a river the angle of depressions of the bank on the opposite side of the river are 30o and 60o respectively. If the bridge is at a height of 3 m from the bank, the width of the river is
Options:
1) 4√3 m
2) 2(√3 + 1) m
3) 2(√3 + 3) m
4) 2√3 m
Answer: 4√3 m
Q 112: If (x + 2) is a factor of x4 – 4x2 + 3ax – 12, then a is equal to
Options:
1) 2
2) – 2
3) 10/3
4) – 10/3
Answer: – 2
Q 113: One of the factor of (121x2 – 1) + (1 + 11x)2 is
Options:
1) (11 + x)
2) (11 – x)
3) (11x – 1)
4) 22x
Answer: 22x
Q 114: All values of k for which x2 + kx + 25 = 0 has real roots is
Options:
1) 5 ≤ k ≤ -5
2) -5 ≤ k ≤ 5
3) k ≥ 5
4) k ≥ -5
Answer: 5 ≤ k ≤ -5
Q 115: The sum and product of the roots of the equation x2 – x – 4 =0 are respectively
Options:
1) 4, 1
2) 1, 4
3) -4, 1
4) 1, -4
Answer: 1, -4
Q 116: With which game is the Ranji Trophy associated ?
Options:
1) Football
2) Hockey
3) Cricket
4) Basket ball
Answer: Cricket
Q 117: In women’s tennis records, which of the following is an unmatched pair of champion and championship Trophy won by her
Options:
1) Li Na : Wimbledon
2) Serene Williams : Australian Open
3) Maria Sharapova : French Open
4) Samantha Stosur : US Open
Answer: Li Na : Wimbledon
Q 118: How many states does India have, and which is the last one to get statehood ?
Options:
1) Telengana
2) Delhi
3) Lakshadweep
4) Uttaranchal
Answer: Telengana
Q 119: Of which political party is Mamata Banerjee the leader ?
Options:
1) Bahujan Samaj Party
2) Trinamool Congress
3) Forward block
4) Communist party (Marxist)
Answer: Trinamool Congress
Q 120: Which of the following statement is not true regarding the second five year plan India ?
Options:
1) The plan was based on the Mahalanobis model of economic development, the architect of which was the Indian statistician PC Mahalanobis
2) The second five year plan was operational from 1956 – 1961
3) The plan assumed a closed economy in which the main trading activity would be centered around importing capital goods
4) The plan also focused on agriculture, that being the main sector on which the largest chunk of our population depended
Answer: The plan also focused on agriculture, that being the main sector on which the largest chunk of our population depended
Q 121: What is ‘The Euro?’
Options:
1) The single European currency
2) The citizens of Europe
3) Name of a European T.V company
4) Abbreviation for ‘European Union”
Answer: The single European currency
Q 122: To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions is a
Options:
1) Fundamental Right
2) Fundamental duty
3) Human Right
4) Natural desire
Answer: Fundamental duty
Q 123: What does Universal Adult Franchise mean ?
Options:
1) All adults who have completed 21 years of age have the right to participate in the electoral process
2) Candidate aspiring to be member of legislative assembly should at least be 25 years old
3) A girl cannot marry till she attains age of 18 and boy till he is 21
4) Any citizen of Indian 18 years of age or above can vote irrespective of race, caste, religion, sex, place of birth
Answer: Any citizen of Indian 18 years of age or above can vote irrespective of race, caste, religion, sex, place of birth
Q 124: Decibel is the unit of
Options:
1) Speed of light
2) Intensity of heat
3) Intensity of sound
4) Quantum of mass
Answer: Intensity of sound
Q 125: One early morning, with no traffic on roads, Rahul while cycling down from Red Fort to his residence noted the distance covered and the total time taken to reach home. What can he calculate from this data ?
Options:
1) Velocity
2) Speed
3) Acceleration
4) Displacement
Answer: Speed
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Q 126: Who founded the Ramakrishna Mission ?
Options:
1) Ramakrishna Paramahansa
2) Saradamani
3) Swami Vivekananda
4) Rani Rashmoni
Answer: Swami Vivekananda
Q 127: Which pair out of the following is radioactive as available abundantly ?
Options:
1) Lead & Mercury
2) Radium & Uranium
3) Sodium & Potassium
4) Carbon & Silicon
Answer: Radium & Uranium
Q 128: Sun’s energy does not get converted into
Options:
1) Biomass
2) Wind power
3) Nuclear energy
4) Energy from oceanic waves
Answer: Nuclear energy
Q 129: The unit for measurement of energy is
Options:
1) Pascal
2) Joule
3) Calorie
4) House power
Answer: Joule
Q 130: After First World War political movement named fascism arose. Out of the following statements which one is not true of fascism
Options:
1) Dictatorship introduced in Italy by Mussolini is called fascism
2) German version of fascism is referred to as Nazism
3) Fascists were not hostile to democracy and socialism
4) Adolf Hitler was a fascist
Answer: Fascists were not hostile to democracy and socialism
Q 131: Energy expert predict that many countries will face severe electricity blackouts very soon because
Options:
1) Demand would surpass supply
2) World’s natural oil supply is fixed
3) Electrical supply is fast being eroded by terrorists in many parts of the world
4) Greater demand for energy and extreme depletion of oil and natural gas
Answer: Greater demand for energy and extreme depletion of oil and natural gas
Q 132: Which is the correct difference between topography and landscape
Options:
1) Topography is natural, Landscape is the handiwork of humans
2) Topography is of diverse kinds, Landscaping is not
3) Landscape is determined by nature, topography by humans
4) Himalayas and Thar desert are part of landscape of India, sea beach is topographical
Answer: Topography is natural, Landscape is the handiwork of humans
Q 133: When both kidneys in a patient fail to work, he/she may survive by undergoing
Options:
1) Kidney transplant only
2) Dialysis only
3) Dialysis or Kidney Transplant
4) It is not possible to survive if kidneys fail
Answer: Dialysis or Kidney Transplant
Q 134: How can a food chain comprising grass, goat and humans be correctly represented
Options:
1) Grass → goat ← humans
2) Grass ← goat ← humans
3) Grass → goat → humans
4) Humans → goat → grass
Answer: Grass → goat → humans
Q 135: Every cell of human body has a nucleus except
Options:
1) Liver cells
2) Kidney cells
3) Red blood corpuscles
4) Brain cells
Answer: Red blood corpuscles
Q 136: Many ancient monuments have been spoilt by acid rain which is
Options:
1) Rain water containing nitrogenous compounds like ammonia
2) Rain water with pH 8
3) Rain drops which are corrosive due to presence of Hydrochloric acid
4) Rain with highly acidic pH due to presence of pollutants like oxides of Nitrogen and Sulphur
Answer: Rain with highly acidic pH due to presence of pollutants like oxides of Nitrogen and Sulphur
Q 137: What is not true about the Jan Dhan Yojana of PM Narendra Modi ?
Options:
1) It is a scheme aiming to accomplishing the objective of providing banking accounts with a debit card
2) Scheme of opening ATM banking for all accounts new and old
3) It has the facility of overdraft upto Rs.5000/- for Aadhar Card linked accounts
4) It has inbuilt accident insurance
Answer: Scheme of opening ATM banking for all accounts new and old
Q 138: Select the appropriate information about cartels.
Options:
1) Cartels are group of nations getting together to decide on price & quantity of a commodity.
2) Every country has many cartels.
3) Group of individuals can also form cartels.
4) Cartels can also be formed by a group of industries
Answer: Cartels are group of nations getting together to decide on price & quantity of a commodity.
Q 139: What is meant by ‘Wholesale Price’ ?
Options:
1) Price of goods at factory gate
2) Price of a basket of goods and services
3) Minimum price for import of a commodity
4) Maximum price fixed for expert of a commodity
Answer: Price of goods at factory gate
Q 140: Which Mughal emperor proclaimed Deen-e-llahi or Divine Faith ?
Options:
1) Babar
2) Humayun
3) Shahjahan
4) Akbar
Answer: Akbar
Q 141: B is married to D who is the daughter of C. C is the father of E who is the brother of A.
How is B related to A ?
Options:
1) Brother-in-law
2) Cousin
3) Father-in-law
4) Uncle
Answer: Brother-in-law
Q 142: The first two numbers on the left of the sign ‘::’ are related in a certain way. The same relationship holds for the second pair of numbers on the right side of the sign ‘::’ of which one is missing. Find the missing one from the alternatives.
60 : 120 :: 210 : ?
Options:
1) 316
2) 327
3) 336
4) 430
Answer: 336
Q 143: The two words on the left side of the sign ‘::’ are related in a certain way. The same relationship holds for the second pair of words on the right side of the sign ‘::’ of which one missing. Find the missing one from the alternatives.
Students : Classroom :: Athletes : ?
Options:
1) Team
2) Stadium
3) Track
4) Sports
Answer: Stadium
Q 144: Four boys A, B, C and D and four girls E, F, G and H are sitting around a round table. No two girls are sitting next to each other. D is sitting next to F and is facing A. B is between F and G who is facing H.
Who among the following are sitting next to each other ?
Options:
1) HA
2) AF
3) DG
4) EC
Answer: EC
Q 145: Arrange the following words in a meaningful logical sequence and choose the appropriate number sequence from the alternatives.
1) Table 2) Plant 3) Study 4) Seed 5) Tree 6) Wood
Options:
1) 4, 2, 5, 6, 3, 1
2) 4, 2, 6, 5, 1, 3
3) 4, 2, 5, 6, 1, 3
4) 2, 5, 4, 1, 6, 3
Answer: 4, 2, 5, 6, 1, 3
Q 146: The numbers in each group are related in a certain way. Choose the correct number from ampng the alternatives that will replace the question mark.
( 2 [8] 4 ) ( 7 [27] 10) ( 5 [?] 9 )
Options:
1) 64
2) 55
3) 25
4) 16
Answer: 64
Q 147: In a certain language, ‘732’ means ‘go to school’; ‘4693’ means ‘school celebrates national days’; and ‘19584’ means ‘national days are country’s pride’.
Which digit means ‘celebrates’ in that language ?
Options:
1) 3
2) 6
3) 1
4) 9
Answer: 6
Q 148: If ‘POSTER’ is coded as ‘SDSRNO’, then ‘DIRECT’ will be coded as:
Options:
1) SBDQCH
2) CHQDBS
3) UDFSJE
4) SBDQHC
Answer: SBDQHC
Q 149: Prakash walks 4 km towards west, turns left and walks 5 km. He then turns right and walks 8 km. Finally he turns right and walks 10 km, How far is he from the starting point ?
Options:
1) 5 km
2) 13 km
3) 15 km
4) 17 km
Answer: 13 km
Q 150: The numbers in the matrix given below follow a certain trend row-wise and and/or column wise. Study the trend and choose the number which will replace the question mark ?
| 3 | 5 | 7 |
| 6 | 15 | 28 |
| 18 | 60 | ? |
Options:
1) 102
2) 112
3) 140
4) 196
Answer: 140
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