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# RRB Junior Engineer Exam Paper 2015 Set-2

RRB JE (Junior Engineer Exam)

Exam Duration:  120
Number of Questions:   150
Total Marks:   150
Correct: 1 mark
Wrong:  0.33 Negative marks

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Q 1: Zeroth law of thermodynamics forms the basis of measurement of
Options:
1)  Pressure
2) Temperature
3) Heat exchange
4) Work

Q 2: Internal energy is defined by
Options:
1) Zeroth law of thermodynamics
2) First law of thermodynamics
3) Second law of thermodynamics
4) Law of entropy

Q 3: The concept of overall heat transfer is used in the heat transfer in the case of
Options:
1) Conduction
2) Convection
4) Combined mode of heat transfer of conduction and convection
Answer: Combined mode of heat transfer of conduction and onvection

Q 4: The unit of thermal conductivity in S.I. unit is
Options:
1) W / mK
2) W2 / mK
3) W / m2K
4) W / m

Q 5: All radiations in a black body are
Options:
1) Reflected
2) Refracted
3) Transmitted
4) Absorbed

Q 6: The given P-V diagram indicates following cycle

Options:
1) Carnot cycle
2) Otto cycle
3) Diesel cycle
4) Dual cycle

Q 7: If the cut-off ratio is decreased, the efficiency of diesel cycle
Options:
1) Increases
2) Decreases
3) Remains constant
4) May increase or decrease

Q 8: Size of shaper is specified by
Options:
1) Size of table
2) Length of stroke
3) Power of motor
4) Ratio of forward to return stroke

Q 9: Which of the following is an exzmple of orthogonal cutting ?
Options:
1) Shaping
2) Turning
3) Drilling
4) Milling

Q 10: Grey cast iron is usually welded by
Options:
1) Gas welding
2) Resistance welding
3) Arc welding
4) Thermit welding

Q 11: A grinding wheel of 150 mm diameter is rotating at 300 rpm. The grinding speed is
Options:
1) 7.5 π m/sec
2) 15 π m/sec
3) 45 π m/sec
4) 450 π m/sec

Q 12: In Die casting, machining allowance is
Options:
1) Small
2) Large
3) Very large
4) Not provided

Q 13: The grinding operation is a
Options:
1) Shaping operation
2) Forming operation
3) Surface finishing operation
4) Dressing operation

Q 14: The process in which leaving a tab without removing any material is
Options:
1) Notching
2) Lancing
3) Parting
4) Sliting

Q 15: Steel rails are welded by
Options:
1) Gas welding
2) Thermit welding
3) Resistance welding
4) Argon arc welding

Q 16: D.C. generator works on the principle of
Options:
1) Electromagnetic Induction
2) Ohm’s Law
3) Lenz’s Law
4) Kirchoff’s Law

Q 17: Thermal relays are used in
Options:
1) Motor starters
2) Switchgear protection
3) Transformer protection
4) Generators

Q 18: The most commonly used moderator in a Nuclear reactor is
Options:
1) Graphite
2) Oil
3) Oxygen
4) Heavy water

Q 19: Over speed protection of a generator is done by
Options:
1) Governor
2) Differential protection
3) Over currently relay
4) Alarm

Q 20: The motor which does not have winding on it, is
Options:
1) Repulsion
2) Reluctance
3) Hysterisis
4) Universal

Q 21: Which of the following is not fitted on transformer ?
Options:
1) Commutator
2) Breather
3) Conservator
4) Buchholz Relay

Q 22: Open circuit test in transformers is conducted to determine
Options:
1) Hysteresis
2) Copper losses
3) Core losses
4) Eddy current losses

Q 23: The given figure is the Torque-Current characteristics of

Options:
1) Cumulative compound motor
2) Shunt motor
3) Series motor
4) Differential Compound motor

Q 24: Which of the following is not a non-linear element ?
Options:
1) Gas diode
2) Heater coil
3) Tunnel diode
4) Electric arc

Q 25: Which of the following is known as metal rectifier ?
Options:
1) Selenium disc rectifier
2) Copper oxide rectifier
3) Gas tube diode
4) Varactor diode
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Q 26: For full-wave rectified sine wave, form factor is
Options:
1) 1.41
2) 1.11
3) 1.5
4) 1.28

Q 27: Electron pair bonding occurs when atoms
Options:
1) Lack electrons
2) Lack holes
3) Share electrons
4) Share holes

Q 28: In a p type semiconductor, minority carriers are
Options:
1) Holes
2) Electrons
3) Dopants
4) Atoms

Q 29: Which of the following is a pentavalent material ?
Options:
1) Carbon
2) Boron
3) Phosphorus
4) Silicon

Q 30: Another name for a unity gain amplifier is
Options:
1) Difference amplifier
2) Comparator
3) Single ended
4) Voltage follower

Q 31: At room temperature, the current in intrinsic semiconductor is due to
Options:
1) Holes
2) Electrons
3) Ions
4) Holes and electrons both

Q 32: AB + AB’ =
Options:
1) B
2) A
3) 1
4) 0

Q 33: Which of the following devices has one input and many outputs ?
Options:
1) Multiplexer
2) Demultiplexer
3) Flip-flop
4) Counter

Q 34: The number of bits in ASCII is
Options:
1) 7
2) 8
3) 9
4) 10

Q 35: Poise can also be expressed as
Options:
1) Dyne-cm/s2
2) Dyne-cm/s
3) Dyne-s/cm
4) Dyne-s/cm2

Q 36: Number of phase in soil mass is
Options:
1) 3
2) 2
3) 1
4) 4

Q 37: Bolts are most suitable to carry
Options:
1) Shear
2) Bending
3) Axial tension
4) Shear and bending

Q 38: Spherical shape of droplets of mercury is due to
Options:
1) High density
2) High surface tension
4) Water

Q 39: The method of oriented a plane table with two inaccessible points is known as
Options:
1) Intersection
2) Resection
3) Back sighting
4) Two-point problem

Q 40: The most likely time (m) is mode of the
Options:
1) Normal distribution
2) Beta distribution
3) Binomial distribution
4) Poisson distribution

Q 41: Which of the following timbers is suitable for making sports goods ?
Options:
1) Mulberry
2) Mahogany
3) Sal
4) Deodar

Q 42: Cement concrete is a
Options:
1) Elastic material
2) Visco-elastic material
3) Non elastic material
4) Plastic material

Q 43: Which of the following is used to measure the discharge ?
Options:
1) Current meter
2) Venturimeter
3) Pitot tube
4) Hotwire anemometer

Q 44: Direct method of contouring is
Options:
1) A quick method
2) Adopted for large surveys only
3) Most accurate method
4) Suitable for hilly terrains

Q 45: Which of the following soils has more plasticity index ?
Options:
1) Sand
2) Silt
3) Clay
4) Gravel

Q 46: Seasoning of timber is required to
Options:
1) Soften the timber
2) Harden the timber
3) Straighten the timber
4) Remove sap from the timber
Answer:  Remove sap from the timber

Q 47: An instrument transformer is used to extend the range of
Options:
1) Induction instrument
2) Electrostatic instrument
3) Moving coil instrument
4) PMMC instrument

Q 48: Wattmeter cannot be designed on the principle of
Options:
1) Electrostatic instrument
2) Thermocouple instrument
3) Moving iron instrument
4) Electrodynamic instrument

Q 49: In an energy meter, braking torque is produced to
Options:
1) Safe guard it against creep
2) Brake the instrument
3) Bring energy meter to stand still
4) Maintain steady speed and equal to driving torque

Q 50: Resistances can be measured with the help of
Options:
1) Wattmeters
2) Voltmeters
3) Ammeters
4) Ohmmeters and Resistance bridges

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Q 51: Which of the following essential features is possessed by an indicating instrument ?
Options:
1) Deflecting device
2) Controlling device
3) Damping device
4) Deflecting, controlling and damping device
Answer: Deflecting, controlling and damping device

Q 52: Per capita water demand is
Options:
1) Average amount of daily water required by one person
2) Monthly average amount of daily water required by one person
3) Annual average amount of daily water required by one person
4) Weekly average amount of daily water required by one person
Answer: Annual average amount of daily water required by one person

Q 53: The permissible/desirable drinking water standard for total hardness is
Options:
1) 200 mg/l
2) 300 mg/l
3) 250 mg/l
4) 500 mg/l

Q 54: In BOD5 determination of sewage,, the initial dissolved oxygen is measured to be 8.3 mg/l. However, after 5 day incubation at 20 oC temperature. The dissolved oxygen is found to be 2.3 mg/l. If the dilution factor is 1:60, the BOD5 of the sewage would be
Options:
1) 360 mg/l
2) 260 mg/l
3) Cannot be determined
4) 6.0 mg/l

Q 55: The continuous exposure of high concentration of carbon monoxide may cause
Options:
1) Damage of alveoli
2) Kidney damage
3) Failure of respiratory system
4) Coma followed by death

Q 56: The frequency range of audibility of a healthy person with perfect hearing is
Options:
1) 200 to 10000 Hz
2) 2000 to 5000 Hz
3) 20 to 20,000 Hz
4) 20 to 2000 Hz

Q 57: The green house gases as per their increasing order of effectiveness are
Options:
1) CO2, CH4, N2O and CFC
2) CH4, CO2, N2O and CFC
3) N2O, CH4, CO2 and CFC
4) CFC, CH4, CO2 AND N2O
Answer: CO2, CH4, N2O and CFC

Q 58: Printer is a(an)_______
Options:
1) Input device
2) Output device
3) Storage device
4) Both input and output device

Q 59: Which of the following is not true about EPROM ?
Options:
1) Random access memory
2) Erasable programmable read  only memory
3) Non-volatile memory
4) Sequential access memory

Q 60: Which of the following components of CPU temporarily stores data for ALU operations ?
Options:
1) Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU)
2) Control Unit (CU)
3) Registers
4) Random Access Memory (RAM)

Q 61: BCD coding scheme uses______bits to code decimal digits.
Options:
1) 4
2) 8
3) 16
4) 32

Q 62: The binary representation of 195.5 is_______
Options:
1) (11000001.01)2
2) (11000001.11)2
3) (11000011.01)2
4) (11000011.10)2

Q 63: Considering X as a binary variable, the Boolean expression X. 1 is equivalent to
Options:
1) X
2) 1
3) 0
4) X’

Q 64: The 2’s compliment of the binary number (00000000)2 s
Options:
1) (11111111)2
2) (00000000)2
3) (10101010)2
4) (01010101)2

Q 65: A proprietary technology developed by Microsoft that allows embedding and linking to documents and other objects is
Options:
1) DOM
2) MODEM
3) OLE
4) OpenDoc

Q 66: Class ‘B’ IP addresses use_______bits for Network ID.
span style=”color: #000000;”>Options:
1) 8
2) 16
3) 24
4) 32

Q 67: Which of the following is not a Web browser ?
Options:
1) Netscape Navigator
2) NetSurf
3) XML
4) Opera

Q 68: The diagonal scale is used to represent
Options:
1) Three consecutive units
2) Two consecutive units
3) Diagonal of square
4) Diagonal of rectangle

Q 69: If a line is parallel to H.P. and inclined to V.P., its true length will be seen in
Options:
1) Front view
2) Top view
3) Side view
4) Both front and top views

Q 70: If both the front and top views of a plane are straight lines, it may be
Options:
1) Perpendicular to both horizontal and vertical planes
2) Parallel to horizontal plane and perpendicular to vertical plane
3) Perpendicular  to horizontal plane and parallel to vertical plane
4) Parallel to both horizontal and vertical planes
Answer: Perpendicular to both horizontal and vertical planes

Q 71: For orthographic projections, BIS recommend the following projections.
Options:
1) Fourth-angle projection
2) Third-angle projection
3) First-angle Projection
4) Second-angle projection

Q 72: A square lamina is perpendicular to the H.P. and inclined to V.P. Its
Options:
1) V.T. will be perpendicular to the reference line
2) H.T. will be parallel to the reference line
3) V.T. will be parallel to the reference line
4) V.T. will be inclined to the reference line
Answer: V.T. will be perpendicular to the reference line

Q 73: A truck of mass 1000 kg moving at a speed of 20 m/s is braked suddenly with a braking force of 5000 N. The distance travelled by the truck before stopping is
Options:
1) 20 m
2) 30 m
3) 40 m
4) 80 m

Q 74: A cubical box (each side 10 cm) of weight 19.6 N is placed on a table. The pressure exerted by the box on the table is
Options:
1) 19.6 N/m2
2) 1.96 x 103 N/m2
3)1.96 N/m2
4) 0.98 x 103 N/m2

Q 75: Rohan does 150 J of work in 5 s. The power delivered by him is
Options:
1) 30 W
2) 15 W
3) 150 W
4) 750 W

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Q 76: For a sound wave, the amplitude is
Options:
1) The distance between two consecutive crests
2) The distance between two consecutive troughs
3) The height difference between a crest and a trough
4) One-half the height difference between a crest and a trough
Answer: One-half the height difference between a crest and a trough

Q 77: An object and a screen are separated by 25 cm. When a convex lens is placed between them at a distance of 5 cm from the object, a sharp image is formed on the screen. The focal length of the lens is
Options:
1) 20 cm
2) 6.67 cm
3) 4.0 cm
4) 2.0 cm

Q 78: Two conducting wires A (resistance RA) and B (resistance RB) are made of same material and have the same length. If the diameter of wire B is twice that of wire A, the ratio RA/RB is
Options:
1) 4
2) 1/4
3) 1/2
4) 1

Q 79: For its complete combustion, one mole of an alkane required 3.5 mole of oxygen gas at the same temperature and pressure. What is the name of alkane ?
Options:
1) Methane
2) Ethane
3) Propane
4) Butane

Q 80: Which one of the following is a molecule of an element ?
Options:
1) Cl2
2) H2S
3) NaCl
4) CO2

Q 81: Rancidity of oils and fats can be controlled by controlling the process of
Options:
1) Decomposition
2) Neutralization
3) Reduction
4) Oxidation

Q 82: An element X contains only electron in its outermost shell. Which of the following statements are correct about X ?

1. i) It forms an acidic oxide.
2. ii) It forms a basic oxide

iii) It is a good  conductor of electricity.

1. iv) It has a dull and non lustrous surface

Options:
1)  (i) & (iii)
2) (ii) & (iii)
3) (i) & (iv)
4) (iii) & (iv)

Q 83: Which one of the following can act as an olfactory indicator ?
Options:
1) Phenolphthalein
2) Methyl orange
3) Vanilla essence
4) Litmus solution

Q 84: Which one of the following elements is the most metallic in nature ?
Options:
1) Na
2) Al
3) Li
4) B

Q 85: Scientific names of living beings consist of
Options:
1) One word
2) Two words
3) Four words
4) More than four words

Q 86: Human heart is made of cardiac muscle fibres because these are
Options:
1) Striated and Involuntry
2) Involuntary and without fatigue
3) Voluntary and do not stop contracting
4) Voluntary and fibres are connected

Q 87: Leaves of cacti are modified into spines to reduce transpiration. This is an adaptation to which feature of their habitat ?
Options:
1) Scarcity of water
2) Lack of rainfall
3) Hot daytime
4) Cool nights

Q 88: Which organ of the digestive system gets affected by the disease Jaundice / Hepatitis ?
Options:
1) Liver
2) Pancreas
3) Stomach
4) Kidney

Q 89: Which out of the following is not a Green House Gas ?
Options:
1) Carbon Dioxide
2) Nitrogen
3) Sulphur Dioxide
4) Nitrous Oxide

Q 90: In which one of the following is DNA present ?
Options:
1) Genes
2) Ribosomes
3) Vacuoles
4) Golgi

Q 91: The HCF of two number is 15 and their LCM is 270. If one number is 45, the other number is
Options:
1) 18
2) 90
3) 81
4) 675

Q 92: The largest number which divides 247 and 319, leaving remainders 7 and 4 respectively is
Options:
1) 15
2) 30
3) 45
4) 56

Q 93: If a : b = 5 : 6 and b : c = 3 : 4, then c : a is
Options:
1) 4 : 5
2) 5 : 4
3) 8 : 5
4) 5 : 8

Q 94: If 8, 12, 14, x are in proportion, then x is equal to
Options:
1) 18
2) 20
3) 21
4) 28

Q 95: Successive discounts of 40% and 20% are equivalent to a single discount of
Options:
1) 60%
2) 55%
3) 54%
4) 52%

Q 96: The simple interest on rupees 800 for 5/2 years at 5% per annum is
Options:
1) Rs.100
2) Rs.125
3) Rs.150
4) Rs.200

Q 97: The compound interest on rupees 12000 for 1 year at 10% per annun compounded half yearly is
Options:
1) Rs.1200
2) Rs.1230
3) Rs.2520
4) Rs.2680

Q 98: If CP of 25 articles is equal to SP of 20 articles, then in then in the whole transaction there is a profit of
Options:
1) 10%
2) 20%
3) 25%
4) 30%

Q 99: To gain 25% after allowing a discount of 10%, the shopkeeper should mark the price of the article which cost him Rs.720 as
Options:
1) 10%
2) 20%
3) 25%
4) 30%

Q 100: A shopkeeper mixes 26 kg of rice which costs him Rs.100 per kg with 30 kg of rice which costs him Rs.180 per kg. He sells the mixed rice at Rs.150 per kg. The percentage gain is
Options:
1) 10%
2) (100/21) %
3) 7%
4) 5%

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Q 101: In two vessels A and B, the spirit and water are in the ratio of 5:2 and 7:6 respectively. The ratio in which these are mixed to obtain new mixture which contains spirit and water in the ratio 3:2 is
Options:
1) 5 : 12
2) 3 : 2
span style=”color: #000000;”>3) 7 : 13
4) 35 : 12

Q 102: The speed of a boat in still water is 15 km/hr. The speed of the stream is 3 km/hr. The time taken to go 12 km downstream in minutes is
Options:
1) 40
2) 45
3) 50
4) 55

Q 103: A train 200 m long is moving at 40 km/hr. The time in seconds, it will take to pass another train 150 long which is  moving at 50 km/hr in the opposite direction from the moment they meet is
Options:
1) 8
2) 12
3) 14
4) 117

Q 104: A can do a piece of work in 15 days and B can do the same work in 10 days. If they work together, number of days required to complete the same work is
Options:
1) 5
2) 6
3) 7
4) 8

Q 105: P and Q can do a piece of work in 10 days, Q and R in 12 days and R and P in 15 days. In how many days P alone can do the same work ?
Options:
1) 24
2) 40
3) 6
4) 40/3

Q 106: The average of first six even whole numbers is
Options:
span style=”color: #000000;”>1) 5
2) 6
3) 7
4) 8

Q 107: The average marks of students of section A and B are respectively 60 and 70. The number of students in section A is 47 and in section B is 53. The average marks of both sections taken together are
Options:
1) 65.5
2) 65.3
3) 65.6
4) 65.8

Q 108: The first term of an AP is –5 and third term is 17. Its seventh term is
Options:
1) 31
2) 41
3) 61
4) 71

Q 109: The 12th term of the G.P 1, -3, 9, -27, ….., is
Options:
1) 312
2) -312
3) 311
4) -311

Q 110: A ladder just reaches the top of a wall. The foot of the ladder is 8m away from the foot of the wall. The ladder makes an angle of 60o with the ground. The length of the ladder is

span style=”color: #000000;”>Options:
1) 4 m
2) 16 m
3) (16√3 / 3)m
4) 16√3 m

Q 111: From a point on the bridge across a river the angle of depressions of the bank on the opposite side of the river are 60o and 45o respectively. If the bridge is at a height of 3m from the bank, the width of the river is
Options:
1) 2(√3 + 1) m
2) 3(√3 + 1) m
3) 3 – √3 m
4) 3 + √3 m

Q 112: If (x – 1) is a factor of 3x3 – 2ax2 – 3x + 6, then a is equal to
Options:
span style=”color: #000000;”>1) 3
2) –3
3) +6
4) –6

Q 113: One of the factors of (81x2 – 1) + (1 + 9x)2 is
Options:
1) 18x
2) 9 + x
3) 9 – x
4) 9x – 1

Q 114: All values of k for which x2 – kx + 9 = 0 has roots is
Options:
1) –6 ≤ k ≤ 6
2) 6 ≤ k ≤ -6
3) k ≥ 6
4) k ≤ -6
Answer: 6 ≤ k ≤ -6

Q 115: The sum and product of the roots of the equation x2 – 8x + 4 = 0 are respectively
Options:
1) -8, 4
2) 8, -4
3) 8, 4
4) -8, -4

Q 116: The football player has to leave the field if the referee shows him
Options:
1) Green card once
2) Yellow card once
3) Green card twice
4) Yellow card twice or Red card once
Answer: Yellow card twice or Red card once

Q 117: The first Indian to win an Olympic gold medal in an individual capacity was
Options:
1) Abhinav Bindra
2) Milkha Singh
3) PT Usha
4) Vijender Kumar

Q 118: When you touch a hot plate and immediately withdraw your hand, the action in triggered by your
Options:
1) Brain
2) Spinal Cord
3) Upper arm muscles
4) Bones of the hand

Q 119: In a green house, paraffin is ignited to enhance photosynthesis in the plants as it provides
Options:
1) Water
2) Carbon-di-oxide
3) Oxygen
4) More light

Q 120: Which of the following is not an insect ?
Options:
1) Spider
2) Butterfly
3) Beetle
4) Termite

Q 121: You can make soap at home from vegetable oil and
Options:
1) Caustic Potash
2) Ammonium Hydroxide
3) Caustic Soda
4) Sodium Chloride

Q 122: Students were asked to present a “balanced equation” regarding Photosynthesis. Which is the correct equation ?
Options:
1) 6CO2 + H2O → C6H12O6 + O2
2) 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2
3) CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + O2
4) CO2 + H2O → C6H12O6 + O2
Answer: 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2

Q 123: Which out of the F, Br, Ca and Mg which are important elements because their salts are useful to humans may be grouped as halogens ?
Options:
1) F and Br
2) F and Ca
3) Br and Mg
4) Ca and Br

Q 124: A maximum of how many partners can a trading business firm have according to Indian Partnership Act ?
Options:
1) 20
2) 15
3) 10
4) 5

Q 125: We are able to walk on the ground because of
Options:
1) Friction
2) Gravitation
3) Rotation
4) Combination of gravity and Rotation

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Q 126: Scissors belong to the category of simple machines called levers. It is a first class lever because
Options:
1) Fulcrum (fixed Point) Is between load and effort
2) Load is between Fulcrum and effort
3) Effort is between fulcrum and load
4) It does not have a fulcrum

Q 127: As I was folding my blanket of synthetic fibers, there were sparks due to generation of
Options:
1) Frictional electricity
2) Current electricity
3) Flow of electric field
4) Flow of potential

Q 128: The latest country to give up its national currency and adopt “euro” as its currency is
Options:
1) Latvia
2) Lebanon
3) Brazil
4) Italy

Q 129: Who presides over the present Lok Sabha when parliament session is on ?
Options:
1) President, Pranab Mukherji
2) Vice President, Hamid Ansari
3) Prime Minister, Narendra Modi
4) Speaker, Sumitra Mahajan

Q 130: BCMII project connects Bangladesh, China and India with
Options:
1) manila
2) Myanmar
3) Malaysia
4) Morocco

Q 131: One long river of our country which flows through the North-East is
Options:
1) Ganges
2) Brahmaputra
4) Kaveri

Q 132: The making of ‘maps’ is called
Options:
1) Calligraphy
2) Numismatics
3) Cartography
4) Philately

Q 133: What is global warming and climate change due to ?
Options:
1) Accumulation of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
2) Ozone hole
3) Photo chemical smog
4) UV rays of sunlight falling on earth
Answer: Accumulation of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

Q 134: The Indian Constitution was written on 26/11/1949 and came into force on
Options:
1) Same day
2) 26.01.1950
3) 15.08.1950
4) 26.01.1952

Q 135: A few children between ages 8 and 14 were rescued from a factory where they worked under inhuman conditions. Which fundamental right of the constitution made this possible ?
Options:
1) Right to Education
2) Right to Freedom of Speech
3) Right against exploitation
4) Right to Freedom of Religion

Q 136: The relationship between quantity, revenue and price is
Options:
1) Quantity times price = Revenue
2) Revenue times Price = Quantity
3) Quantity times Revenue = Price
4) Price times Quantity = Current price
Answer: Quantity times price = Revenue

Q 137: Pablo Picasso’s creation ‘Guernica’ was based on consequences of
Options:
1) Spanish civil war
2) Sudanese civil war
3) Second world war
4) American war of Independence

Q 138: Three national leaders were together called Lal Bal Pal. Which name in the options is wrong ?
Options:
2) Bipin Chandra pal
3) Lal Lajpat Rai

Q 139: Who was the last Governor General in the century rule of the British in India ?
Options:
1) Lord Clive
2) Sir Warren Hastings
3) Lord Mountbatten
4) Lord Cornwallis

Q 140: Which of the following statements is not true ?
Options:
1) Amartya Sen is the only economist from India/ of Indian origin to have won the Nobel prize for Economics
2) Amartya Sen is also credited with developing the input output method with C.V. Raman
3) Amartya Sen received the Nobel Prize in 1998 for his contribution to welfare economics
4) Amartya Sen is also known as a champion of nationalism, secularism
Answer: Amartya Sen is also credited with developing the input output method with C.V. Raman

Q 141: Pointing to a photograph Rohit said, “His father’s brother is my brother’s father.” How is Rohit related to the man in the photograph ?
Options:
1) Cousin
2) Uncle
3) Brother-in-law
4) Brother

Q 142: The first two numbers on the left of the sign ‘::’ are related in a certain way. The same relationship holds for the second pair of numbers on the right side of the sign ‘::’ of which one is missing. Find the missing one from the alternatives.
16 : 27 :: 36 : ?
Options:
1) 140
2) 125
3) 112
4) 84

Q 143: The two words on the left side of the sign ‘::’ are related in a certain way. The same relationship holds for the second pair of words on the right side of the sign ‘::’ of which one is missing. Find the missing one from the alternatives.
Microphone : Loud :: Microscope : ?
Options:
1) Bacteria
2) Reflect
3) Examine
4) Magnify

Q 144: Six friends A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting in a row. A is not sitting next to C or D. There are two persons between D and F. D is next to B, Who is in one of the extremes. Who is sitting in the other extreme ?
Options:
1) A
2) C
3) E
4) F

Q 145: Arrange the following words in a meaningful logical sequence and choose the appropriate number sequence from the alternatives.
1) Medicine 2) Injury 3) Doctor 4) Accident 5) Cure 6) Hospital
Options:
1) 4, 2, 3, 6, 1, 5
2) 5, 6, 3, 1, 2, 4
3) 4, 2, 6, 1, 3, 5
4) 4, 2, 6, 3, 1, 5
Answer: 4, 2, 6, 3, 1, 5

Q 146: The numbers in each group are related in a certain way. Choose the correct number from among the alternatives that will replace the question mark.
(3 [34] 5)   (4 [65] 7)    (6 [ ? ] 9)
Options:
1) 85
2) 107
3) 117
4) 128

Q 147: In a certain language, ‘296’ means ‘adults are educated’; ‘7825’ means ‘rich persons are nice’ ; and ‘9257’ means ‘educated persons are rich’. Which digit means ‘educated’ in that language ?
Options:
1) 9
2) 6
3) 8
4) 7

Q 148: If ‘METHOD’ is coded as ‘LFRJLG’ then ‘GROUND’ will be coded as:
Options:
1) FSMWLG
2) FSMWKG
3) ESMWKG
4) FSNWKG

Q 149: Harsh’s school bus picks him up from his home. Then it takes one left turn and two right turns to reach his school. If the bus is facing North-West when it reaches the school, which direction was the bus facing at Harsh’s home ?
span style=”color: #000000;”>Options:
1) South-West
2) South-East
3) North-East
4) South

Q 150: The numbers in the matrix given below follow a certain trend row-wise and and/or column wise. Study the trend and choose the number which will replace the question mark ?

 9 11 21 24 29 ? 6 7 14

Options:
1) 43
2) 53
3) 56
4) 67
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