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RRB Junior Engineer Exam Paper 2014 Set-3

rrb je previous year question paper

Exam Duration:  120
Number of Questions:   150
Total Marks:   150
Correct: 1 mark
Wrong:  0.33 Negative marks


Q 1: The Radcliffe Commission was appointed to
1) Solve the problem of minorities in india
2) Give effect to the Independence Bill
3) Delimit the boundaries between India and Pakistan
4) Enquire into the riots in East Bengal
Answer: Delimit the boundaries between India and Pakistan
Q 2: The Governor General of India at the time of foundation of Indian National Congress was ?
1) Lord Chelmsford
2) Lord Dalhousie
3) Lord Dufferin
4) Lord Canning
Answer: Lord Dufferin
Q 3: Who was the advocate at famous trials of three INA Soldiers ?
1) Bhulabhai Desai
2) Asaf Ali
3) Subhash Chandra Bose
4) C. Rajagopalachari
Answer: Bhulabhai Desai
Q 4: The Consolidated Fund of India is a fund in which
1) All taxes except Income Tax collected by the Union as well as State Governments are deposited
2) All money received by or on behalf of the Government of India is deposited
3) The Union as well as State Government make equal contribution to this fund
4) Savings of Union and State Governments are deposited
Answer: All money received by or on behalf of the Government of India is deposited
Q 5: Which part of the Indian Constitution reflects the mind and ideals of the framers ?
1) Preamble
2) Fundamental Rights
3) Directive Principles
4) Emergency Provisions
Answer: Preamble
Q 6: How long can a Presidential Ordinance remain in force ?
1) One year
2) Two months
3) Till the President revokes it
4) Six months
Answer: Six months
Q 7: The most effective farming method for returning minerals to the soil is
1) Contour ploughing
2) Terracing
3) Crop rotation
4) Furrowing
Answer: Crop rotation
Q 8: Winter rains in North-Western India are caused by
1) Western Disturbances
2) South West Monsoon
3) South Easterly Disturbances
4) Easterly Disturbances
Answer: Western Disturbances
Q 9: Kaziranga National Park is in
1) Uttar Pradesh
2) Tamil Nadu
3) Assam
4) Kerala
Answer: Assam
Q 10: The concept of joint sector implies cooperation between
1) Public Sector and Private Sector Industries
2) State Government and Central Government Enterprises
3) Domestic and Foreign Industries
4) Cooperation between two Government Departments
Answer: Public Sector and Private Sector Industries
Q 11: Which of the following is an apex financing agency for the institutions providing investment and production credit for promoting the various developmental activities in rural areas ?
1) RBI
Answer: NABARD
Q 12: UNDP has aim
1) To provide technical assistance to stimulate economic and social development
2) To promote International Trade
3) To promote cooperation on Environmental Problems
4) To help establish Child Health and Welfare Services
Answer:  To provide technical assistance to stimulate economic and social development
Q 13: UBER Cup is related to
1) International Badminton (Men)
2) International Volleyball (Men)
3) International Volleyball (Women)
4) International Badminton (Women)
Answer: International Badminton (Women)
Q 14: Which Country of Africa which was highly affected by disease Ebola has been declared Ebola-free by WHO ?
1) Sierre Leone
2) Liberia
3) Nigeria
4) Guinea
Answer: Nigeria
Q 15: India’s First Bank exclusively for Women is
1) Mahila Kalyan Bank
2) Bhartiya Mahila Bank
3) Bharti Bank
Answer: Bhartiya Mahila Bank
Q 16: First Sportsperson to be conferred with Award “Bhart Ratna”
1) Sachin Tendulkar
2) Dhyan Chand
3) Balbir Singh
4) Vijay Amritraj
Answer: Sachin Tendulkar
Q 17: Next Asian Games in 2018 shall be held in
1) Seoul
2) Bangkok
3) Kualalumpur
4) Jakarta
Answer: Jakarta
Q 18: Who was recently sworn in as President of Afghanistan ?
1) Abdullah Abdullah
2) Hamid Karzai
3) Ashraf Ghani
4) B. Rabbani
Answer: Ashraf Ghani
Q 19: Who among the following did not win a medal in Asian Games 2014 ?
1) Yogeshwar Dutt
2) Sushil Kumar
3) Abhinav Bindra
4) Jitu Rai
Answer: Sushil Kumar
Q 20: What among the following is planned  to be developed under “Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana” of Central Government.
1) Village
2) Smart Cities
3) River Cleaning
4) Roads
Answer: Village
Q 21: Popular TV programme “Satyamev Jyate” is anchored by
1) Salman Khan
2) Akshay Kumar
3) Amitabh Bachchan
4) Aamir Khan
Answer: Aamir Khan
Q 22: What is common amongst Mahesh Bhupati, Ivan, Lendi, Roger Federer ?
1) They are all Arjun Award winners
2) They all International Tennis players
3) They are all Social Activists
4) They are all Asian Games medal winners
Answer: They all International Tennis players
Q 23: Which of the following pairs was announced recently as Joint Noble Peace Prize winner.
1) Kailash Satyarthi and Malala
2) Amartya Sen and Benazir
3) Morkel and Hosni Mubarak
4) Anwar Sadat and Begin
Answer: Kailash Satyarthi and Malala
Q 24: Who is called the Father of Hindi Theatre of India ?
1) Raja Harish Chandra
2) Dada Sahib Phalke
3) Bhartendu Harishchandra
4) Prithvi Raj Kapoor
Answer: Raja Harish Chandra
Q 25: Match Col. A (Dance type) and Col B (State).

Col.A Col.B
P Bihu 1. Gujarat
Q Garba 2. U.P
R Tamasha 3. Assam
S Nautanki 4. Maharashtra

1) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
2) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
3) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
4) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3
Answer: P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
Q 26: What is the largest possible length of a scale that can be used to measure exactly the lengths 3 m, 5 m 10 cm and 12 m 90 cm ?
1) 10 cm
2) 20 cm
3) 25 cm
4) 30 cm
Answer: 30 cm
Q 27: A student was asked to find answer by dividing a number by 3. But, instead of dividing it, he multiplied it by 3 and got 29.7. What was the correct answer ?
1) 3.3
2) 9.3
3) 9.8
4) 9.9
Answer: 3.3
Q 28: After measuring 120 metres of a rope, It was discovered that the metre rod was 3 cm longer. The true length of the rope measured is:
1) 116 m 40 cm
2) 121 m 20 cm
3) 123 m
4) 123 m 60 cm
Answer: 123 m
Q 29: A bag contains three types of coins i.e. One rupee coins, 50 paisa coins and 25 paisa coins totaling 175 coins. If the total value of the coins of each kind be the same, the total amount in the bag is
1) Rs.75
2) Rs.126
3) Rs.175
4) Rs.300
Answer: Rs.75
Q 30: If X = Y+√(4/z) then Z = ?
1) 4 (X2 – Y2)
2) 4 / √( X2 – Y2)
3) 4 (X – Y)2
4) 4 / (X – Y)2
Answer: 4 / (X – Y)2
Q 31: Solve  \sqrt[3]{0.000064}  = ?
1) 0.4
2) 0.04
3) 0.004
4) 0.0004
Answer: 0.04
Q 32: The average age of 5 members of a committee is the same as it was 3 years ago, because an old member has been replaced by a new member. The difference between the ages of old and new member is
1) 12 years
2) 4 years
3) 8 years
4) 15 years
Answer: 15 years
Q 33: The product of two positive numbers is 2500. If one is four times the other, then the sum of two numbers is
1) 25
2) 125
3) 225
4) 250
Answer: 125
Q 34: A is 2 years older than B who is twice as old as C. If the total of the ages of A, B, C be 27 years, then how old is B ?
1) 9 years
2) 8 years
3) 10 years
4) 11 years
Answer: 10 years
Q 35: A bucket contains 2 liters more water when it is filled 80% In comparison whwn it is filled 66\frac{2}{3}%. What is the capacity of the bucket ?
1) 10 litres
2) 15 litres
3)  66\frac{2}{3}% litres
4) 20 litres
Answer: 15 litres
Q 36: A dealer professing to sell his goods at cost price. Uses 900 gm weight for 1 kg. His gain percent is
1) 9%
2) 10%
3) 11%
4)  11\frac{1}{9} %
Answer:  11\frac{1}{9} %
Q 37: The selling price of a table is (4/3) times its cost price. The gain percent is
1)  20\frac{1}{3} %
2)  20\frac{1}{2} %
3)  25\frac{1}{4} %
4)  33\frac{1}{3} %
Answer:  33\frac{1}{3} %
Q 38: If A exceeds B by 40% and B is less than C by 20%, then A : C = ?
1) 3 : 1
2) 3 : 2
3) 26 : 25
4) 28 : 25
Answer: 28 : 25
Q 39: X, Y, Z started a business by investing Rs.27000, Rs.81000 and Rs.72000 respectively. At the end of one year, Y’s share of total profit was Rs.36000. What was the total profit ?
1) Rs.108000
2) Rs.116000
3) Rs.80000
4) Rs.92000
Answer: Rs.80000
Q 40: To complete a work, P takes 50% more time than Q. If together they take 18 days to complete the work, how much time shall Q take to do it ?
1) 30 days
2) 35 days
3) 40 days
4) 45 days
Answer: 30 days
Q 41: Two pipes can fill a tank in 20 minutes and 30 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are opened simultaneously, then the tank will be filled in
1) 10 minutes
2) 12 minutes
3) 15 minutes
4) 25 minutes
Answer: 12 minutes
Q 42: A man completes 30 km of a journey at 6 km/hr and the remaining 40 km of the journey in 5 hours. His average speed for the whole journey is:
1)  6\frac{4}{11} km/hr
2) 7 km/hr
3)  7\frac{1}{2} km/hr
4) 8 km/hr
Answer: 7 km/hr
Q 43: A train with a speed of 60 kmph crosses a pole in 30 seconds. The length of the train is
1) 500 m
2) 750 m
3) 900 m
4) 1000 m
Answer: 500 m
Q 44: Simple Interest on Rs.500 for 4 years at 6.25% per annum is equal to the Simple Interest on Rs.400 at 5% per annum for a certain period of time. The period of time is
1) 4 years
2) 5 years
3)  6\frac{1}{2} years
4)  8\frac{2}{3} years
Answer:  6\frac{1}{2} years
Q 45: A sum becomes Rs.2916 in 2 years at 8% per annum compound interest. The sum is
1) Rs.2750
2) Rs.2500
3) Rs.2625
4) Rs.2560
Answer: Rs.2500
Q 46: A circle and a rectangle have the same perimeter. The sides of the rectangle are 18 cm and 26 cm. What is the area of the circle ?
1) 88 cm2
2) 154 cm2
3) 616 cm2
4) 1250 cm2
Answer: 616 cm2
Q 47: The height of a right circular cone is 84 cm and its base radius is 3.5 cm.Its volume is
1) 3234 cm3
2) 1078 cm3
3) 2156 cm3
4) 2496 cm3
Answer: 1078 cm3
Q 48: If an angle is its own complementary angle, then its measure is
1) 30o
2) 45o
3) 60o
4) 90o
Answer: 45o
Q 49: A kite is flying at a height of 75 m from the level ground, attached to a string inclined at 60o to the horizontal. The length of the string is
1) 50√2 m
2) 50√3 m
3) 50 / √2 m
4) 50 / √3 m
Answer: 50√3 m
Q 50: For given number series, select the option which shall replace ? to continue the pattern in series.
1, 4, 10, 22, 46, ?
1) 64
2) 86
3) 94
4) 122
Answer: 94

RRB Junior Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)

Q 51: Given below is a series of alphabets. Choose the option to replace ? to continue the series.
1) LUP
2) LVP
3) LVR
4) LWP
Answer: LUP
Q 52: In given letter series, some of the letters are missing which are given in that order in options. Select the correct option.
1) aabca
2) abaca
3) bacab
4) bcaca
Answer: bacab
Directions: (Question No. 53 and Question No. 54): Select the analogous option for given words.
Q 53: Prism : Glass : : ?
1) Shoes : Leather
2) Shirt : Trousers
3) Editor : Newspaper
4) Sailor : Ship
Answer: Shoes : Leather
Q 54:Menu : Food : : Catalogue : ?
1) Rack
2) Newspaper
3) Library
4) Books
Answer: Books
Q 55: Select the odd word option.
1) Gallon
2) Ton
3) Quintal
4) Kilogram
Answer: Gallon
Q 56: A, B, C, D and E are five friends. A is shorter than B but taller than E, C is tallest. D is shorter than B and taller than A. Who has two persons taller and two persons shorter than him/her ?
1) A
2) B
3) E
4) D
Answer: D
Q 57: You go North, turn right, then right again and go to the left. In which direction are you now ?
1) North
2) South
3) East
4) West
Answer: East
Directions: (Question No. 58 & Question No. 59): Choose the option Diagram for given set of words.
 venn diagram
Q 58: Machine, Lathe, Mathematics
Answer: A
Q 59: Mercury, Mars, Planets
Answer: C
Q 60: Select the Option which continues the pattern in given problem figures.
Answer: C
Q 61: A closed thermodynamic system is one in which
1) There is no energy or mass transfer across the boundary
2) There is no mass transfer, but energy transfer exists
3) There is no energy transfer, but mass transfer exists
4) Both energy and mass transfer take place across the boundary, but mass transfer is controlled by values.
Answer: There is no mass transfer, but energy transfer exists
Q 62: Pressure reaches a value of absolute zero
1) At a temperature of -273 k
2) Under vacuum condition
3) At the earth’s centre
4) When molecular momentum of system becomes zero
Answer: When molecular momentum of system becomes zero
Q 63: Zeroth law of Thermodynamics states that
1) Two thermodynamics systems are always in thermal equilibrium with each other
2) If two systems are in thermal equilibrium, then the third system will also be in thermal equilibrium
3) Two systems not in thermal equilibrium with a third system will also not be in thermal equilibrium with each other
4) When two systems are in thermal equilibrium with a third system they are in thermal equilibrium with each other
Answer: When two systems are in thermal equilibrium with a third system they are in thermal equilibrium with each other
Q 64: Heat is mainly transferred by condition, convection and radiation in
1) Insulated pipes carrying hot water
2) Refrigerator freezer coil
3) Boiler furnaces
4) Condensation of steam in a condenser
Answer: Boiler furnaces
Q 65: The discharge of Hydrocarbons from petrol automobile exhaust is minimum when the vehicle is
1) Idling
2) Cruising
3) Braking
4) Decelerating
Answer: Cruising
Q 66: Which one of the following is an advantage of forging ?
1) Good Surface Finish
2) Low tooling cost
3) Close tolerance
4) Improved physical property
Answer: Improved physical property
Q 67: In a fillet welded joint, the weakest area of the weld is
1) Toe
2) Root
3) Throat
4) Face
Answer: Throat
Q 68: Which one of the following is the correct statement ? Gate is provided in moulds to
1) Feed the casting at constant rate
2) Give passage to gases
3) Compensate for shrinkage
4) Avoid cavities
Answer: Feed the casting at constant rate
Q 69: Which of the following processes is the wiredrawing process ?
1) Compressive
2) Tensile
3) Shear
4) Hydrostatic stress
Answer: Tensile
Q 70: Heat transfer in liquids and gases is essentially due to
1) Conduction
2) Convection
3) Radiation
4) Conduction and Radiation put together
Answer: Convection
Q 71: Stroke of an I.C. engine equals
1) Half the crank radius
2) The crank radius
3) Twice the crank radius
4) Four times the crank radius
Answer: Twice the crank radius
Q 72: The main constituent of moulding sand is
1) Clay
2) Silica
3) Alumina
4) Iron Oxide
Answer: Silica
Q 73: Seam Welding is
1) A continuous spot welding process
2) A multi-spot welding process
3) An arc welding process
4) A thermit welding process
Answer: A continuous spot welding process
Q 74: Two transformers operating in parallel will share the load depending upon their
1) Ratings
2) Leakage Reactance
3) Efficiency
4) Per Unit Impedance
Answer: Per Unit Impedance
Q 75: Flow of electrons in circuit constitutes
1) Magnetic charge
2) An e.m.f
3) An electric current
4) An electric charge
Answer: An electric current

RRB Junior Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)

Q 76: Bulbs in street lighting are all connected in
1) Parallel
2) Series
3) Series parallel
4) End of end
Answer: Parallel
Q 77: The electric field strength of a charge
1) Increase with distance
2) Decreases with cube of distance
3) Decreases with distance
4) Decreases with square of distance
Q 78: Which of the following is the unit of magnetic flux.
1) Tesla
2) Coulomb
3) Weber
4) Ampere-turn
Answer: Weber
Q 79: The hysteresis loss in a given magnetic material may be decreased by
1) Laminating it
2) Increasing flux density through it
3) Increasing frequency of reversal of magnetization
4) Decreasing maximum flux density established through it
Answer: Decreasing maximum flux density established through it
Q 80: Vacuum is considered as
1) Non-magnetic material
2) Diamagnetic material
3) Paramagnetic material
4) Ferromagnetic material
Answer: Non-magnetic material
Q 81: Bakelite is a/an
1) Insulator
2) Semiconductor
3) High resistance conductor
4) Low resistance conductor
Answer: Insulator
Q 82: Losses which do not occur in transformer but do occur in rotating electric machine are
1) Copper losses
2) Magnetic losses
3) Friction and windage losses
4) Hysteresis and eddy current losses
Answer: Friction and windage losses
Q 83: In fleming’s Right Hand rule, the thumb points towards
1) Direction of flux
2) Direction of induced e.m.f.
3) Direction of motion of conductor, if fore finger points along the lines of flux
4) Direction of motion of the conductor, if fore finger points in the direction of generated e.m.f.
Answer: Direction of motion of conductor, if fore finger points along the lines of flux
Q 84: Figure shown below represents a
PNP Transistor
1) A power diode
2) Zener Diode
3) NPN Transistor
4) PNP Transistor
Answer: PNP Transistor
Q 85: An antenna is a device which
1) Converts electric Power into radio waves or vice versa
2) Converts a sound wave to a magnetic signal
3) Converts a sound wave of one wavelength to other
4) Converts an AC to DC
Answer: Converts electric Power into radio waves or vice versa
Q 86: Which of the following can provide a digital signal ?
1) Sine wave
2) Square wave
3) Gradual tuning of a potentiometer
4) Slow change in the value of resistor
Answer: Square wave
Q 87: An inverter converts
1) A DC power of low frequency to DC power of high frequency
2) A DC to AC
3) And AC of low frequency to an AC power of high frequency
4) An AC to DC
Answer: A DC to AC
Q 88: Potentiometer is basically a
1) Measuring instrument
2) Integrating instrument
3) Calibrating instrument
4) Indicating Instrument
Answer: Measuring instrument
Q 89: An element whose atoms have three valance electrons, the example of such element is
1) Silicon
2) Copper
3) Germanium
4) Aluminium
Answer: Aluminium
Q 90: A NOR gate is called Universal Logic Gate because
1) It can be used without need of any other gate type
2) It can be used only with AND gate universally
3) It can be used only with OR gate universally
4) It can be used only with NOT gate universally
Answer: It can be used without need of any other gate type
Q 91: A tunnel diode is
1) High resistivity p-n junction diode
2) A slow switching device
3) An amplifying
4) A very heavily doped p-n junction diode
Answer: A very heavily doped p-n junction diode
Q 92: Which is NOT correct for oscillartors.
1) Signals may be Sine wave
2) Signals may be Square wave
3) Signals may be Half Sine wave
4) Signals broadcast by radio transmitters are example of oscillator signals
Answer: Signals may be Half Sine wave
Q 93: The output of a logic gate is ‘1’ when all its inputs are ‘0’. Then the gate is either
1) A NAND or an EX-OR Gate
2) A NOR or an EX-NOR Gate
3) An OR or an EX-NOR Gage
4) An AND or an EX-OR Gate
Answer: A NOR or an EX-NOR Gate
Q 94: Lime mortar is generally made with
1) Quick lime
2) Fat lime
3) Hydraulic lime
4) White lime
Answer: Hydraulic lime
Q 95: The Modulus of Elasticity (E) of concrete as per IS 456:2000 is given by (notations are conventional)
1) E=100 fck
2) E=5000 √fck
3) E=5500 √fck
4) E=10000 √fck
Answer: E=5000 √fck
Q 96: In paints, linseed oil is used as
1) A solidifier
2) A driver
3) A vehicle
4) A water-proofing base
Answer: A vehicle
Q 97: A simply supported beam of span L and rigidity EI, carries a unit point load at its centre. The strain energy In the beam due to bending is
1) L3 / 48EI
2) L3 / 192EI
3) L3 / 96EI
4) L3 / 16EI
Answer: L3 / 96EI
Q 98: In terms of bulk modulus (K) and modulus of rigidity (G), Poisson’s ratio can be expressed as
1) (3K – 4G) / (6K – 4G)
2) (3K + 4G) / (6K – 4G)
3) (3K – 2G) / (6K + 2G)
4) (3K + 2G) / (6K – 2G)
Answer: (3K – 2G) / (6K + 2G)
Q 99: The stress – strain curve for an ideally plastic material is (conventional symbols)
stress strain curve
Answer: C
Q 100: What is the force in the vertical member CD of the pin – joined frame shown below ?
pin joined frame
1) 12T (Tension)
2) 2T (Compression)
3) 7T (Compression)
4) 5T (Tension)
Answer: 5T (Tension)

RRB Junior Engineer Exam Papers (www.newtondesk.com)

Q 101: In a situation where torsion is dominant, which one of the following is the desirable section ?
1) Angle Section
2) Channel Section
3) I-Section
4) Box-Type Section
Answer: Box-Type Section
Q 102: Lateral ties in RCC columns are provided to resist
1) Bending moment
2) Shear
3) Buckling of longitudinal steel base
4) Both Bending moment and shear
Answer: Buckling of longitudinal steel base
Q 103: In a Cantilever beam carrying gravity load, main reinforcement to resist Bending moment is provided
1) Above the Neutral Axis
2) As vertical stirrups
3) As a helical reinforcement
4) Below the Neutral Axis
Answer: Above the Neutral Axis
Q 104: In fluid flow, the line of constant piezometric head passes through two points which have the same
1) Elevation
2) Pressure
3) Velocity
4) Velocity potential
Answer: Velocity
Q 105: A 30m metric chain is found to be 0.1m too short throught the measurement. If the distance measured is recorded as 300m, then the actual distance measured will be
1) 300.1 m
2) 301.0 m
3) 299 m
4) 319 m
Answer: 299 m
Q 106: Which one of the following methods of leveling eliminates the error due to curvature and refraction ?
1) Fly leveling
2) Levelling by equalizing the distances of backsight and foresight
3) Check leveling
4) Precise leveling
Answer: Levelling by equalizing the distances of backsight and foresight
Q 107: Which one of the following diagrams represents the effective pressure distribution for a saturated soil mass of depth ‘Z’ submerged under water of height ‘Z1’ above its top level.
sat = sat. density of soil, γw = unit wt. of water, γ’ = submerged density of soil)
     effective pressure distribution for a saturated soil
Answer: A
Q 108: Illumination is measured using which one of the following
1) Millivoltmeter
2) Stroboscope
3) Lux meter
4) pH meter
Answer: Lux meter
Q 109: Alternating Current can be measured by
1) Moving iron repulsion type voltmeter
2) Permanent Magnet type Ammeter
3) Electronic Voltmeter
4) Induction Ammeter
Answer: Induction Ammeter
Q 110: Wheatstone bridge is used to measure
1) Low values of current and high values of current
2) High values of current
3) Low values of voltage
4) Resistance values
Answer: Resistance values
Q 111: Meggar is an instrument to measure
1) Q of a coil
2) Inductance of a coil
3) Very low resistance
4) Insulation Resistance
Answer: Insulation Resistance
Q 112: A multimeter consists of
span style=”color: #000000; font-size: 10pt;”>Options:
1) Current and Ohm meter
2) Voltmeter and Ohm meter
3) Voltmeter and Current meter
4) Voltmeter, Current meter and Ohm meter
Answer: Voltmeter, Current meter and Ohm meter
Q 113: Major contributing activity towards Global warning by Greenhouse gases is
1) Agriculture
2) Deforestation
3) Energy
4) Industry
Answer: Energy
Q 114: Electrostatic Precipitators are devices for
1) Particulate Emission Control
2) Water Pollution Control
3) Noise Pollution Control
4) Energy Pollution Control
Answer: Particulate Emission Control
Q 115: Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a measure of
1) Particulate utilized during oxidation of organic matters
2) Suspended particles in water
3) Suspended particles in air
4) Noise level in air
Answer: Particulate utilized during oxidation of organic matters
Q 116: Biodegradable pollutants are
1) Quickly degraded by natural means
2) Can not be degraded
3) Can be degraded by burning only
4) Disposed in flowing water only
Answer: Quickly degraded by natural means
Q 117: Which is NOT a cause of water pollution.
1) Bacteria
2) Inorganic chemicals
3) Oil spills from industry
4) High decibels of automobiles
Answer: High decibels of automobiles
Q 118: In a computer, a compiler is
1) A program that places programs into memory and prepares them for execution
2) A program that automate the translation of assembly language into machine language
3) A program that accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program
4) A program that appears to execute a source program if it were machine language.
Answer: A program that accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program
Q 119: The operating system of a computer serves as a software interface between the user and
1) Hardware
2) Peripheral
3) Memory
4) Screen
Answer: Hardware
Q 120: Which of the following hardware components is the most important to the operational of database management system ?
1) High-resolution video display
2) Printer
3) High-speed large-capacity disk
4) Plotter
Answer: High-speed large-capacity disk
Q 121: MS Word is an example of
1) An operating system
2) Processing device
3) Application software
4) System software
Answer: Application software
Q 122: A computer virus is a
1) Hardware
2) Software
3) Bacteria
4) Freeware
Answer: Software
Q 123: Shortcut key to “Centre Align” the selected text in MS Word is
1) Ctrl + C
2) Ctrl + E
3) Ctrl + F
4) Ctrl + X
Answer: Ctrl + E
Q 124: The software in computer that transfers the object program from secondary memory to the main memory is called
1) Assembler
2) Loader
3) Linker
4) Task builder
Answer: Loader
Q 125: Ina computer, the system identifies a file by its
1) Name
2) Absolute Path
3) File owner
4) Inode number
Answer: Inode number

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Q 126: In a computer, Virtual Memory is
1) An extremely large main memory
2) An extremely large secondary memory
3) An illusion of an extremely large memory
4) A type of memory used in super computers
Answer: An illusion of an extremely large memory
Q 127: In a computer, Disk scheduling involves deciding
1) Which disk should be accessed next
2) The order in which disk access requests must be serviced
3) The physical location where files should be accessed in the disk
4) None of these
Answer: The order in which disk access requests must be serviced
Q 128: For Engineering Drawings, Match the Col. X and Col. Y

Col.X (Type) Col. Y (Use)
P. Large sized letters 1. Sub-Titles
Q. Medium sized letters 2. Dimensions
R. Small sized letters 3. Main Titles

1) P-3, Q-1, R-2
2) P-2, Q-1, R-3
3) P-3, Q-2, R-1
4) P-2, Q-3, R-1
Answer: P-3, Q-1, R-2
Q 129: For drawing engineering curves, which is correct option (e = eccentricity)
1) For Ellipse, e > 1
2) For Parabola, e < 1
3) For Hyperbola, e = 1
4) For Parabola, e = 1
Answer: For Parabola, e = 1
Q 130: Match Col. X (Line Type) with Col. Y (Application)

1) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
2) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
3) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
4) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
Answer: P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
Q 131: Which statement is NOT correct in respect of Engineering Drawings.
1) Circular Features are Indicated by the centre lines
2) A visible line has precedence over a hidden line
3) The faces perpendicular to the direction of viewing are seen as edge views
4) In Isometric projection an isometric scale is used
Answer: The faces perpendicular to the direction of viewing are seen as edge views
Q 134: In the graph of displacement versus time shown below. Which is correct.
displacement versus time
1) The body is at rest
2) The body has some initial speed
3) The body moves with constant speed
4) he body moves with constant velocity
Answer: The body is at rest
Q 135: A man is standing on a boat in still water. If he walks in the boat towards the shore, the boat will
1) Move away from the shore
2) Remain stationary
3) Move towards the shore
4) Sink
Answer: Move away from the shore
Q 136: Relative Humidity is the percentage of the
1) Absolute humidity value to the amount of humidity actually present
2) Increase of humidity / absolute humidity
3) Amount of humidity actually present to the absolute humidity
4) None of these
Answer: Amount of humidity actually present to the absolute humidity
Q 137: With conventional symbols, the Lens formula is given by
1) 1/v – 1/u = 1/f
2) 1/u – 1/v = 1/f
3) 1/v + 1/u = 1/f
4) u + v = f
Answer: 1/v – 1/u = 1/f
Q 138: A magnifying glass comprises a simple
1) Convex lens
2) Convex mirror
3) Concave lens
4) Concave mirror
Answer: Convex lens
Q 139: Which of the following property is generally NOT shown by metal ?
1) Electrical conduction
2) Sonorous in nature
3) Dullness
4) Ductility
Answer: Dullness
Q 140: The state in which molecular attractions are very strong is
1) Solid
2) Liquid
2) Gas
3) Vapour
Answer: Soild
Q 141: Which of the following acids is present in sour milk ?
1) Glycolic Acid
2) Lactic Acid
3) Citrus Acid
4) Tartaric Acid
Answer: Lactic Acid
Q 142: The atomic number of an element is determined by
1) The number of electrons in one atom
2) The number of neutrons in one atom
3) The valency of the element
4) The number of protons in one atom
Answer: The number of protons in one atom
Q 143: Elements belonging to the same group have similar chemical properties because
1) They are all metallic elements
2) They have similar electronic configuration
3) Atomic number increases on moving down the group
4) None of these
Answer: They have similar electronic configuration
Q 144: Which of the following alloys contains Tin ?
1) Brass
2) Solder
3) Duralumin
4) Steel
Answer: Solder
Q 145: In humans, bile juice is secreted by
1) Pancreas
2) Small intestine
3) Esophagus
4) Liver
Answer: Liver
Q 146: Which of the following is connected with transport of water in plants ?
1) Phloem
2) Xylem
3) Epidermis
4) Cambium
Answer: Xylem
Q 147: Nephrons are connected with
1) Respiratory System
2) Nervous system
3) Circulatory System
4) Excretory System
Answer: Excretory System
Q 148: Sight of delicious food usually makes mouth watery, it is a
1) Hormonal response
2) Neural System
3) Optic response
4) Olfactory response
Answer: Neural System
Q 149: Jaundice is a disease of
1) Kidney
2) Pancreas
3) Liver
4) Duodenum
Answer: Liver
Q 150: Deficiency of Vitamin C causes
1) Rickets
2) Beriberi
3) Scurvy
4) Night blindness
Answer: Scurvy

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